Home >  Judiciary Prep >  Assam >  Assam Judiciary Prelims...

Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2020 Solved Paper | Assam Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

Find Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2020 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Practice the Assam Judiciary past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests… Read More »

By - Admin Legal Bites
Update: 2021-12-02 05:35 GMT

Find Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2020 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Practice the Assam Judiciary past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.
This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Find the solved Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2020 Paper below

Assam Judiciary Prelims 2020 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF

Assam Judiciary Prelims Paper

2020

1. India’s 2nd Private train is:

  1. Delhi-Lucknow Tejas Express
  2. Ahmedabad-Mumbai Tejas Express
  3. Delhi-Patna Tejas Express
  4. Delhi-Amritsar Tejas Express.

Answer: (b)

2. The metal whose salts are sensitive to light is:

  1. Zinc
  2. Silver
  3. Copper
  4. Aluminum.

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is not a nuclear power center?

  1. Narora
  2. Tarapur
  3. Chamera
  4. Kakrapar.

Answer: (c)

4. The team of the Indian Consulate has defeated which team in Diplomat Cup Cricket Championship 2020 in Dubai to lift the Cup:

  1. The Pakistan Consulate
  2. The New Zealand Consulate
  3. The Sri Lanka Consulate
  4. The Bangladesh Consulate.

Answer: (a)

5. Khelo India Youth Games 2020 was held in:

  1. Guwahati
  2. Pune
  3. Delhi
  4. Kolkata.

Answer: (a)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

6. Federation Cup, World Cup, and Allwyn International Trophy are awarded to winners of:

  1. Basketball
  2. Tennis
  3. Cricket
  4. Volleyball.

Answer: (d)

7. Deepika Padukone was honored with the annual Crystal Award at World Economic Forum (WEF)2020 in Davos, Switzerland for her contribution in spreading awareness about:

  1. Mental Health
  2. Gender inequality
  3. Educate women
  4. Child labour.

Answer: (a)

8. Vedas are divided into:

  1. Shruti
  2. Smiriti
  3. Samhitas
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

9. Sisseri River Bridge is in:

  1. East Siang District
  2. Dibrugarh District
  3. Lakhimpur District
  4. Dibang Valley District.

Answer: Question Deleted

10. ‘Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar’ houses the lamp which has never been turned off since:

  1. 1461
  2. 1673
  3. 1187
  4. 1835.

Answer: (a)

11. Last King of Ahom Kingdom in Assam:

  1. Rudra Singha
  2. Purandar Singha
  3. Sukafa
  4. Jogeswar Singha.

Answer: (b)

12. Roger Penrose was awarded Nobel Prize in physics 2020:

  1. For the discovery of a supermassive compact object at the center of our galaxy
  2. For the discovery that black hole formation is a robust prediction of the general theory of relativity
  3. For both
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

13. Which of the following is not the principal organ of the UN Organization?

  1. Trusteeship Council
  2. Economic and Social Council
  3. International Court of Justice
  4. Human Rights Commission.

Answer: (d)

14. Which of the following mountain ranges separates Europe from Asia?

  1. Andes
  2. Alps
  3. Ural Mountains
  4. Rocky Mountains.

Answer: (c)

15. Spaceship, Rickshaw, Tractor, …………….. Cycle.

Which of the following words best fits the blank?

  1. Ritz
  2. Corolla
  3. Lancer
  4. Scorpio.

Answer: (c)

16. Complete the sequence: A, Air, Area, Audio, Abstemious?

  1. Autocratic
  2. Automation
  3. Auction
  4. Autumn.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Q.17-18-Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In a joint family A, B, C, D, E and F are the members. B is the son of C. A and C are husband and wife. C is not the mother of B.E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A and F is the brother of B.

17. Which of the following is a pair of females in the family?

  1. AD
  2. DF
  3. BD
  4. AE.

Answer: (a)

18. Who is the mother of B?

  1. F
  2. D
  3. A
  4. E.

Answer: (c)

19. Which of the following statements are false?

  1. Most of the structure of the Indian Constitution has been taken from the Government of India Act, 1935
  2. The provisions of the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the British Constitution, Constitutions of US, Canada, French, Germany and other countries
  3. The original constitution had 10 schedules
  4. Article 368 is related to the constitutional amendment.

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

  1. Right to Equality: Article 14-18
  2. Right against exploitation: Article 20-22
  3. Right to Religious freedom: Article 25-28
  4. Right to Culture and Education freedom: Article 29-30.

Answer: (b)

21. Which of the following articles cannot be suspended during National Emergency?

  1. Article 14-18
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 20, 21
  4. Article 29, 30.

Answer: (c)

22. Under which article Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to goods and services taxes where the supply of goods, or of services, or both takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.

  1. Article 248(1)
  2. Article 368
  3. Article 246(A)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

23. By which Constitutional Amendment Act Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right?

  1. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977
  3. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  4. The 97th Amendment Act, 2011.

Answer: (c)

24. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and States Assemblies is extended by:

  1. The 101st Amendment Act,2017
  2. The 102nd Amendment Act,2018
  3. The 103rd Amendment Act,2019
  4. The 104th Amendment Act,2019.

Answer: (d)

25. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be made to the Supreme Court by a person who himself has suffered only. Under which of the following, a relative or friend of a person aggrieved can file a writ petition:

  1. Certiorari
  2. Mandamus
  3. Habeas Corpus
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

26. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended:

  1. By the Supreme Court of India
  2. By the Parliament
  3. By the State Legislature
  4. When the proclamation of emergency is in operation.

Answer: (d)

27. The motive under section 81 IPC should be:

  1. Prevention of harm to person
  2. Prevention of harm to property
  3. Either (a) or (b)
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

28. A knowing that some property was in possession of deceased B at the time of his death and it has not since been in the possession of any person legally entitled to. A dishonestly misappropriated it. It is dealt under:

  1. Section 403 IPC
  2. Section 404 IPC
  3. Section 405 IPC
  4. Section 408 IPC.

Answer: (b)

29. The defence of ‘Consent’ applies to:

  1. Private wrongs
  2. Public wrongs
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: (a)

30. Which of the following is false of section 34 and section 149 IPC:

  1. Section 34 IPC requires at least five persons who must share the common intention while section 149 IPC requires at least two persons to share the common intention
  2. Section 34 does not by itself create any specific offence whereas section 149 IPC does so
  3. Some active participation in crime is required in section 34 IPC while it is not needed in Section 149 IPC
  4. Section 34 speaks of common intention while section 149 contemplates common object.

Answer: (a)

31. What is the minimum term of punishment under section 376 IPC?

  1. Four years
  2. Five years
  3. Seven years
  4. Ten years.

Answer: (d)

32. Which of the following does not amount to criminal conspiracy?

  1. An agreement to do an illegal act coupled with some act to carry out that agreement
  2. An agreement to commit an offence without doing any act to carry out that agreement
  3. An agreement to do an illegal act without doing any act to carry out that agreement
  4. Mere agreement to pay bribe to a Public Servant.

Answer: (d)

33. Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, the term for which the court can direct the offender to be imprisoned in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

  1. Half of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
  2. One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
  3. One-fourth of the term of imprisonment to which the offender has been sentenced
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

34. Under the provision of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 cognizance can be taken of:

  1. Accused
  2. Offence
  3. Offence and offenders
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

35. In rape cases, under which provisions of Cr.P.C. the Investigating Officer can collect DNA sample from the body of the accused and the victim:

  1. Section 53
  2. Section 53A and 164 A
  3. Section 53 and 164 A
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

36. Which of the following statements is not true under section 164 Cr.P.C.:

  1. Magistrate can record the statement of a person who independently approached him
  2. Magistrate can record statement only of a person produced by the police or investigating agencies
  3. Statement of the accused may also be recorded by audio-video electronic means in the presence of the advocate of the accused
  4. The accused should not be sent back to police custody as soon as the confession is recorded.

Answer: (a)

37. The order of compensation under section 250 Cr.P.C. can be made:

  1. Where the offences are compounded
  2. When there is no reasonable ground for making the accusation
  3. Where discharge or acquittal was not made
  4. By the successor in office.

Answer: (b)

38. Bar of taking cognizance of an offences under section 344 IPC after lapse of period of limitation:

  1. Six months
  2. One year
  3. Three years
  4. No limitation.

Answer: (c)

39. No appeal lies in petty cases as per provision of:

  1. Section 375 Cr.P.C.
  2. Section 376 Cr.P.C.
  3. Section 373 Cr.P.C.
  4. Section 374 Cr.P.C.

Answer: (b)

40. Which of the following is true under Section 31 Cr.P.C.?

  1. It relates to the quantum of punishment that the Court has jurisdiction to pass where the accused is convicted of two or more offences at one trial
  2. It is the rule of procedural law
  3. Either (a) or (b)
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

41. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the charge sheet made under the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1973?

  1. In case of offence of a rape of a child the charge sheet must be submitted within three months of the FIR
  2. After submission of the charge sheet there cannot be any further investigation in to the case by the police
  3. The right to be released on bail is lost once the charge sheet is filed
  4. Charge sheet against the absconding accused can be filed even if the accused is not arrested.

Answer: (a) & (b)

42. When cash is withdrawn by a customer of a bank from Automatic Teller Machine, the contract is:

  1. Tacit Contract
  2. Executed Contract
  3. Executory Contract
  4. Implied Contract.

Answer: (a)

43. When a party to a contract fails to perform a contract within the fixed time:

  1. Such contract remains valid provided the promise is fulfilled whether at the time of performance or later
  2. Such contract becomes void
  3. Such contract becomes voidable at the option of the promisee, if the intention of the parties was that time should be of essence of the contract
  4. Such a contract becomes voidable at the option of the promisor or promisee and the intention of the parties does not matter.

Answer: (c)

44. Unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person making him to enter into an agreement amount to:

  1. Coercion
  2. Mistake
  3. Undue Influence
  4. Misappropriation.

Answer: (a)

45. An Agent’s authority can be created:

  1. Only by implication
  2. Only by expressly writing the terms thereof
  3. Only by expressly writing the terms thereof and registering the same
  4. Either expressly or impliedly.

Answer: (d)

46. As per which provision of CPC a plaintiff may bring a fresh suit or Court may restore the suit to file after dismissal of the suit under Rule 2 or 3 of Order 9 CPC:

  1. Order 9 R 5
  2. Order 9 R 4
  3. Order 9 R 13
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

47. A decree holder:

  1. Need not be a party to the suit
  2. the term is not confined to plaintiff
  3. Neither (a) nor (b)
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (a)

48. The Court may at any stage of the proceeding order to be struck out or amended any matter in pleading as per provision of:

  1. Or 6 R 16 CPC
  2. Or 6 R 17 CPC
  3. Or 6 R 15
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

49. Counter-claim by defendant:

  1. Or 8 R6A
  2. Or 8 R6
  3. Or 8 R2
  4. Or 8 R3.

Answer: (a)

50. No attachment under a precept shall continue for more than:

  1. One month
  2. Two months
  3. Three months
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

51. A decree against Government can be executed if it remains unsatisfied for a period of:

  1. One month
  2. Three months
  3. Six months
  4. One year.

Answer: (b)

52. In a suit preliminary decree can be passed:

  1. For partition and separate possession
  2. For account between principal and agent
  3. For dissolution of the partnership
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

53. Transposition of defendants as plaintiffs may be permitted as per provision of:

  1. Or 23 Rule 1A CPC
  2. Or 1 R1
  3. Or 1 R3
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

54. A lease is made for a certain period. In the deed it is mentioned that the lease can be terminated before the expiration of the lease without mentioning at whose option. In such a situation who can opt for termination of the lease:

  1. Both lessor and lessee
  2. Lessee only
  3. Lessor only
  4. Both (b) and (c).

Answer: (b)

55. Which one of the following is correct?

  1. An easement right can be transferred
  2. A mere right to sue can be transferred
  3. A public office can be transferred
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

56. At what rate default interest is payable under Section 63 and 63 A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

  1. 6% PA
  2. 8% PA
  3. 9% PA
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

57. Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in existence after the expiry of:

  1. 5 years
  2. 12 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 20 years.

Answer: (b)

58. Where several co-owners of immovable property transfer a share therein without specifying that the transfer is to take effect on any particular share or shares of the transfers, the transfer, as among such transferors, takes effect on such share:

  1. Equally where the share was equal and where they are unequal proportionately to the extent of such shares
  2. In equally where the shares were equal and where they are unequal proportionately to the extent of such shares
  3. Only (b) is correct
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following is nearest to the meaning of the phrase “English mortgaged” as defined by the Transfer of Property Act,1882?

  1. Where on payment of a certain sum by the mortgagee the property passed to him
  2. where there are two sales made, one at the start of mortgage with condition that after the mortgage amount is paid back, the property will be sold back
  3. Where the mortgage is made by submitting the title deed
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

60. ………… are words, which appear innocent, but have a latent defamatory meaning.

  1. Libel
  2. Slander
  3. Innuendo
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

61. Assault and nuisance are:

  1. Wrong under Criminal Law
  2. Wrong under Tort
  3. Wrong under neither
  4. Wrong under both.

Answer: (d)

62. The standard of care generally used in cases of negligence is the:

  1. Skill and care of a professional person
  2. Care taken by an intelligent and prudent man
  3. Foresight of a prudent man
  4. Skill and foresight of an ordinary person of prudence and competence.

Answer: (d)

63. Unliquidated damages mean:

  1. Damage to something solid
  2. Damage caused by a firm which has gone in liquidation
  3. Damage to a firm in the hands of receiver
  4. Damages to be assessed by a Court as these are not pre-determined.

Answer: (d)

64. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called:

  1. Strict liability
  2. Vicarious liability
  3. Tortious liability
  4. Absolute liability.

Answer: (b)

65. The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property constitutes:

  1. Trespass
  2. Restraint
  3. Appropriation
  4. Encroachment.

Answer: (a)

Directions for questions No 66 to 67. Choose the word which is most nearly the Opposite in meaning to the bold word from the given options

66. Ambiguity:

  1. Lucidity
  2. Basal
  3. Dull
  4. Necessity.

Answer: (a)

67. Impalpable:

  1. Visible
  2. Audible
  3. Tangible
  4. Fearless.

Answer: (c)

68. Perennial:

  1. Frequent
  2. Regular
  3. Lasting
  4. Rare.

Answer: (d)

69. Endemic:

  1. Decorative
  2. Frustrating
  3. Terrorizing
  4. Universal.

Answer: (d)

Directions for questions No. 70 to 73. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the bold word from the given options.

70. Consummate:

  1. One of the zeniths of perfection
  2. Existing from birth
  3. Constant; always present
  4. A history.

Answer: (a)

71. Dialectic:

  1. Argumentative
  2. Instructive
  3. Constructive
  4. Destructive.

Answer: (a)

72. Charlatan:

  1. Monster
  2. Prehistoric man
  3. Quack
  4. An ex-convict.

Answer: (c)

73. Aberration:

  1. Deviation
  2. Embarrassment
  3. Abhorrence
  4. Absence.

Answer: (a)

Directions for questions No. 74 to 77. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases

74. Alpha and Omega:

  1. Related to science
  2. The beginning and the end
  3. A to Z
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

75. To rain cats and dogs:

  1. A time of difficulty
  2. To rain heavily
  3. Unfair treatment
  4. To be angry.

Answer: (b)

76. To clip one’s wings:

  1. Capture
  2. To accompany
  3. To agree
  4. To deprive one of power.

Answer: (d)

77. To pick notes:

  1. To cut some part of an item
  2. To find some reason to quarrel
  3. To destroy something
  4. To criticize someone.

Answer: (d)

78. In a case accused has taken the plea of alibi:

  1. The burden of proof is on the Police
  2. The burden of proof is on Accused
  3. The burden of proof on the court
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

79. Under the provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for an admission to be considered as substantive evidence:

  1. Need not be voluntary
  2. Must be binding to the question of law
  3. Need not be writing
  4. Must be judicial admission.

Answer: (c)

80. A creditor invited the debtor to make proposals for paying the debt. The debtor’s agent wrote letters to the creditor acknowledging the debt and offering to pay smaller amount. The creditor brought proceedings for recovery of debt and relied on the letters to defeat the defence of limitation. The letters:

  1. Will not be admissible as evidence as protection of Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872 will apply
  2. Will not be admissible as evidence as protection of Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872 will apply
  3. Will be admissible as evidence under Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act,1832
  4. Will be admissible as evidence and protection of section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872 will not apply.

Answer: (d)

81. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a confession:

  1. Of the co-accused can be treated as substantive evidence
  2. Must either be accepted as a whole or rejected as a whole
  3. Is the same as admission
  4. Obtained by spiritual exhortations are not admissible as evidence.

Answer: (b)

82. For dying declaration to be reliable:

  1. It must be made before the Magistrate
  2. It must be accompanied by a doctor’s certificate
  3. Must be in the language understood by the person making the declaration
  4. It need not be corroborated.

Answer: (d)

83. Which of the following are admissible under section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872:

  1. Recovery of weapon of offence as lead by the accused when he was not in police custody
  2. Recovery of articles buried at the public road as lead by the accused
  3. Recovery of the weapon made as lead by the accused while he was handcuffed
  4. The weapon of offence found lying in the house when the house was opened.

Answer: (b)

84. Generally, which of the following statements are NOT true?

  1. Admissions made in previous criminal proceedings are binding on civil proceedings
  2. A decision of Criminal case is not binding on the Civil cases
  3. A decision of the Civil Court is not binding on the Criminal proceedings
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

85. The fact in issue and relevant facts must be proved by evidence, either oral or documentary. Which of the following situations/facts will be an exception to this rule?

  1. Facts published in the newspapers
  2. Sale deeds are generally undervalued
  3. General customs of the land
  4. If the alternative accommodation is available for the purpose of eviction of the tenant.

Answer: (c)

86. Section 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with:

  1. The rule that the facts in issue and relevant fact must be proved by evidence, either oral or documentary
  2. The facts of which court can take judicial notice
  3. Admitted facts need not be proved
  4. The facts show the character of the parties.

Answer: (c)

87. Law of Evidence is:

  1. Lex talionis
  2. Lex fori
  3. Lex loci solutions
  4. Lex situs.

Answer: (b)

88. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date, relationship and identity of parties are relevant:

  1. Under section 8 of the Evidence Act
  2. Under section 9 of the Evidence Act
  3. Under section 10 of the Evidence Act
  4. Under section 11 of the Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

89. Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of:

  1. Any state of mind
  2. Any state of body or bodily feeling
  3. Either states of mind or body or bodily feeling
  4. A particular statement of mind and a state of body.

Answer: (c)

90. In which of the following cases will the evidence not be regarded as hearsay?

  1. Evidence of identification of a suspect by a witness who was not present at the crime scene
  2. The testimony of the witness in the murder case, who heard many villagers claiming that the accused has committed the offence
  3. A news item which showed that the deceased was being mistreated in her in-laws house
  4. The testimony of person who saw the pitiable condition of a young woman in her in-law’s home where she met her death.

Answer: (d)

91. তলত দিয়া শব্দবোৰৰ কোনটো ভুলকৈ দিয়া আছে?

  1. কনিস্থ
  2. গধূৰ
  3. নাইকিয়া
  4. পদুলি.

Answer: (a)

92. অশুদ্ধ বাক্যটো বাচি উলিওৱা:

  1. এই কিতাপখন মোৰ কি কামত লাগিব৷
  2. এই কিতাপখন মোৰ কি কামত আহিব?

Answer: (b)

93. ডলৰ কোনটো শব্দৰ বিপৰীত শব্দ ভুলকৈ দিয়া হৈছে?

  1. জনক.. জননী
  2. দতাল… মাধুন্দী
  3. শিক্ষক… শিক্ষিকা
  4. জেঠপেহা.. জেঠাই.

Answer: (c)

94. কিতাপ কি লিঙ্গ?

  1. পুংলিঙ্গ
  2. স্ত্রীলিঙ্গ
  3. ক্লীবলিঙ্গ
  4. উভয়লিঙ্গ.

Answer: (c)

95. এটা শব্দত প্ৰকাশ কৰা অদূর ভবিষ্যতে হোৱাৰ আশা নাই:

  1. সুদূরপরাহত
  2. অশ্রুতপূর্ব
  3. অদৃশ্য
  4. এটাও শুদ্ধ নহয়.

Answer: (a)

96. অথাই সাগৰৰ অর্থ কি?

  1. ডাঙৰ বিপদ
  2. নিমিলা অঙ্ক
  3. ভয়াতুৰ
  4. এটাও শুব্ধ নহয়.

Answer: (a)

97. তলত দিয়া স্বরসন্ধিৰ কোনটো অশুদ্ধ:

  1. ল’ৰা+লি=লবালি
  2. বা+অ=খাৱ
  3. উলু+অনি=উলুৱনি
  4. নাও+অনিয়া=নাৱৰীয়া.

Answer: (a)

98. শুদ্ধ প্রতিশব্দ বাচি উলিওৱা:

  1. অক্সিজেন=অম্লজান
  2. অঘনী=অচিন
  3. অজাতি=অজ্ঞ
  4. অগণন=অনল.

Answer: (a)

99. বিশেষ্য পদটো বাচি উলিওৱা:

  1. অংশ
  2. আংশিক
  3. অন্তিম
  4. অগ্রিম.

Answer: (a)

100. ফৰিয়াদী শব্দটোৰ অর্থ কি?

  1. আচামী
  2. চনীয়া
  3. বিবাদী
  4. এটাও শুদ্ধ নহয়.

Answer: (b)

Assam Judiciary Prelims 2020 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF

  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination

Similar News

Assam Judicial Services: Study Material, Test Series and Tips

Assam Judicial Services Examination | Syllabus, Eligibility, Exam Pattern and Application

Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2017 Solved Paper | Assam Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2015 Solved Paper | Assam Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2018 Solved Paper | Assam Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

Assam Judiciary Prelims Examination 2019 Solved Paper | Assam Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF