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Assam Judiciary Prelims Paper

2019

1. India has successfully tested its first-ever Anti-Satellite (A—SAT) Missile capability under which of the following missions?

1. Mission Avatar
2. Mission Parakram
3. Mission Shakti
4. Mission Talwar.

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (Areawise)?

1. Arunachal West
2. Ladakh
3. Barmer
4. Kutch.

Answer: (b)

3. The headquarters of the International Criminal Police Organisation (Interpol) is situated in:

1. United States of America
2. Italy
3. England
4. France.

Answer: (d)

4. Golan Heights is the disputed region between which of the following countries?

1. Iran & Israel
2. Afghanistan & Pakistan
3. Syria & Israel
4. Iraq & Israel.

Answer: (c)

5. Mankading, recently in the news during the Indian Premier League, is associated to which of the following sports?

1. Basketball
2. Football
3. Cricket
4. Hockey.

Answer: (c)

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6. Which movie has been crowned Best Picture at the 91st Academy Awards?

1. Bohemian Rhapsody
2. Green Book
3. The Favourite
4. Roma.

Answer: (b)

7. As per the Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of Political Parties and Candidates by Election Commission of India they can’t hold public meetings during the period of hours _________ ending with the hour fixed for the close of the poll.

1. 12
2. 24
3. 36
4. 48.

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following is/are the Official language(s) of Nagaland?

1. Nagamese
2. Assamese
3. English
4. English and Nagamese.

Answer: (c)

9. Which technology giant has launched India-specific tools to boost election engagement?

1. Facebook
2. Microsoft
3. Google
4. Twitter.

Answer: (a)

10. Which Ahom King built the Dhodar Ali?

1. Purandar Singha
2. Gadadhar Singha
3. Rudra Singha
4. Siva Singha.

Answer: (b)

11. A short quotation or saying at the beginning of a book or chapter, intended to suggest its theme:

1. Anecdote
2. Epithet
3. Epigraph
4. Adage.

Answer: (c)

12. Describe in one word: The act of a parent killing his or her son or daughter:

1. Matricide
2. Filicide
3. Pedicide
4. Uxoricide.

Answer: (b)

Directions: Question Nos. 13 to 16: Identify the synonym of the following words: 13. Prognosis:

1. Identification
2. Scheme
3. Preface
4. Forecast.

Answer: (d)

14. Penchant:

1. Eagerness
2. Disability
3. Like
4. Dislike.

Answer: (c)

15. Abnegation:

1. Self-criticism
2. Self-praise
3. Self-sacrifice
4. Self-denial.

Answer: (d)

16. Invidious:

1. Weak
2. Flourishing
3. Unpopular
4. Starving.

Answer: (c)

Directions: Question Nos. 17 to 20: Identify the antonym of the following words: 17. Dearth:

1. Extravagance
2. Abundance
3. Scarcity
4. Sufficiency.

Answer: (b)

18. Precarious:

1. Dangerous
2. Cautious
3. Safe
4. Easy.

Answer: (c)

19. Communicative:

1. Primitive
2. Dumb
3. Passive
4. Reticent.

Answer: (d)

20. Indulge:

1. Avoid
2. Forego
3. Abstain
4. Neglect.

Answer: (c)

Directions: Question Nos. 21 to 24: A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word. 21. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to:

1. speed
2. hiking
3. needle
4. direction.

Answer: (d)

22. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to:

1. winter
2. bear
3. dream
4. sleep.

Answer: (d)

23. Play is to actor as concert is to:

1. symphony
2. musician
3. piano
4. percussion.

Answer: (b)

24. Embarrassed is to humiliated as frightened is to:

1. terrified
2. agitated
3. courageous
4. reckless.

Answer: (a)

25. Sponge is too porous as rubber is to:

1. massive
2. solid
3. elastic
4. inflexible.

Answer: (c)

Directions: Question Nos. 25 to 26: Two objects, events or concepts are related in some way, you have to establish the same relationship with the other two objects, events or concepts on the basis of the alternatives given below each question. 26. Waiting : Boredom : : Education : ?

1. Class
2. Enlightenment
3. School
4. College.

Answer: (b)

27. Disease : Health : : Freedom : ?

1. Slavery
2. Pleasure
3. Plight
4. Beauty.

Answer: (a)

Directions: Question Nos. 28 to 30: One statement is given in each of the following questions followed by two assumptions. Mark the most appropriate option. 28. Every mature citizen of India exercises adult franchise. Assumption I : Children are entitled to cast their votes. Assumption II : Adult suffrage is related to those who are grown up.

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Neither of them is implicit.

Answer: (b)

29. Opening a sports center in Guwahati is of no use. Assumption I: Inhabitants of Guwahati have no interest in games. Assumption II: Sports have lost its credibility today.

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Neither of them is implicit.

Answer: (a)

30. Go by aeroplane from Delhi to Chennai to reach quickly. Assumption 1: Delhi and Chennai are connected by air services. Assumption II: There are no other means of going from Delhi to Chennai.

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Neither of them is implicit.

Answer: (a)

31. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of:

1. Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
2. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
3. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
4. Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland.

Answer: (b)

32. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. The safeguard which is not provided to the persons accused of crime under Article 20 is:

1. Ex-Post facto law
2. Double jeopardy
3. Right to be produced before a magistrate self—incrimination within 24 hours
4. Prohibition against self-incrimination.

Answer: (c)

33. “Socialist” was implicit in the constitution, but made explicit by ___?

1. 38th Amendment Act
2. 42nd Amendment Act
3. 44th Amendment Act
4. 50th Amendment Act.

Answer: (b)

34. As per the provisions of Article 94 of the Constitution of India, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the office of the Speaker becomes vacant at which among the following time?

1. Immediately after Lok Sabha is dissolved
2. Immediately after the New Government is elected
3. Immediately after the election for new Lok Sabha is completed
4. Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d)

35. Which among the following terms does not get a place in Constitution of India?

1. Attorney General
2. Comptroller and Auditor General
3. Budget
4. Cabinet.

Answer: (c)

36. The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections of/to the:

1. President
2. Vice President
3. Panchayats and Municipalities in the State
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

37. The President of India can proclaim National Emergency under Article 352 in the entire country or in any part of it, on the grounds of:

1. External Aggression
2. Armed Rebellion
3. Internal Disturbance
4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

38. Who among the following decides on the matter of disqualification of a Member of Rajya Sabha?

1. Parliament of India by resolution
2. Election Commission of India
3. President by advice of Parliament
4. President by advice of Election Commission.

Answer: (d)

39. The Constitution of India gives a right to audience in all courts of India, to whom among the following?

1. President of India
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Attorney General of India
4. Solicitor General of India.

Answer: (c)

40. Which among the following article throws all public places to all citizens?

1. Article 15(2)
2. Article 16 (2)
3. Article 17
4. Article 18.

Answer: (a)

41. An offence of affray under Section 159 of Indian Penal Code is attracted:

1. when there is exchange of abuses without exchange of blows
2. when there is exchange of abuses with exchange of blows
3. when there is exchange of abuses only
4. when there is mere quarrel.

Answer: (b)

42. The right of private defence of the body:

1. commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues as long as such apprehension of the danger to the body continues
2. commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues even after that apprehension ceases
3. commences when the assault actually done and continues during the period of assault
4. commences only when the assault is actually done and continues even after the assailant has left.

Answer: (a)

43. Age of minor for kidnapping should be:

1. Under 16 years
2. Under 18 years
3. Under 16 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female
4. Under 21 years of age if a male and under 18 years of age if a female.

Answer: (c)

44. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under which section of Indian Penal Code, 1860:

1. Section 326A
2. Section 326B
3. Section 228A
4. Section 228.

Answer: (b)

45. Under Section 65 of Indian Penal Code sentence of imprisonment for non—payment of fine shall be limited to:

1. one—third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
2. one—fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
3. one—half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
4. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

Answer: (b)

46. Which one of the following brings out the distinction between Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code:

1. Section 34 creates a specific offence whereas Section 149 does not
2. Section 34 as well Section 149 creates specific offences
3. Section 149 creates a specific offence whereas Section 34 does not
4. Section 34 as well Section 149 does create specific offence.

Answer: (c)

47. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code 1860 under:

1. Section 393
2. Section 395
3. Section 398
4. Section 399.

Answer: (d)

48. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child of:

1. Eight years
2. Ten years
3. Seven years
4. Twelve years.

Answer: (c)

49. Promoting hatred among classes is an offence:

1. under section 121A, Indian Penal Code
2. under section 124A, Indian Penal Code
3. under section 153A, 124A, Indian Penal Code
4. under section 153B, Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (c)

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50. Which of the following are grievous hurt?

1. emasculation
2. permanent disfiguration of face
3. privation of any member or joint
4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

51. Which of the following statements does NOT hold true for the confessions made to the Magistrate under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

1. It is the duty of the Magistrate to exclude the presence of the police officer from the place where the confession is recorded
2. It is obligatory for the Magistrate to warn the accused, before recording his confession that he is not bound to make it and that if he does so, it may be used as evidence against him
3. The accused should be sent back to police custody as soon as the confession is recorded
4. It is necessary for the confession to be signed by the accused.

Answer: (c)

52. The Magistrate under the provisions of section 203 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can dismiss a complaint:

1. Even if the proceedings against the accused have commenced
2. Even if there is sufficient ground for proceeding
3. Even if inquiry under section 202 of CrPC is not done
4. Even if the complainant is not examined.

Answer: (c)

53. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that no statement made by any person to the police officer in course of an investigation shall if reduced to writing be signed by the person making it?

1. Section 164
2. Section 163
3. Section 162
4. Section 161.

Answer: (c)

54. Point out an incorrect response under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

1. Inquiry is conducted by Court
2. Inquiry is conducted after framing of charge
3. Inquiry is conducted prior to framing of charge
4. Inquiry is conducted by the Magistrate.

Answer: (b)

55. The procedure for the inquest is mentioned in section _______ Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

1. 173
2. 174
3. 176
4. 172.

Answer: (b)

56. The Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a:

1. Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years
2. Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 10 years
3. Sentence for life imprisonment
4. Sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years but not exceeding 10 years.

Answer: (a)

57. The term “taking cognizance” under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means:

1. Starting a trial
2. Completing preliminary requirements for starting a Criminal trial
3. Taking notice of the matter judicially
4. An administrative action to decide if criminal trial is required.

Answer: (c)

58. The power to direct investigation under section 156(3) of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised by:

1. a Magistrate
2. a Session Judge
3. both (a) and (b)
4. either (a) or (b).

Answer: (a)

59. A fact is said to be ‘not proved’:

1. When it is disproved
2. When, after considering the matters before it, the court believes that it does not exist
3. When a prudent man considers that the fact does not exist
4. When it is neither proved nor disproved.

Answer: (d)

60. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant:

1. under section 5 of Evidence Act
2. under section 6 of Evidence Act
3. under section 7 of Evidence Act
4. under section 8 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

61. Communication made ‘without prejudice’ are protected:

1. under section 22 of Evidence Act
2. under section 23 of Evidence Act
3. under section 24 of Evidence Act
4. under section 21 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

62. Propositions under Evidence Act are: I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable. Which is true of the aforesaid propositions?

1. I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect
2. I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect
3. II & III are correct but I & IV are incorrect
4. II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

63. “The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who would fail if no evidence at all was given on either side.” This provision is contained in which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

1. Section 101
2. Section 111
3. Section 102
4. Section 113.

Answer: (c)

64. A disputed handwriting can be proved:

1. by calling an expert
2. by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document
3. by comparison of the two admitted & disputed handwritings
4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

65. The principle that possession is prima facie proof of ownership is provided under:

1. under section 109 of Evidence Act
2. under section 111 of Evidence Act
3. under section 110 of Evidence Act
4. under section 112 of Evidence Act.

Answer: (c)

66. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the following:

1. Reference
2. Review
3. Revision
4. Appeal to the Supreme Court.

Answer: (c)

67. Trial Court is empowered by O. XII, ____ of C.P.C to pass judgment on the basis of admissions made by parties in their pleadings or at any stage of proceedings.

1. Rule 2
2. Rule 4
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 7.

Answer: (c)

68. Under which explanation of Section 11 of Civil Procedure Code Constructive Res judicata has been explained?

1. Explanation-I
2. Explanation-II
3. Explanation-III
4. Explanation-IV.

Answer: (d)

69. O. IX, Rule 13 of Code of Civil Procedure deals with:

1. Passing of ex-parte order
2. Setting aside ex-parte decree against defendants
3. Dismissal of plaintiff’s suit due to plaintiff’s failure to appear nonappearance
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

70. Where the local limits of the jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provision of:

1. Section 17, Code of Civil Procedure
2. Section 18, Code of Civil Procedure
3. Section 19, Code of Civil Procedure
4. Section 20, Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (b)

71. Section 21, Code of Civil Procedure cures:

1. want of subject-matter jurisdiction
2. want of pecuniary jurisdiction
3. want of territorial jurisdiction
4. both (b) and (c).

Answer: (d)

72. The court can reject the plaint under Order VII, Rule 11(e) of CPC, if it is not filed in:

1. triplicate
2. duplicate
3. quadruplicate
4. only (c) and not (a) or (b).

Answer: (b)

73. Caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of:

1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 90 days
4. 120 days.

Answer: (c)

74. Parties by their consent agreement:

1. can confer jurisdiction on a court, where there is none in law
2. can oust the jurisdiction of the court where there is one in law
3. can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts simultaneously having jurisdiction in law
4. all of the above.

Answer: (c)

75. Remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?

1. Usufructuary mortgage
2. Simple mortgage
3. Mortgage by conditional sale
4. English mortgage.

Answer: (c)

76. A owes Rs. 10,000 to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B & C that B shall henceforth accept C as his debtor instead of A for the same amount. Old debt of A is discharged and a new debt from C to B is contracted. This is:

1. Rescission of contract
2. Alteration of contract
3. Change in contract
4. Novation of contract.

Answer: (d)

77. Contingent contract to do or not to do anything on the happening of an uncertain future event:

1. Is never enforceable
2. Is enforceable since the time of making it
3. Becomes enforceable in the immediate possibility of happening of that event
4. Becomes enforceable only on the happening of that event.

Answer: (d)

78. Which of these contracts has three parties consisting of creditor, principal debtor and surety:

1. Contract of indemnity
2. Contract of surety
3. Contract of pledge
4. Contract of guarantee.

Answer: (d)

79. Ex turpi causa non oritur actio means:

1. From an illegal cause, no action arises
2. From an illegal cause action may arise
3. From a legal cause action may arise
4. From a legal cause action may not arise.

Answer: (a)

80. “Agreement in restraint Answer: ()of Legal proceedings” is provided under _______ of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

1. Section 26
2. Section 27
3. Section 28
4. Section 29.

Answer: (c)

81. The doctrine of privity of contract states that?

1. A third party may enforce a contract only if he has an interest in the contract
2. A contractual term that imposes obligations on a third party is binding upon that party
3. Only parties to a contract may enforce a contract, and the contract only imposes obligation on the parties to it
4. Contractual terms are private and a contract will be unenforceable if its terms are revealed to a third party.

Answer: (c)

82. When can a proposal be revoked:

1. Once a proposal is made, it cannot be revoked
2. Any time before or after the communication of acceptance is complete
3. Any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterward
4. Any time before the proposal comes to the knowledge of the other party, but not afterward.

Answer: (c)

Directions: Question Nos. 83 to 86: From the options given against each question, choose the correct meaning of the legal maxims: 83. Ignorantia Juris non excusat stands for:

1. Law will not punish ignorant people
2. Law will punish illiterate people
3. Ignorance people can excuse law
4. Ignorance of the law of land is no excuse.

Answer: (d)

84. Actori Incumbit Onus Probandi:

1. The burden of proof lies on the plaintiff
2. The burden of proof lies on the defendant
3. Let the doer be responsible
4. By reason of a subsequent act.

Answer: (a)

85. Qui facit per alium facit per se:

1. He who acts through other acts by himself
2. Something for something
3. When there is a right, there is a remedy
4. No one can be a judge of his own cause.

Answer: (a)

86. Pari passu:

1. An amount
2. In proportion
3. In the opinion of the court
4. On an equal footing.

Answer: (d)

87. In a gift, one person voluntarily without ___________ transfer his ownership.

1. Money
2. Property
3. Bond
4. Consideration.

Answer: (d)

88. What is the intention to deposit title deeds inequitable mortgage?

1. Take an interest
2. Take a possession
3. Create a security
4. Take a consideration.

Answer: (c)

89. Who can use the doctrine of Part Performance?

1. Both defendant-plaintiff
2. Only Plaintiff
3. Only defendant
4. Unborn person.

Answer: (c)

90. A persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services is known as:

1. Deflation
2. Disinflation
3. Stagflation
4. Depression.

Answer: (a)

91. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা সমার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ?

1. অনল-অগ্নি
2. ধৰিত্ৰী-বসুধা
3. কমল- শতদল
4. গর্হিত-বৈৰী.

Answer: (d)

92. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা সমার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ?

1. খন্ড- পৰিচ্ছেদ
2. পান্থশালা- বিদ্যালয়
3. আচ্ছাদন- আৱৰণ
4. কৃপাদৃষ্টি- অনুকম্পা.

Answer: (b)

93. Charge Sheet শব্দটোৰ অর্থ কি?

1. দোষপূর্ণ স্বত্ব
2. দোষচিহ্ন প্রদান
3. দোষাৰোপিত
4. দোষাৰোপ পত্র.

Answer: (d)

94. Bilateral শব্দটোৰ অর্থ কি?

1. দ্বিতীয়ক
2. দ্বিপক্ষীয়
3. দ্বিতীয় অৱস্থা
4. দ্বিতীয় পক্ষ.

Answer: (b)

95. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা বিপৰীতার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ?

1. গোপন- প্রকাশ
2. গভীৰ- তৰাং
3. নিঃশংক্‌-সাহসী
4. কৃশ- স্থূল.

Answer: Question Deleted

96. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা বিপৰীতার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ?

1. উদাৰ- সংকীৰ্ণ
2. তপত- উষ্ণ
3. বিনীত- উদ্ধৃত
4. খাল- বাম.

Answer: (b)

97. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা বিপৰীতার্থক শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰ অশুদ্ধ?

1. মূখ্য- শ্রেষ্ট
2. প্রকৃত- কাল্পনিক
3. প্ৰৱেশ- প্রস্থান
4. সাধু- দুর্জন.

Answer: (a)

98. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰৰ বানান ভূল?

1. পুজনীয়
2. কৌতুক
3. ঈর্ষা
4. অদ্ভুত.

Answer: (a)

99. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰৰ বানান ভূল?

1. গৰিয়সী
2. কৌতূহল
3. প্রতিস্থান
4. শোভাযাত্রা.

Answer: (a) or (c)

100. তলত উল্লেখ কৰা শব্দবিলাকৰ কোনবোৰৰ বানান ভূল?

1. পোটক
2. জটুৱা
3. জটায়ু
4. ত্যাজ্য.

Answer: (b)

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