AIBE XVIII (2023) Solved Previous Year Paper | Download PDF

Sponsored: Practice Online with over 10,000+ MCQ Questions and Prepare Smartly

A smart preparation strategy that includes solving past AIBE papers not only highlights strengths and weaknesses but also helps familiarize candidates with the paper’s structure, pattern, and level of difficulty. By understanding these aspects, candidates can effectively allocate time and develop better test-taking techniques, giving them an edge over their competitors.

The AIBE typically consists of multiple-choice questions testing a wide range of legal knowledge. The exam is open-book, but it requires thorough preparation in areas such as Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Civil Procedure, Family Law, and other fundamental legal subjects. Attempting mock exams will ensure candidates are well-versed in the syllabus and confident in handling the exam's various complexities.

Find the solved AIBE paper below.

Click Here to download the AIBE XVIII (2023) Solved Previous Year Paper

All India Bar Examination XVIII (2023) | AIBE Solved Paper

1. The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated by the experience of which country?

(A) America

(B) Australia

(C) Ireland

(D) United Kingdom

2. Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by an authority?

(A) Mandamus

(B) Quo Warranto

(C) Certiorari

(D) Prohibition

3. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided for the publication of Hindi translations of the Constitution?

(A) 52nd Amendment

(B) 54th Amendment

(C) 56th Amendment

(D) 58th Amendment

4. Which of the following is the landmark judgment on Colourable legislation?

(A) State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh

(B) M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India

(C) State of Karnataka v. Union of India

(D) Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay

5. Which Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?

(A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955

(B) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

(C) The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960

(D) The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961

6. Which provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for resolving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?

(A) Article 248

(B) Article 252

(C) Article 254

(D) Article 256

7. What transition period is provided in the Constitution of India for changing the official language of the Union from English to Hindi?

(A) 5 years

(B) 10 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 25 years

8. In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?

(A) Chakradhar Paswan v. State of Bihar

(B) K.C. Vasanth Kumar v. State of Karnataka

(C) A.B.S. Sangh (Rly) v. Union of India

(D) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

9. Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may be considered a violation of which provision of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 19(1)(b)

(B) Article 19(1)(d)

(C) Article 19(1)(e)

(D) Article 19(1)(g)

10. Which doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?

(A) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction

(B) Doctrine of Casus Omissus

(C) Doctrine of Liberal Interpretation

(D) Doctrine of Pith and Substance

11. In which of the following situations does the Indian Penal Code, 1860 not apply?

(i) An offence committed by Indians outside India.

(ii) An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India.

(iii) Any person committing an offence targeting computer resources located in any country.

(A) Only i

(B) Only ii

(C) Only iii

(D) Only i & ii

12. How many types of punishment currently exist under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

13. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. During the game, A hurts Z severely. Which offence has A committed?

(A) Hurt

(B) Attempt to murder

(C) Grievous hurt

(D) No offence

14. In which of the following situations does the right of private defence not extend to causing death?

(A) When an assault causes apprehension of murder.

(B) When an assault reflects intention of committing rape.

(C) When an assault reflects intention of causing simple hurt.

(D) When an assault reflects intention of gratifying unnatural lust.

15. For which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 does the term 'benefit' not include pecuniary benefits?

(A) Section 89

(B) Section 155

(C) Section 156

(D) Section 370

16. X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil without her consent, intending to annoy her. Which offence has he committed as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Hurt

(B) Criminal force

(C) Assault

(D) Grievous hurt

17. What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims a minor for the purpose of begging?

(A) Imprisonment for 5 years and fine

(B) Imprisonment for 7 years and fine

(C) Imprisonment for 10 years and fine

(D) Imprisonment for life and fine

18. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y pays him money. What punishment may X receive under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

(A) Imprisonment upto 2 years, or with fine or with both.

(B) Imprisonment upto 3 years, or with fine or with both.

(C) Imprisonment upto 5 years, or with fine or with both.

(D) Imprisonment upto 7 years, or with fine or with both.

19. Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorised to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Sentence of death.

(B) Sentence of imprisonment for life.

(C) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.

(D) Sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.

20. A person arrested by a private individual for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Section 41

(B) Section 41A

(C) Section 42

(D) Section 43

21. Under which situation is a wife not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Husband presumes the wife is living in adultery.

(B) The wife voluntarily refuses to live with the husband.

(C) The wife lives separately as the husband keeps a mistress.

(D) The wife is forcefully removed from the house.

22. Which procedure is addressed under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Medical examination of the victim of rape

(B) Attendance of witnesses by a police officer

(C) Recording of confession statements

(D) Recording of first information reports by a police officer

23. Which of the following statements about the diary of proceedings in an investigation, as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, is incorrect?

(A) The statements of witnesses recorded during the investigation shall be inserted in the diary.

(B) The diary shall be duly paginated.

(C) The diary may be used as evidence.

(D) It can be used by police officers to refresh memory.

24. In which of the following cases is the manner of committing the offence not required to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.

(B) A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.

(C) A is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.

(D) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.

25. Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Offence under Section 454 of the IPC.

(B) Offence under Section 504 of the IPC.

(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.

(D) Offence punishable with life imprisonment.

26. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for a reference to the High Court?

(A) Section 275

(B) Section 325

(C) Section 383

(D) Section 395

27. A person accused of which of the following offences may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(i) Accused of an offence under Section 376AB of the IPC.

(ii) Accused of an offence under Section 376DA of the IPC.

(iii) Accused of an offence under Section 376DB of the IPC.

(A) i & ii

(B) ii & iii

(C) iii & i

(D) All of the above

28. Which of the following acts, if done by any magistrate, even in good faith, without being empowered, shall vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) Tender a pardon under Section 306 of CrPC.

(B) Recall a case and try it under Section 410 of the CrPC.

(C) Attach property under Section 83 of the CrPC.

(D) Hold an inquest under Section 176 of the CrPC.

29. Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Averments made in the plaint

(B) Averments made in the written statement

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

30. Which of the following cannot be considered a suit of civil nature under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings

(B) Suit for rights of franchise

(C) Suit for specific relief

(D) Suit relating to rights of worship

31. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in a representative suit?

(A) Section 11, Explanation V

(B) Section 11, Explanation VI

(C) Section 11, Explanation VII

(D) Section 11, Explanation VIII

32. In which of the following situations will a court not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant?

(A) If the defendant resides within the local limit of the court's jurisdiction

(B) If the defendant resides within 40 miles from the court

(C) If the defendant resides 250 miles away from the court in an area with public conveyance available

(D) Woman to whom Section 132 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply

33. In which of the following situations is a plaintiff precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Dismissal of suit where summons not served due to plaintiff's failure to pay costs

(B) Dismissal of suit because neither party appeared

(C) Dismissal of suit because the plaintiff did not appear

(D) Dismissal of suit because the plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within the given time limit after it returned unserved.

34. How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Two times

(B) Three times

(C) Four times

(D) No limit prescribed

35. Which Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?

(A) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976

(B) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999

(C) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002

(D) Such provision does not exist

36. Which of the following is not included in the word 'costs' as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) The expenses of the witnesses incurred

(B) Legal fees and expenses incurred

(C) Fooding and lodging expenses incurred

(D) Any other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings

37. What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the defendant to enter an appearance for filing an address for service of notice on him in a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?

(A) Seven days from the date of receiving the summons

(B) Ten days from the date of receiving the summons

(C) Fifteen days from the date of receiving the summons

(D) Thirty days from the date of receiving the summons

38. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may the appellate court remit an issue for trial to a lower court?

(A) Order XLI Rule 23

(B) Order XLI Rule 23-A

(C) Order XLI Rule 24

(D) Order XLI Rule 25

39. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will be considered a relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Whatever was said by A or B at the time of beating

(B) Whatever was done by A or B at the time of beating

(C) Whatever was said by bystanders at the time of beating

(D) Whatever was said by A or B a day before the beating

40. Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that a confession to a police officer shall not be proved against him?

(A) Section 24

(B) Section 25

(C) Section 26

(D) Section 27

41. Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may a dying declaration be admitted as evidence?

(A) Section 25

(B) Section 29

(C) Section 32

(D) Section 37

42. Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to the proof of contents of documents?

(A) Contents of documents shall be proved by primary evidence

(B) Contents of documents may be proved by secondary evidence

(C) Contents of documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence

(D) Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence

43. Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief

(B) Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination

(C) Leading questions may be asked in re-examination

(D) Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-examination

44. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic records as evidence?

(A) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer

(B) State of Haryana v. Jai Singh

(C) State of Maharashtra v. Natwarlal Damodardas Soni

(D) State of Punjab v. Jagir Singh

45. Which of the following is an incorrect statement in the light of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Confessions always go against the person making them

(B) Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted

(C) Admissions may operate as an estoppel

(D) A confession is a statement, written or oral, which is a direct admission of guilt

46. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?

(A) Section 32 (1)

(B) Section 32 (2)

(C) Section 32 (3)

(D) Section 32 (5)

47. Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Arbitration

(B) Conciliation

(C) Lok Adalat

(D) Negotiation

48. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?

(A) No court fee is required in Lok Adalat

(B) Lok Adalat can deal with all civil and criminal matters

(C) The award of Lok Adalat is deemed a decree

(D) No appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed

49. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(A) Arbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.

(B) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.

(C) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.

(D) Arbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may arise between the parties.

50. In which of the following circumstances may an arbitrator not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(A) When a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.

(B) When a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.

(C) When he possesses the qualifications agreed by the parties.

(D) When he becomes ineligible as per the seventh schedule of the Act.

51. When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) When they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.

(B) When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.

(C) When they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.

(D) When they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.

52. Which of the following is generally not considered a valid condition for a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) The parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.

(B) The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.

(C) The parties should not be sapindas of each other.

(D) The parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.

53. Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following:

(A) Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights

(B) Grounds for judicial separation

(C) Grounds for divorce

(D) Only iii

54. What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?

(A) Valid marriage

(B) Void marriage

(C) Voidable marriage

(D) Irregular marriage

55. What is 'a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her' called under Muslim Law?

(A) Talaq-us-sunnat

(B) Talaq-ul-biddat

(C) Talaq-i-tafweez

(D) Talaq-a-hasan

56. A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law:

(i) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

(ii) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

(A) Only i is correct.

(B) Only ii is correct.

(C) Both i and ii are correct.

(D) Neither i nor ii is correct.

57. Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparcenary property is made available to a girl child as well?

(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002

(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004

(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005

(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006

58. What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter for a valid adoption?

(A) 15 years

(B) 18 years

(C) 21 years

(D) No specific age difference required.

59. Which of the following cases may be considered the first reported case of PIL in India?

(A) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

(B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(D) Kalyaneshwari v. Union of India

60. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?

(A) Justice S.R. Das

(B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

(C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

(D) Justice H.R. Khanna

61. Against which of the following can a PIL not be filed?

(A) Against a State Government

(B) Against Central Government

(C) Against a private party

(D) Against Municipal Corporation

62. In light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India, on which of the following issues a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?

(A) Bonded labour matters.

(B) Petition from jail for pre-mature release.

(C) Matters pertaining to neglected children.

(D) Petitions against police for refusing to register a case.

63. In which of the following landmark case was it held that principles of natural justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?

(A) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India

(B) Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab

(C) Sonik Industries Rajkot v. Municipal Corporation, Rajkot

(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

64. In which judgment did the Supreme Court comprehensively reconsider S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India case?

(A) J.B. Chopra v. Union of India

(B) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

(C) R.K. Jain v. Union of India

(D) S.K. Sarkar v. Vinay Chandra Mishra

65. Who among the following defined administrative law as 'the law relating to the control of governmental power'?

(A) Ivor Jennings

(B) Wade

(C) K.C. Davis

(D) Garner

66. What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practicing in courts under the Advocate Act, 1961?

(A) Imprisonment up to 3 months

(B) Imprisonment up to 6 months

(C) Imprisonment up to 9 months

(D) Imprisonment up to 12 months

67. Which provision of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates?

(A) Section 42

(B) Section 42A

(C) Section 48A

(D) Section 49

68. Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India Rules?

(A) An Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.

(B) An Advocate shall appear in court at all times only in the prescribed dress.

(C) An Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.

(D) An Advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any improper means.

69. Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?

(A) Chairman of the Bar Council of India

(B) Vice-chairman of the Bar Council of India

(C) High Courts

(D) Supreme Court of India

70. In which of the following situations will a one-person company (OPC) mandatorily get converted into either a private or public company?

(A) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.

(B) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.

(C) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.

(D) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.

71. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 7

72. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India explain the Precautionary Principle in detail?

(A) Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India

(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu

(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India

(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

73. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in Environmental Law?

(A) Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India

(B) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India

(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

74. In which of the following cases was Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 struck down by the Supreme Court?

(A) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

(B) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab

(C) K.A. Abbas v. Union of India

(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

75. In which of the following cases shall an electronic record not be attributed to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Electronic record sent by the originator himself.

(B) Electronic record sent by an authorised person.

(C) Electronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.

(D) Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person.

76. What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?

(A) 6 weeks

(B) 8 weeks

(C) 12 weeks

(D) 26 weeks

77. For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?

(A) 2 weeks

(B) 4 weeks

(C) 6 weeks

(D) 8 weeks

78. What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?

(A) 100 workers

(B) 150 workers

(C) 200 workers

(D) 250 workers

79. Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(A) A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of 6,000.

(B) A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of 8,000.

(C) A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of 10,000.

(D) A supervisor drawing a monthly salary of 12,000.

80. Who has defined tort as 'tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages'?

(A) Lindsell

(B) Pollock

(C) Salmond

(D) Winfield

81. Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims?

(A) Damnum sine injuria

(B) Injuria sine damno

(C) Ubi jus ibi remedium

(D) Volenti non fit injuria

82. Which of the following provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to no fault liability?

(A) Section 140

(B) Section 151

(C) Section 162

(D) Section 128

83. How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

84. Which of the following bodies constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on the promotion and protection of consumers' rights under the Act?

(A) Central Consumer Protection Authority

(B) Central Consumer Protection Council

(C) State Consumer Protection Authority

(D) State Consumer Protection Council

85. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?

(A) Article 246

(B) Article 256

(C) Article 260

(D) Article 265

86. Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020, as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?

(A) Start from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.

(B) Start from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.

(C) Start from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st December, 2020.

(D) Start from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.

87. As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, a person is said to be a resident of India in any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in the previous year:

(A) 180 days

(B) 182 days

(C) 184 days

(D) 186 days

88. Income is defined under which of the following provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

(A) Section 2(31)

(B) Section 2(24)

(C) Section 2(9)

(D) Section 3

89. Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(A) A promise made without intention of performing it.

(B) An active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.

(C) Mere silence if not duty bound to speak.

(D) Any act or omission law specifically declares to be fraudulent

90. Which of the following statements is correct if A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A's factory, and thereby induces B to buy the factory?

(A) Contract is void ab initio.

(B) Contract is voidable at the option of A.

(C) Contract is voidable at the option of B.

(D) Contract is voidable at the option of A & B.

91. Which of the following injunctions can be granted only by the decree made at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?

(A) Temporary injunction

(B) Perpetual injunction

(C) Mandatory injunction

(D) Prohibitory injunction

92. A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of which of the following provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(A) Section 73

(B) Section 74

(C) Section 75

(D) Section 76

93. What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) 6% per annum

(B) 8% per annum

(C) 9% per annum

(D) No default rate prescribed.

94. Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) Life of the transferee

(B) A period of 18 years from the date of transfer.

(C) Either (A) or (B), whichever is longer

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

95. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) Promissory note

(B) Hundi

(C) Bill of exchange

(D) Cheque

96. In light of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instrument?

(A) 6% per annum

(B) 10% per annum

(C) 18% per annum

(D) 20% per annum

97. Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no award is made, shall the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land lapse as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

(A) 6 months

(B) 12 months

(C) 18 months

(D) 24 months

98. What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?

(A) 75%

(B) 80%

(C) 90%

(D) 100%

99. Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes. What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made by them?

(A) Patents

(B) Geographical Indications

(C) Trademarks

(D) Registered designs

100. How long do patents usually last for?

(A) 10 years

(B) 20 years

(C) 25 years

(D) 50 years

Answer key – AIBE XVIII

Important Links

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Law Aspirants: Ultimate Test Prep Destination