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Update: 2021-12-09 00:48 GMT

Find Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2015 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Practice the Assam Judiciary past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

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Assam Judiciary Prelims Paper

2015

Each of the questions below consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

1. AMBIGUOUS:

  1. enlighten
  2. corresponding
  3. responsible
  4. clear.

Answer: (d)

2. DILATE:

  1. procrastinate
  2. contract
  3. conclude
  4. participate.

Answer: (b)

3. RUSTIC:

  1. urban
  2. slow
  3. corroded
  4. mercenary.

Answer: (a)

4. PERTINENT:

  1. moral
  2. original
  3. irrelevant
  4. positive.

Answer: (c)

5. TURBULENCE:

  1. reaction
  2. approach
  3. hostility
  4. calm.

Answer: (d)

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Each of the questions below consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

6. CIRCUITOUS:

  1. indirect
  2. complete
  3. obvious
  4. aware.

Answer: (a)

7. DELUGE:

  1. confusion
  2. deception
  3. flood
  4. mountain.

Answer: (c)

8. EMBELLISH:

  1. doff
  2. don
  3. abscond
  4. adorn.

Answer: (d)

9. Germane:

  1. bacteriological
  2. absurd
  3. prominent
  4. relevant.

Answer: (d)

10. NASCENT:

  1. incipient
  2. ignorant
  3. loyal
  4. treacherous.

Answer: (a)

11. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam passed away in Shillong on July 27, 2015. He served as the President of India.

  1. 9th
  2. 10th
  3. 11th
  4. 12th.

Answer: (c)

12. The Government decided to observe August 7 as which of the following?

  1. National Handicrafts Day
  2. National Handloom Day
  3. National Khadi Day
  4. National Artisans Day.

Answer: (b)

13. Who among the following persons was appointed as the new CEO of Google in August 2015?

  1. Shantanu Narayen
  2. Ramesh Wadhwani
  3. Sundar Pichai
  4. Satya Narayana Nadella.

Answer: (c)

14. What will come in place of (?) in the given number series?

4 9 16 ? 36 49 64

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 32.

Answer: (b)

15. ‘A’ took a certain sum of money as loan from bank at the rate of 8% simple interest per annum. ‘A’ lends the same amount to ‘B’ at 12% simple interest per annum. If at the end of five years, ‘A’ made profit of Rs. 800/- from the deal, how much was the original sum?

  1. 6,500/-
  2. 4,000/-
  3. 6,200/-
  4. 6,000/-

Answer: (b)

16. The Headquarters of the United Nations Organization is located in:

  1. London
  2. Geneva
  3. New York
  4. Vienna.

Answer: (c)

17. An ace shuttler, on 28th March 2015, created history by becoming first Indian woman to be ranked number one in Badminton World Federation (BWF) rankings in women’s singles category. She is:

  1. Sania Mirza
  2. Sunitha Rao
  3. Aparna Popat
  4. Saina Nehwal.

Answer: (d)

18. Father’s age is 30 years more than the son’s age. Ten years later, the father’s age will become three times the son’s age. What is son’s present age in years?

  1. 8
  2. 7
  3. 5
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

19. Banks have installed ATMs at various locations in almost all the cities/towns in India. What does the letter ‘T’ denote in the abbreviation ‘ATM’ as used above?

  1. Total
  2. Terminal
  3. Transfer
  4. Teller.

Answer: (d)

20. Which one of the following items is related to Dandi March?

  1. water
  2. salt
  3. sugar
  4. khadi.

Answer: (b)

21. ‘World Human Rights Day’ is observed on:

  1. April 8
  2. December 10
  3. December 7
  4. September 5.

Answer: (b)

22. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following musical instruments?

  1. Sarod
  2. Veena
  3. Violin
  4. Sitar.

Answer: (a)

23. Golden Revolution refers to the development of which of the following?

  1. Oilseeds
  2. Pulses
  3. Horticultural products
  4. Cereals.

Answer: (c)

In the questions below, statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

24. Statements: Some books are pens. All pens are chairs. Some chairs are tables.

Conclusions:

I. Some books are chairs.

II. Some chairs are books

III. All tables are chairs.

IV. Some tables are chairs.

  1. All follow
  2. I, II and III follow
  3. I, II and IV follow
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

25. Statements: All cars are jeeps. All jeeps are buses. All buses are trucks.

Conclusions:

I. All trucks are buses.

II. All buses are jeeps.

III. All jeeps are cars.

IV. All cars are trucks.

  1. None follows
  2. All follow
  3. III and IV follow
  4. Only IV follows

Answer: (d)

26. Cognizable offence under CrPC has been defined:

  1. under Section 2(a) of CrPC
  2. under Section 2(c) of CrPC
  3. under Section 2(i) of CrPC
  4. under Section 2(l) of CrPC.

Answer: (b)

27. Search of an arrested person by a police officer is provided under:

  1. Section 49 of CrPC
  2. Section 50 of CrPC
  3. Section 51 of CrPC
  4. Section 54 of CrPC.

Answer: (c)

28. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving:

  1. not less than 30 days time to the person concerned
  2. not less than 10 days time to the person concerned
  3. not less than 20 days time to the person concerned
  4. not less than 15 days time to the person concerned.

Answer: (a)

29. Statements recorded during investigation under Section 161 of CrPC can be used during trial:

  1. for corroborating the witness
  2. for contradicting the witness
  3. both (a) and (b) above
  4. neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: (b)

30. A confessional statement under Section 161 of CrPC can be recorded:

  1. during the course of investigation only and not afterwards
  2. during the course of investigation or at any time afterwards before the commencement of inquiry or trial
  3. during investigation as well as during inquiry but before commencement of trial
  4. during the investigation, inquiry or trial.

Answer: (b)

31. Examination of the witnesses in the absence of the accused can be done, under:

  1. Section 299 of CrPC
  2. Section 321 of CrPC
  3. Section 224 of CrPC
  4. Section 301 of CrPC.

Answer: (a)

32. Under Section 313 of CrPC, the statement of the accused:

  1. has to be recorded on oath
  2. has to be recorded without oath
  3. either on oath or without oath depending on whether the case a summons-case or a warrant-case
  4. either on oath or without oath as per discretion of the court.

Answer: (b)

33. As per Section 468 of CrPC, period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years is:

  1. six months
  2. one year
  3. two years
  4. three years.

Answer: (d)

34. ‘Dishonestly’ has been defined in the IPC as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another under:

  1. Section 21
  2. Section 23
  3. Section 24
  4. Section 25.

Answer: (c)

35. General exceptions are contained in:

  1. Chapter III of IPC
  2. Chapter IV of IPC
  3. Chapter V of IPC
  4. Chapter VI of IPC.

Answer: (b)

36. A hangman who hangs a convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of:

  1. Section 77 of IPC
  2. Section 78 of IPC
  3. Section 79 of IPC
  4. Section 76 of IPC.

Answer: (b)

37. The right to private defence is:

  1. unrestricted
  2. subject to restriction contained in Section 99 of IPC
  3. subject to restrictions contained in Chapter IV of IPC
  4. subject to restrictions contained in CrPC.

Answer: (b)

38. To constitute the offence of abetment:

  1. it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed successfully
  2. it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
  3. both (a) and (b)
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

39. For an assembly to be unlawful, it must have a common object of the kind specified in:

  1. Section 141 of IPC
  2. Section 140 of IPC
  3. Section 142 of IPC
  4. Section 144 of IPC.

Answer: (a)

40. Rioting means use of force or violence by an unlawful assembly, or by any member thereof, in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, under:

  1. Section 144 of IPC
  2. Section 145 of IPC
  3. Section 146 of IPC
  4. Section 148 of IPC.

Answer: (c)

41. Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty is punishable:

  1. under Section 363 of IPC
  2. under Section 354 of IPC
  3. under Section 509 of IPC
  4. under Section 511 of IPC.

Answer: (b)

42. ‘X’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘Y’, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause ‘Y’ to be convicted of theft. ‘X’ has:

  1. charged ‘Y’ for misappropriation of property
  2. fabricated false evidence
  3. prosecuted ‘Y’ on the charge of theft
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

43. Explanation __________ to Section 403 IPC states that dishonest misappropriation for a time only is a misappropriation within the meaning of this Section.

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

44. Facts in issue means:

  1. facts, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
  2. facts, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
  3. facts, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (b)

45. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant under Section 6 of the Evidence Act, 1872:

  1. if it is in issue and have occurred at the same time and place
  2. if it is in issue and may have occurred at different times and places
  3. if not in issue but is connected with a fact in issue and occurring at the same time and place or at different times and places
  4. if not in issue but is connected with a fact in issue and occurring at the same time and place.

Answer: (c)

46. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per:

  1. Section 25 of Evidence Act
  2. Section 26 of Evidence Act
  3. Section 27 of Evidence Act
  4. Section 30 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

47. Section 27 of Evidence Act applies:

  1. When the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody
  2. When the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody
  3. When the person is in police custody but not an accused
  4. When the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

Answer: (b)

48. Contents of a document may be proved under Section 61 of Evidence Act:

  1. by primary evidence
  2. by secondary evidence
  3. either by primary or by secondary evidence
  4. only by primary evidence and not by secondary evidence.

Answer: (c)

49. Admissibility of electronic records has been prescribed under:

  1. Section 65 of Evidence Act
  2. Section 65A of Evidence Act
  3. Section 65B of Evidence Act
  4. Section 66 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (c)

50. Section 90 of Evidence Act applies to:

  1. non-testamentary documents
  2. testamentary documents
  3. both testamentary and non-testamentary documents
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

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51. The principle that possession is prima facie proof of ownership is contained in:

  1. Section 109 of Evidence Act
  2. Section 110 of Evidence Act
  3. Section 111 of Evidence Act
  4. Section 112 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

52. Under Section 116 of Evidence Act, the tenant is estopped:

  1. from denying the tide to the property of the landlord
  2. from denying the tide to the property of the actual owner
  3. both (a) and (b)
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

53. An accomplice is a competent witness:

  1. under Section 118 of Evidence Act
  2. under Section 119 of Evidence Act
  3. under Section 133 of Evidence Act
  4. under Section 132 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (c)

55. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

  1. 25 August, 1949
  2. 26 November, 1949
  3. 26 January, 1950
  4. 15 August, 1947.

Answer: (b)

55. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on:

  1. 18 July, 1947
  2. 14 August, 1947
  3. 3 June, 1947
  4. 26 July, 1947.

Answer: (a)

56. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India by:

  1. 15th Amendment of the Constitution
  2. 39th Amendment of the Constitution
  3. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
  4. 44th Amendment of the Constitution.

Answer: (c)

57. Fundamental duties were inserted in the Constitution by:

  1. 42nd Amendment
  2. 44th Amendment
  3. 47th Amendment
  4. 49th Amendment.

Answer: (a)

58. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) of the Constitution means:

  1. no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence
  2. one can be tried several times for the same offence
  3. punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

59. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to:

  1. any person living within the territory of India
  2. all Indian citizens living in India
  3. all persons domiciled in India
  4. both (b) and (c).

Answer: (a)

60. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of an acting Chief Justice?

  1. Article 125
  2. Article 126
  3. Article 127
  4. Article 130.

Answer: (b)

61. Under Article 358 of the Constitution of India, which Article automatically becomes suspended on a proclamation of emergency?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 32.

Answer: (b)

62. The three Lists are mentioned in which Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. Sixth Schedule
  2. Seventh Schedule
  3. Eighth Schedule
  4. Ninth Schedule.

Answer: (b)

63. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relation between:

  1. The Prime Minister and the President
  2. Legislature and Executive
  3. Executive and Judiciary
  4. Centre and the States.

Answer: (d)

64. The first Constitutional Amendment was passed in:

  1. 1950
  2. 1951
  3. 1952
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

65. By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985, provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection were added to the Constitution?

  1. Fifty-first
  2. Fifty-second
  3. Fifty-third
  4. Fifty-fourth.

Answer: (b)

66. Part IX of the Constitution dealing with Panchayats was inserted by:

  1. 72nd Amendment
  2. 73rd Amendment
  3. 74th Amendment
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

67. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys?

  1. Article 258
  2. Article 260
  3. Article 262
  4. Article 264.

Answer: (c)

68. Jurisdiction of civil court can be barred:

  1. expressly only
  2. impliedly only
  3. either expressly or impliedly
  4. neither expressly nor impliedly.

Answer: (c)

69. Constructive res judicata is contained in:

  1. explanation III to Section 11
  2. explanation IV to Section 11
  3. explanation VI to Section 11
  4. explanation VII to Section 11.

Answer: (b)

70. Place of institution of suit in respect of immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts is provided:

  1. under Section 17 of CPC
  2. under Section 18 of CPC
  3. under Section 19 of CPC
  4. under Section 20 of CPC.

Answer: (a)

71. A plaint can be rejected:

  1. under Order VII Rule 10 of CPC
  2. under Order VA Rule 10A of CPC
  3. under Order VII Rule 11 of CPC
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (c)

72. After dismissal of a suit under Order IX Rule 8 of CPC, a fresh suit under Order IX Rule 9 of CPC on the same cause of action:

  1. is barred
  2. is not barred
  3. is not barred subject to law of limitation
  4. can be filed with the permission of the court.

Answer: (a)

73. An ex-parte decree can be set aside:

  1. under Order IX Rule 7 of CPC
  2. under Order IX Rule 11 of CPC
  3. under Order IX Rule 13 of CPC
  4. under Order IX Rule 14 of CPC.

Answer: (c)

74. If the plaintiff wants to withdraw the suit, then:

  1. the plaintiff can withdraw the suit against all the defendants if there are more than one
  2. the plaintiff has the liberty to withdraw the suit against some of the defendant if there are more than one
  3. the plaintiff has the liberty to withdraw the suit against any one of the defendants
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

75. Commission to make local investigation cannot be issued for the purpose of:

  1. collecting evidence on a fact
  2. elucidating any matter in dispute
  3. ascertaining the market value of the property
  4. ascertaining the amount of mesne profit.

Answer: (a)

76. An application for grant of temporary injunction shall be decided, in cases of grant of ex parte temporary injunction, as provided under Order XXXIX Rule 3A of CPC, within:

  1. thirty days
  2. forty-five days
  3. sixty days
  4. ninety days.

Answer: (a)

77. Appeals can be preferred against:

  1. decree
  2. order
  3. only decree and not order
  4. both decree and order.

Answer: (c)

78. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of:

  1. 30 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 180 days.

Answer: (c)

79. Order XII Rule 8 of CPC pertains to:

  1. notice to admit document(s)
  2. notice to admit fact(s)
  3. notice to produce document(s)
  4. both (a) and (c).

Answer: (c)

80. An appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies provided the case:

  1. involves substantial question of law
  2. involves question of law
  3. involves questions of fact and law
  4. involves any of the above.

Answer: (a)

81. Before the commencement of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of immovable properties in India were governed by the:

  1. Principles of English law and equity
  2. Indian Registration Act, 1908
  3. British Sale of Goods Act, 1880
  4. Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Answer: (a)

82. In the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, provision for conditional transfer is provided under:

  1. Section 25
  2. Section 26
  3. Section 27
  4. Section 29.

Answer: (a)

83. A lease of immovable property from year to year or for any term exceeding one year or reserving a yearly rent, can be made:

  1. orally, without any written instrument
  2. by unregistered instrument
  3. by registered instrument
  4. both (b) and (c).

Answer: (c)

84. The definition of ‘tort’ is contained in:

  1. The General Clauses Act, 1897
  2. The Limitation Act, 1963
  3. The Indian Contract Act, 1872
  4. The Indian Penal Code, 1860.

Answer: (b)

85. ‘Ubi Jus ibi remedium’ means:

  1. where there is right, there is a remedy
  2. there is no remedy without a wrong
  3. there is no wrong without a remedy
  4. there is no right without a remedy.

Answer: (a)

86. Volenti non fit injuria is:

  1. a defence in an action founded on tort
  2. a ground for initiation of action for tort
  3. not a defence in an action for tort
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

87. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void under:

  1. Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
  2. Section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
  3. Section 2(f) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
  4. Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Answer: (d)

88. Novation of a contract means:

  1. the renewal of original contract
  2. substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
  3. cancellation of contract
  4. alteration of the contract.

Answer: (b)

89. The age of majority for the purpose of Indian Contract Act, 1872, is:

  1. 18 years
  2. 21 years
  3. 16 years for girls and 18 years for boys
  4. 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys.

Answer: (a)

90. The damages under Section 73 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, are:

  1. liquidated
  2. compensatory
  3. penal
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

তলত উল্লেখ কৰা জতুৱা ঠাঁচ আৰু খণ্ড বাক্যবোৰৰ অৰ্থ লিখক:

91. খাই পাত ফলা:

  1. মুখেৰে বৰাই কৰা
  2. অশলাগী
  3. অইনৰ ভাল দেখিব নোৱাৰা
  4. বিমোৰ অৱস্থা.

Answer: (b)

92. সোণত সুৱগা চৰা:

  1. আশা হত হোৱা
  2. অতি ৰূপহ
  3. অকপট চেষ্টা
  4. কামত আগত চলা.

Answer: (b)

93. হাত লৰ:

  1. ক্ষমতা সম্পন্ন
  2. যত্ন কৰ
  3. চোৰ স্বভাৱযুক্ত
  4. সাজু হ.

Answer: (c)

94. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা সমার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ:

  1. পদ্ম – শতদল
  2. বহি – অনল
  3. প্ৰাচীৰ – প্রসিদ্ধ
  4. খ্যাতি – কীর্তি.

Answer: (c)

95. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা সমার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ:

  1. প্রতিজ্ঞা – অঙ্গীকাৰ
  2. প্ৰেৰণা – উৎসাহ
  3. হুবহু – অবিকল
  4. শুকুলা – ডাৱৰ.

Answer: (d)

96. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা বিপৰীতার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ:

  1. বিৰল – সুলভ
  2. যশ – অপযশ
  3. আস্থা – অনাস্থা
  4. নিমজ – মসৃণ.

Answer: (d)

97. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা বিপৰীতার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ:

  1. সঞ্চয় – অপচয়
  2. উন্নত – অনুন্নত
  3. প্রত্যক্ষ – অপ্রাসঙ্গিক
  4. বৃষ্টি – অনাবৃষ্টি.

Answer: (c)

98. নিস্তাৰ শব্দৰ সন্ধি ভাঙিলে হব:

  1. নিস + তাৰ
  2. নিঃ+ তাৰ
  3. নিষ+ তাৰ
  4. নিস্ত +আৰ.

Answer: (b)

99. Abatement শব্দটোৰ অৰ্থ কি?

  1. অপাকৰণ
  2. পৰিত্যক্ত
  3. অপপ্ৰেৰণা
  4. অনুকূলকৰণ.

Answer: (a)

100. Regulation শব্দটোৰ অৰ্থ কি?

  1. নিয়ম
  2. বিনিয়ম
  3. নিয়মানুকৰণ
  4. নিয়মিত.

Answer: (b)

Assam Judiciary Prelims 2015 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF

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