Intellectual Property Rights and Information Technology Law Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

The UGC NET Exam extensively covers topics within Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) & Information Technology (IT) Law, testing candidates on key legal principles, case laws, and regulatory frameworks. Each exam cycle features questions from this area, making it a significant part of the syllabus for law aspirants. This article compiles questions from previous UGC NET Law exams (2019-2023) focused on IPR & IT Law to provide candidates with a valuable resource for effective preparation.

1. Concept and meaning of intellectual property

2. Theories of intellectual property

3. International conventions pertaining to intellectual properties

4. Copyright and neighbouring rights – Subject matters, limitations and exceptions, infringement and remedies

5. Law of patent – Patentability, procedure for grant of patent, limitations and exceptions, infringement and remedies

6. Law of trademark – Registration of trademarks, kinds of trademarks, infringement and passing off, remedies

7. Protection of Geographical Indications

8. Bio-diversity and Traditional Knowledge

9. Information technology law- digital signature and electronic signature, electronic governance, electronic records and duties of subscribers

10. Cyber crimes, penalties and adjudication

Intellectual Property Rights & Information Technology Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam |

UGC NET (Law) #Special

UGC NET December 2023

1. With respect to which of the following kind of IPR, there exists a statutory ban for assignment?

1) Patents

2) Trademarks

3) Geographical Indication

4) Layout Designs of Integrated Circuits

Correct Option: 3

2. “Moral Right” is a concept prevailing in:

1) Industrial design

2) Geographical Indication

3) Trademark

4) Copyright

Correct Option: 4

3. Which of the following International legal instrument is relating to patent?

1) Budapest Treaty, 1977

2) Madrid Agreement, 1891

3) Berne Convention, 1886

4) Washington Treaty, 1989

Correct Option: 1

4. Which kind of patent is protectable in India?

1) Design Patent

2) Utility Patent

3) Process Patent

4) Plant Variety Patent

Correct Option: 3

5. In respect of which of the following items India does not have legislations to specifically cover them as Intellectual property.

A. Traditional Knowledge

B. Street art

C. Publicity Right

D. Celebrity Right

E. Computer Programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (B), (D) and(E) Only

2) (C), (D) and (E) Only

3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only

4) (B), (C), (D) and (E) Only

Correct Option: 3

6. Which of the following provisions in the Information Technology Act, 2000 prescribe punishment for offences:

A. Section 65

B. Section 66D

C. Section 67B

D. Section 52

E. Section 62

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C) Only

2) (C), (D), (E) Only

3) (B), (C), (E) Only

4) (A), (B), (D) Only

Correct Option: 1

7. Match List – I with List – II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)

4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) - (IV)

Correct Option: 1

8. Arrange the names of the following jurists in terms of chronological order of its sequence in the Patents Act:

A. Consequence of secrecy directions

B. Grant of patent

C. Date of patent

D. Term of patent

E. Rights of patentee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (C), (E), (B), (D), (A)

2) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)

3) (A), (B), (C), (E), (D)

4) (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

Correct Option: 3

9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Trade Secrets Act, 2020 is a legislation enacted in India to provide for confidential informations and trade secrets

Reason (R): India has enacted a number of legislations to create legal framework on Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Option: 4

UGC NET December 2021 & June 2022 (Merged Cycles)

1. Trade secrets do not cover the following information:

1) Commercially valuable

2) Production methods

3) Business plans

4) Information discovered by reverse engineering

Correct Option: 4

2. Which of the following is NOT correct under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999?

1) Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who produces the goods

2) Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who packages the goods

3) Producer, in case of natural goods, includes the person who exploits such goods

4) Producer, in case of handicrafts, includes the person who packages such goods

Correct Option: 4

3. Which of the following can be registered as a trademark?

1) Mark devoid of distinctive character

2) A distinctive mark

3) A mark causing confusion

4) Oval shape for medicinal tablet

Correct Option: 2

4. Arrange the following in chronological order starting from earlier to later years:

(A) The Trade Marks Act

(B) The Patents Act

(C) The Design Act

(D) The Copyright Act

(E) The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C, D, E

2) B, D, A, E, C

3) D, B, A, C, E

4) A, B, C, E, D

Correct Option: 3

5. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-I, B- II, C-III, D-IV

2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Correct Option: 2

UGC NET November 2021

1. ‘Digital Signature’ is defined under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000?

1) Section 2(p)

2) Section 2(q)

3) Section 2(r)

4) Section 2 (tb)

Correct Option: 1

2. ‘Cyber Security’ is defined under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000?

1) Section 2(ua)

2) Section 2(za)

3) Section 2(nb)

4) Section 2(tb)

Correct Option: 3

3. The term private key refers to:-

1) Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber

2) Electronic signature certificate issued under Section 35

3) Key pair in an asymmetric cryptosystem

4) Key of the key pair used to create a digital signature

Correct Option: 4

4. The validity of contracts formed through electronic means is contained in which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

1) Section 3A

2) Section 6A

3) Section 7A

4) Section 10A

Correct Option: 4

5. The geographical indications are distinctive signs or indications which identify any goods as:

(A) Act of unfair competition under Paris Convention, 1967

(B) Originating in a specified territory

(C) Stipulate the misleading test guaranteeing a negative right

(D) Specific quality, reputation and characteristics

(E) Essentially attributable to origin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C) only

2) (C), (D), (E) only

3) (A), (D), (B) only

4) (B), (D), (E) only

Correct Option: 4

6. ‘Computer network’ means the interconnection of one or more computers of computer systems or communication devices through:-

(A) The use of satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wine, wireless or other communication media

(B) A device or collection of devices including input and output support devices

(C) Any electronic, magnetic, optical and other high-speed data processing device

(D) All input, out, processing, storage, computer software or communication facilities

(E) Terminal or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication device

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (B) and (C) only

2) (D) and (C) only

3) (E) and (B) only

4) (A) and (E) only

Correct Option: 4

7. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) – (I) , (B)-(II), (C) –(III), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (II) , (B)-(I), (C) –(IV), (D) – (III)

3) (A) – (IV) , (B)-(III), (C) –(I), (D) – (II)

4) (A) – (III) , (B)-(IV), (C) –(II), (D) – (I)

Correct Option: 3

8. Prof. William Fisher identified four analytical constructs of theories of intellectual property under which of the following sequences?

A. Personality Theory

B. Labour theory

C. Social planning theory

D. Utilitarian theory

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) (B), (A), (D), (C)

2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

3) (D), (B), (A), (C)

4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Correct Option: 3

UGC NET September 2020

1. The provision relating to ‘legal recognition of electronic signatures’ is contained under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000?

1) Section 3

2) Section 3-A

3) Section 4

4) Section 5

Correct Option: 4

2. When the biological resources are accessed for commercial utilization or the bio-survey and bio-utilization leads to commercial utilization, the applicant shall have the option to pay the benefit-sharing ranging from:

1) 0.1 to 0.2

2) 0.1 to 0.3

3) 0.1 to 0.4

4) 0.1 to 0.5

Correct Option: 4

3. By which amendment, the third and fourth schedules of the IT Act were omitted?

1) Act 10 of 2009

2) Act 55 of 2002

3) Act 66 of 2009

4) Act 09 of 2009

Correct Option: 1

4. By which amendment of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the third and fourth schedules were omitted?

(A) Act 10 of 2009

(B) Act 55 of 2009

(C) Act 66 of 2009

(D) Act 09 of 2009

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A only

2) B only

3) C only

4) D only

Correct Option: 1

5. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-I; B-III; C-IV; D-II

2) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III

3) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV

4) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II

Correct Option: 4

6. Arrange the theories of intellectual property in order of prominence and influence

A. Personality theory

B. Social planning theory

C. Labour theory

D. Utilitarian theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, D, C, B

2) B, A, C, D

3) C, B, D, A

4) D, C, A, B

Correct Option: 4

7. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Once a performer consents to the incorporation of his performance in a cinematograph film by a written agreement, he/ she will not object to the enjoyment of the performers’ right by the producer in the same film.

Reason R: The performer is entitled to royalties in case the producer of the film makes use of the performance for commercial use.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3) A is correct but R is not correct

4) A is not correct but R is correct

Correct Option: 2

UGC NET June 2019

1. “If one’s artistic expressions are synonymous with one’s personality, then they are deserving of protection just as much as the physical person.”

The above observation is true about which theory of intellectual property?

1) Moral desert theory

2) Personality theory

3) Utilitarian theory

4) Libertarian theory

Correct Option: 2

2. The Preamble to Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) lays down

a. Public policy objectives of national system

b. Special needs of the least developed countries

c. Resolving IP disputes through multilateral procedures

d. Establishing mutually supportive relationship between WTO and WIPO

Which of the following is/are true?

1) Only a is true

2) Only a and b are true

3) Only a, b and c are true

4) A, b, c and d are true

Correct Option: 4

3. Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. v. Myspace Inc. 2011 is a leading case on the Copyright Act, 1957 dealing with which section of the Act?

1) Section 14

2) Section 22

3) Section 30

4) Section 51

Correct Option: 4

4. Bayer Corporation v. Union of India, 2011 case is dealing with which subject matters?

1) Evergreening of patent

2) Grant and sealing of patent

3) Working of patenting process

4) Surrender and revocation of patent

Correct Option: 3

5. The absolute grounds for refusal of registration are contained under which section of the Trade Mark Act, 1999?

1) Section 7

2) Section 8

3) Section 9

4) Section 10

Correct Option: 3

6. Macleods Pharmaceuticals Ltd. vs. Tidal Laboratories Pvt. Ltd. (2011) is a case on which subject of Intellectual property rights?

1) Patent

2) Trademark

3) Design

4) Geographical indications

Correct Option: 2

7. The prohibition of registration of geographical indication under the GIG Act, 1999 contains as many as

1) Four grounds

2) Five grounds

3) Six grounds

4) Seven grounds

Correct Option: 4

8. Regulation of Access to Biological Diversity is described under which one of the following Chapters of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

1) Chapter I

2) Chapter II

3) Chapter III

4) Chapter IV

Correct Option: 2

9. ‘Cyber Security’ according to IT Act, 2000 means

1) A device and collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculations which are not programmable and capable of being used

2) Any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high-speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic and memory functions by manipulation of electronic, magnetic or optical impulse

3) Protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication device and information stored therein from unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction

4) Affixing with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions means adoption of any methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record

Correct Option: 3

10. The Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal Rule, 2000 has been passed under which section of the IT Act, 2000?

1) Section 84

2) Section 85

3) Section 86

4) Section 87

Correct Option: 4

11. ‘A citizen has a fundamental right to use the best means of imparting and receiving information and as such to have access to telecasting for the purpose’ is the observation of the Supreme Court in

1) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India vs. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995)

2) Prabhu Dutt vs. Union of India (I982)

3) Dinesh Trivedi vs. Union of India (1977)

4) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust vs. Union of India (2014)

Correct Option: 1