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Find CLAT UG 2015 Solved Paper on Legal Bites for the upcoming examination. Attempting these Previous Year Papers will allow you to get a grip on the foundation and nature of the exam. Once you get familiar with the nature and pattern of the exam, you can develop a strategy accordingly. Securing a seat in your favourite law… Read More »

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Update: 2021-06-29 06:03 GMT

Find CLAT UG 2015 Solved Paper on Legal Bites for the upcoming examination. Attempting these Previous Year Papers will allow you to get a grip on the foundation and nature of the exam. Once you get familiar with the nature and pattern of the exam, you can develop a strategy accordingly.

Securing a seat in your favourite law school is not that easy. Practice CLAT UG Previous Years Papers and get an idea about where you stand today. The score reflects the preparation and gives a chance for you to improve it further. It helps in the evaluation of your knowledge and understanding of concepts and subjects you have studied. Candidates can get a rich understanding of the level of the examination by attempting these papers.

Students preparing for the upcoming CLAT UG Exam can find the Solved Previous Year Papers below.

Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2015 | Click Here to Download PDF

COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT UG) 2015

Duration of Test: 2 Hours (120 minutes)

Maximum Marks: 200

Section I – English and Reading Comprehension

Direction for the Questions 1 – 3: In the Question, there are five sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the option given, choose the best one.

1. The further [A]/farther [B] he pushed himself, the more dillusioned he grew.

For the crowd it was more of a historical [A]/historic [B] event; for their leader it was just another day. The old has healthy distrust [A]/mistrust [B] for all new technology.

The film is based on a worthy [A]/true [B] story.

She coughed discreetly [A]/discretely [B] to announce her presence.

  1. BABAB
  2. ABBBA
  3. BAABA
  4. BBAAB.

Answer: (b)

2. Regrettably [A]/regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.

The critics censored [A]/censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability.

He was besides [A]/beside [B] himself with range when I told him what I had done.

Anita had a beautiful broach [A]/brooch [B] on the lapel of her jacket.

He has the same capacity as an adult to consent [A]/assent [B] to surgical treatment.

  1. BABBA
  2. BBAAB
  3. ABBBA
  4. BABAB.

Answer: (a)

3. The prisoner’s interment [A]/internment [B] came to an end with his early release.

She managed to bite back the ironic [A]/caustic [B] retort on the tip of her tongue.

Jeans that flair [A]/flare [B] at the bottom are in fashion these days.

They heard the bells peeling [A]/pealing [B] far and wide.

The students baited [A]/bated [B] the instructor with irrelevant questions.

  1. BBABB
  2. ABBBB
  3. BABBA
  4. BBBBA.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 4-6: Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

4.

  1. I want to do an MBA before going into business.
  2. Priti’s husband has been on active service for three months.
  3. The horse suddenly broke into a buckle.
  4. I need to file an insurance claim.
  1. B and A
  2. C only
  3. B and C
  4. B, C, and D.

Answer: (b)

5.

  1. I must run fast to catch up with him.
  2. The newly released book is enjoying a popular run.
  3. The doctor is on a hospital round.
  4. You can’t run over him like that.
  1. A and C
  2. D only
  3. A, C, and D
  4. A only.

Answer: (b)

6.

  1. The letter was posted to the address.
  2. Your stand is beyond all reasons.
  3. How do you deal with friend who doesn’t listen to a reason?
  4. My wife runs profitable business in this suburb.
  1. A only
  2. D only
  3. B and C
  4. C and D.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 7-12:

Fill up the blanks, numbered [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] and [6] in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

“Between the year 1946 and the year 1995, I did not file any income tax returns.” With that [1] statement, Soubhik embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. “I originally owed Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then went into action, and I learned first-hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust and funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled.”

7. Fill up the blank [1]

  1. Devious
  2. Blunt
  3. Tactful
  4. Pretentious.

Answer: (b)

8. Fill up the blank [2]

  1. Interest
  2. Taxes
  3. Principal
  4. Returns.

Answer: (a)

9. Fill up the blank [3]

  1. Sanctions
  2. Refunds
  3. Fees
  4. Fines.

Answer: (d)

10. Fill up the blank [4]

  1. Closed
  2. Detached
  3. Attached
  4. Impounded.

Answer: (c)

11. Fill up the blank [5]

  1. Smashed
  2. Seized
  3. Dismantled
  4. Frozen.

Answer: (b)

12. Fill up the blank [6]

  1. Purchaser
  2. Victim
  3. Investor
  4. Offender.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 13 and 14: Four alternative summaries are given for the text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

13. Some decisions will be fairly obvious-“no-brainers”. Your bank account is low, but you have a two week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.

  1. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative’s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.
  2. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offer from in-laws’ and job offers from bosses when you bank account is low or boss is away.
  3. Easy decisions are called “no-brainer” because they do not require any cerebral activity. Example, such as accepting free holiday accommodation abounds in our lives.
  4. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss’s job when she is away.
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D.

Answer: (a)

14. Physically, inertia is a feeling that you just can’t move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don’t feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not be able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don’t have the capacity.

  1. Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitive to tragedies, exploitation, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it.
  2. When you have inertia you don’t act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don’t get angry because you are incapable.
  3. Inertia is of two types- physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents response to events enacted in front of your eyes.
  4. Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you.
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 15-19: For the word a contextual sentence is given. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

15. SPECIOUS: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one that has the ring of truth.

  1. Deceitful
  2. Fallacious
  3. Credible
  4. Deceptive.

Answer: (c)

16. OBVIATE: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for the use of personal cars.

  1. Prevent
  2. Forestall
  3. Preclude
  4. Bolster.

Answer: (d)

17. DISUSE: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects obsolete.

  1. Prevalent
  2. Discarded
  3. Obliterated
  4. Unfashionable.

Answer: (a)

18. PARSIMONIOUS: The evidence was constructed from every parsimonious scraps of information.

  1. Prevalent
  2. Penurious
  3. Thrifty
  4. Altruistic.

Answer: (d)

19. FACETIOUS: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling population, my father remarked that I was being facetious.

  1. Jovian
  2. Jovial
  3. Jocular
  4. Joking.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 20 and 21: Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question consistent with the description of unreasonable man in the passage below.

Unreasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unreasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is sill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted, but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unreasonable man.

20. The unreasonable man tends to:

  1. Entertain women
  2. Be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree
  3. Be helpful when solicited
  4. Tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before.

Answer: (d)

21. The unreasonable man tends to:

  1. Bring a higher bidder to salesman who just closed a deal
  2. Disclose confidential information to others
  3. Sing the praise of the bride when he goes to a wedding
  4. Sleep late and rise early.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 22-24: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

22. The management can still hire freely but cannot scold freely.

  1. Cannot scold at will
  2. Cannot give umbrage
  3. Cannot take decision to scold
  4. Cannot scold willfully.

Answer: (a)

23. This government has given subsidies to the Navrantnas but there is no telling whether the subsequent one will do.

  1. Whether the subsequent government will do so
  2. If the government to follow will accept the policy
  3. If the government to follow will adhere to the policy
  4. No telling whether the subsequent one will do so.

Answer: (a)

24. The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links.

  1. They are close to Moscow from ideological and military perspective
  2. They are preparing for a greater revolution
  3. Secretly they rather enjoy the prestige of being protected by the mighty soviets
  4. There is nothing they can do about it.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 25-27: In the Question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by pair of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.

25. Dulcet : Raucous

  1. Sweet : Song
  2. Crazy : Insane
  3. Palliative : Exacerbating
  4. Theory : Practical.

Answer: (b)

26. Malapropism : Words

  1. Anachronism : Time
  2. Ellipsis : Sentence
  3. Jinjanthropism : Apes
  4. Catechism : Religion.

Answer: (a)

27. Peel : Peal

  1. Coat : Rind
  2. Laugh : Bell
  3. Rain : Reign
  4. Brain : Cranium.

Answer: (c)

Direction for the Questions 28-37: In view of the passage given below. Choose the best option for question.

When talks come to how India has done for itself in 50 years of Independence, the world has nothing but praise for our success in remaining a democracy. On other fronts, the applause is less loud. In absolute terms, India has not done too badly, of course, life expectancy has increased. So has literacy. Industry, which was barely a fledging, has grown tremendously. And as far as agriculture is concerned, India has been transformed from a country perpetually on the edge of starvation into a success story held up for others to emulate. But these are competitive times when change is rapid, and to walk slowly when the rest of the world is running is almost as bad as standing still on walking backwards.

Compared with large chunks of what was then the developing world South Korea, Singapore, Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, China and what was till lately a separate Hong Kong-India has fared abysmally. It began with a far better infrastructure than most of these countries had. It suffered hardly or not at all during the Second World War. It had advantages like an English speaking elite, quality scientific manpower (including a Nobel laureate and others who could be ranked among the world’s best) and excellent business acumen. Yet, today, when countries are ranked according to their global competitiveness, it is tiny Singapore that figures at the top. Hong Kong is an export powerhouse. So is Taiwan. If a symbol were needed of how far we have fallen back, note that while Korean Cielos are sold in India, no one in South Korea is rushing to buy an Indian car. The reasons list themselves. Topmost is economic isolationism.

The government discouraged imports and encouraged self-sufficiency. Whatever the aim was, the result was the creation of a totally inefficient industry that failed to keep pace with global trends and, therefore, became absolutely uncompetitive. Only when the trade gates were opened a little did this become apparent. The years since then have been spent in merely trying to catch up. That the government actually sheltered its industrialists from foreign competition is a little strange. For in all other respects, it operated under the conviction that businessmen were little more than crooks how were to be prevented from entering the most important areas of the economy, how were to be hamstrung in as many ways as possible, how were to be tolerated in the same way as an inexcisable wart. The high expropriatory rates taxation, the licensing laws, the reservation of whole swathes of industry for the public sector, and the granting of monopolies to the public sector firms were the principle manifestations of this attitude. The government forgot that before wealth could be distributed, it had to be created.

The government forgot that it itself could not create, but only squander wealth. Some of the manifestations of the old attitude have changed. Tax rates have fallen. Licensing has been all but abolished. And the gates of global trade have been opened wide. But most of these changes were first by circumstances partly by the foreign exchange bankruptcy of 1991 and the recognition that the government could no longer muster the funds of support the public sector, leave alone expand it. Whether the attitude of the government itself, or that of more than handful of ministers, has changed, is open to Question. In many other ways, however, the government has not changed one with. Business still has to negotiate a welter of negotiations. Transparency is still a longer way off. And there is no exit policy. In defending the existing policy, politicians betray an inability to see beyond their noses. A no-exit policy for labour is equivalent to a no-entry policy for new business. If one industry is not allowed to retrench labour, other industries will think a hundred times before employing new labour. In other ways too, the government hurts industries.

Public sector monopolies like the department of telecommunications and Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. make it possible for Indian business to operate only at a cost several times that of their counterparts abroad. The infrastructure is in a shambles partly because it is unable to formulate a sufficiently remunerative policy for private business, and partly because it does not have the stomach to change market rates for services. After a burst of activity in the early nineties, the government is dragging its feet. At the rate it is going, it will be another fifty years before the government realizes that a pro-business policy is the best pro-people policy. By then of course, the world would have moved even farther ahead.

28. The writer’s attitude towards the Government is …………………..

  1. Critical
  2. Ironical
  3. Sarcastic
  4. Derisive.

Answer: (a)

29. The writer is surprised at the Government’s attitude towards its industrialists because…

  1. The government did not need to protect its industrialists
  2. The issue of competition was non-existent
  3. The government looked upon its industrialists as crooks
  4. The attitude was conundrum.

Answer: (c)

30. The Government was compelled to open the economy due to…

  1. Pressure from international market
  2. Pressure from domestic market
  3. Foreign change bankruptcy and paucity of funds with the government
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

31. The writer ends the passage on a note of ………………….

  1. Cautious optimism
  2. Pessimism
  3. Optimism
  4. Pragmatism.

Answer: (b)

32. According to the writer India should have performed better than the other Asian nations because…

  1. It had adequate infrastructure
  2. It had better infrastructure
  3. It had better politicians who could take the required decisions
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

33. India was in better condition than the other Asian nations because…

  1. It did not face the ravages of the second world war
  2. It had an English speaking populace and good business sense
  3. It had enough wealth through its exports
  4. Both (a) and (b) above.

Answer: (d)

34. The major reason for India’s poor performance is ……………………………..

  1. Economic isolationism
  2. Economic mismanagement
  3. Inefficient industry
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

35. One of the factors of the government’s projectionist policy was …………………………………

  1. Encouragement of imports
  2. Discouragements of imports
  3. Encouragements of exports
  4. Discouragements of exports.

Answer: (a)

36. The example of the Korean Cielo has been presented to highlight…

  1. India’s lack of stature in the international market
  2. India’s poor performance in the international market
  3. India’s lack of creditability in the international market
  4. India’s disrepute in the international market.

Answer: (b)

37. According to the writer…

  1. India’s politicians are myopic in their vision of the country’s requirements
  2. India’s politicians are busy lining their pockets
  3. India’s politicians are not conversant with the needs of the present scenario
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 38-40: Chose the option closest in the meaning to the capitalized word.

38. GRANDIOSE

  1. Imposing
  2. Unpretentious
  3. Boring
  4. Lanky.

Answer: (a)

39. SPRY

  1. Doubtful
  2. Nimble
  3. Prognosticate
  4. Leave.

Answer: (b)

40. FUDGE

  1. To sweeten
  2. Smear
  3. Irritate
  4. Falsify.

Answer: (d)

Section II – General Knowledge

41. Attukal Pongal festival, which is figured in Guinness Book of World Records is celebrated in …………..

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Telangana
  4. Goa.

Answer: (b)

42. In February 2015, which Indian Cricket legend has been inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame?

  1. Rahul Dravid
  2. Anil Kumble
  3. Sachin Tendulkar
  4. Mohammad Azharuddin.

Answer: (b)

43. Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of elections for the first time?

  1. The Indian Councils Acts, 1909
  2. Government of India Act, 1919
  3. The Government of India Act, 1935
  4. India’s Independence Act, 1947.

Answer: (a)

44. IRCTC has recently launched a new service called ‘RuPay prepaid cards’ which will enable passengers to book their tickets, do shopping and pay service bills online. This service was launched in collaboration with which bank?

  1. Union Bank of India
  2. State Bank of India
  3. ICICI Bank
  4. Bharatiya Mahila Bank.

Answer: (a)

45. Garuda Shakti III is the military exercise between India and which country?

  1. Nepal
  2. Russia
  3. Indonesia
  4. China.

Answer: (c)

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the best option using the code given below the lists:

List – I (Organization/Centers) List-II (Locations)
A. High Altitude Warfare School 1. Chennai
B. Indian Air force Training Centre 2. Gulmarg
C. National Defense College 3. New Delhi
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Pune
  1. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  2. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  3. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  4. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

Answer: (a)

47. Name India’s Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missile which was successfully test fired on 19 March 2015 from a Sukhoi-30 fighter aircraft?

  1. Astra
  2. K-100
  3. Mitra
  4. Tejas.

Answer: (a)

48. The ISRO has developed a “Flood Hazard Atlas” by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state?

  1. Kerala
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Assam
  4. Tripura.

Answer: (c)

49. Which South East Asian country has recently banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing rent-a-womb industry?

  1. Singapore
  2. Laos
  3. Thailand
  4. Vietnam.

Answer: (c)

50. Which of the following is the oldest share market in India

  1. Bombay
  2. Madras
  3. Calcutta
  4. Delhi.

Answer: (a)

51. The name of new Andhra Pradesh Capital is likely to be ……………..….

  1. Amaravathi
  2. Badrachala
  3. Krishna Nagar
  4. Varshavathi.

Answer: (a)

52. The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country?

  1. China
  2. Russia
  3. South Africa
  4. Brazil.

Answer: (b)

53. The “Ease of Doing Business Index” is prepared and published by ………………………….…

  1. World Trade Organisation
  2. World Bank Group
  3. United Nations
  4. European Union.

Answer: (b)

54. Prime Minister Modi has launched the “Give It Up” campaign for voluntarily giving up …………….…

  1. Use of tobacco products
  2. LPG subsidy
  3. Use of incandescent bulbs
  4. Use of plastics.

Answer: (b)

55. Which one of the following Railway Zones and the corresponding Headquarter pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. North Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
  2. South Eastern Railway : Bhubaneswar
  3. Eastern Railway : Kolkata
  4. South East Central Railway : Bilaspur.

Answer: (b)

56. Which among the following is the world’s largest e-commerce company?

  1. Amazon
  2. EBay
  3. Alibaba
  4. Flipkart.

Answer: (a)

57. Which committee was constituted by RBI to review governance of boards of banks in India?

  1. P J Nayak Committee
  2. H R Khan Committee
  3. Harsh Vardhan Committee
  4. K Subramanian Committee.

Answer: (a)

58. The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost ………………….

  1. Organic farming
  2. Drip irrigation
  3. Horticulture crop
  4. Vegetable production.

Answer: (a)

59. The winner of 2015 Malaysian Grand Prix is ………………………………

  1. Sebastian Vettal
  2. Kimi Raikkonen
  3. Lewis Hamilton
  4. Jenson Button.

Answer: (a)

60. Which one of the following is essentially a solo dance nowadays performed in group as well?

  1. Kuchipudi
  2. Kathak
  3. Manipuri
  4. Mohiniattam.

Answer: (d)

61. Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?

  1. Banbhatta
  2. Ravikirti
  3. Pushpananda
  4. Kalhana.

Answer: (d)

62. Name the golfer who won the Indian Open Title on 22 February 2015.

  1. SSP Chowrasia
  2. Anirban Lahiri
  3. Siddikur Rahman
  4. Daniel Chopra.

Answer: (b)

63. Which space agency has successfully launched the world’s first all-electric satellites in March, 2015?

  1. Russian Federal Space Agency
  2. China National Space Administration
  3. SpaceX
  4. European Space Agency.

Answer: (c)

64. Who among the following 18th century Indian rulers has been called ‘Plato of his tribe’?

  1. Sawai Jai Singh
  2. Badam Singh
  3. Suraj Mal
  4. Guru Gobind Singh.

Answer: (c)

65. Bhalchandra Nemade who has been selected for the 50th Jnanpith Award for 2014, on 6 February 2015, is a famous writer in which language?

  1. Marathi
  2. Oriya
  3. Malayalam
  4. Urdu.

Answer: (a)

66. A Snickometer is associated with which sports?

  1. Tennis
  2. Cricket
  3. Hockey
  4. Football.

Answer: (b)

67. Which of the following is incorrect option?

  1. Within the Arctic and Antarctic circles there is at least one day in the year during which the sun does not set and at least one day on which it never rises
  2. At the North Pole there is darkness for half the year
  3. At the summer solstice, the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn
  4. The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year.

Answer: (c)

68. What is the correct sequence of the following movements in chronological order?

  1. Civil Disobedience Movement
  2. Khilafat Movement
  3. Home Rule Movement
  4. Quit India Movement
  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 4, 3, 2, 1
  3. 3, 2, 1, 4
  4. 2, 4, 1, 3.

Answer: (c)

69. Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its action plan on Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)?

  1. India
  2. Switzerland
  3. Australia
  4. Singapore.

Answer: (b)

70. Lysosomes, which are known as suicide bags, are produced by which organelle?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Golgi body
  3. Ribosome
  4. Peroxisome.

Answer: (b)

71. Which is the single policy rate to unambiguously signal the stance of monetary policy as recently recommended by RBI?

  1. PLR
  2. Repo
  3. Bank
  4. CLR.

Answer: (b)

72. Which city has become India’s first fully WiFi-enabled metro city on 5 February 2015?

  1. Mumbai
  2. Kolkata
  3. Chennai
  4. Delhi.

Answer: (b)

73. Who among the following is India’s first chief of Cyber Security?

  1. J. Srinath
  2. Gulshan Rai
  3. S. Kamble
  4. Amardeep S. Chawla.

Answer: (b)

74. Which one of the following is the online grievances monitoring portals launched by union government for Indians living abroad?

  1. Madad
  2. Sankalp
  3. Mythri
  4. Rakshan.

Answer: (a)

75. Which of the following is a Direct Tax?

  1. Excise duty
  2. Sales tax
  3. Income tax
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

76. Indian Space Research Organisation was recently conferred ‘Space Pioneer Award by the National Space Society (NSS) of which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt?

  1. France
  2. European Union
  3. China
  4. USA.

Answer: (d)

77. Recently in which country did Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the first of the eight Coastal Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up by India?

  1. Mauritius
  2. Maldives
  3. Sri Lanka
  4. Seychelles.

Answer: (d)

78. Greece and Turkey are working to resolve their dispute over sovereignty and related rights in the area of which sea?

  1. Black Sea
  2. Sea of Marma
  3. Aegean Sea
  4. Mediterranean Sea.

Answer: (c)

79. Name the Indian industrialist on whose 175th birth anniversary, Union government launched the commemorative stamp on 6 January 2015?

  1. G D Birla
  2. T V Sundaram Iyengar
  3. Kasturbhai Lalbhai
  4. Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata.

Answer: (d)

80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. Kunal Bahl & Rohit Bansal – Snapdeal
  2. Sachin Bansal & Binny Bansal – Red Bus
  3. Deepinder goyal & Pankaj Chaddah – Zomato
  4. Bhavish Aggarwal & Ankit Bhati – Ola Cab.

Answer: (b)

81. Which state is to host the 36th National Games in 2016?

  1. Karnataka
  2. Goa
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Telangana.

Answer: (b)

82. Project Varsha, India’s new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities?

  1. Kochi
  2. Karwar
  3. Visakhapatnam
  4. Chennai.

Answer: (c)

83. Young Indian Shuttler K. Srikanth on 15 March, 2015 won which of the following major badminton championship?

  1. China Grand Prix Gold
  2. Australian Grand Prix Gold
  3. Swiss Grand Prix Gold
  4. Indonesian Grand Prix Gold.

Answer: (c)

84. What is the name given to the dedicated TV channel for farmers that was announced in the Union Budget for 2014-15 and Rs. 100 crore was set aside for its establishment?

  1. Kisan
  2. Farmers Show
  3. Krishi Channel
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

85. The “Friends for Life” – an elephant conservation project has been launched by World Wide Fund for Nature India and ……………………………

  1. Aditya Birla Group
  2. Muthoot group
  3. Manapuram Group
  4. Reliance Ltd.

Answer: (b)

86. The National Industrial Corridor (NIC) that was proposed to be established in the Union Budget of 2014-15, will have its headquarters at which city?

  1. Pune
  2. Bhubaneswar
  3. Bangalore
  4. Hyderabad.

Answer: (a)

87. President Pranab Mukherjee on 6 January 2015 signed the ordinance to amend Citizenship Act, 1955.

Which of the statements in this regard is/are right?

  1. The ordinance exempts Person of Indian Origin (PIO) from appearing before the local police station on every visit.
  2. It replaced the clause that says foreigners marrying Indians must continuously stay in the country for a period of six months before they get an Indian citizenship.
  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. Both I and II
  4. Neither I nor II.

Answer: (a)

88. Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement on 23 March 2015?

  1. MS Swaminathan
  2. Kasthuri Rangan
  3. Jayaram Ramesh
  4. Madhav Gadgil.

Answer: (d)

89. How much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in country’s defence sector was proposed in the Union Budget 2014-15 presented on 10 July 2014?

  1. 51%
  2. 49%
  3. 29%
  4. 10%.

Answer: (b)

90. The protein CA-125 (Cancer Antigen-125) is used as biomarker for detection of which type of cancer?

  1. Ovarian cancer
  2. Bone cancer
  3. Lung cancer
  4. Oral cancer.

Answer: (a)

Section III – Mathematical Ability

Direction for the Questions 91-95: Answer the questions based on the information given in the following table. A, B, C, D, E denote companies and 2006, 2007, 2008, 2009 & 2010 denote years.

Number of Units Manufactured (M) and Number of Units Sold (S) (in hundreds) by five different companies over the years.

A B C D E
M S M S M S M S M S
2006 2.8 1.3 3.3 2.2 2.6 1.7 3.0 2.2 1.9 1.4
2007 3.2 2.0 2.4 1.6 2.2 1.5 2.5 1.9 2.0 1.7
2008 1.9 0.9 2.9 1.6 2.1 1.0 2.3 1.5 1.6 1.1
2009 1.0 0.4 2.4 1.3 2.8 1.4 2.1 1.2 3.2 2.5
2010 2.5 1.5 2.3 1.2 2.6 2.1 1.8 1.1 3.1 2.6

91. What is the total number of units manufactured by Company ‘C’ over all the years together?

  1. 1420
  2. 1030
  3. 1230
  4. 1320.

Answer: (c)

92. What is the approximate percent increase in the number of units sold by Company ‘E’ in the year 2007 from the previous year?

  1. 17
  2. 36
  3. 27
  4. 21.

Answer: (d)

93. The number of units sold by Company ‘D’ in the year 2006 is what percent of the number of units manufactured by it in that year? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

  1. 63
  2. 57
  3. 15
  4. 33.

Answer: (d)

94. What is the respective ratio of total number of units manufactured by Company ‘A’ and ‘B’ together in the year 2009 to those sold by them in the same year?

  1. 2:01
  2. 3:02
  3. 5:02
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

95. What is the average number of units sold by Company ‘D’ over all the years together?

  1. 166
  2. 158
  3. 136
  4. 147.

Answer: (b)

96. Find the value of (x) in the following equation?

Equation: x0.4/16 = 32/x2.6

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 6
  4. 7.

Answer: (a)

97. The simplified value of [(0.111)³ + (0.222)3 – (0.333)3 + (0.333)2 x (0.222)]3 is:

  1. 0.999
  2. 0.111
  3. 0
  4. 0.888.

Answer: (c)

98. When 2½ is added to a number and the sum is multiplied by 4½ and then 3 is added to the product and then the sum is divided by 1⅕, the quotient becomes 25. What is that number?

  1. 2 ½
  2. 3 ½
  3. 4 ½
  4. 5 ½.

Answer: (b)

99. If x= (16³ + 17³ + 18³ + 19³), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of ………

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 69
  4. 35.

Answer: (a)

100. A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees?

  1. 320
  2. 160
  3. 80
  4. 200.

Answer: (b)

101. A group of 630 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6.

Answer: (d)

102. A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the two faces is 5?

  1. 3/13
  2. 4/13
  3. 6/13
  4. 1/9.

Answer: (d)

103. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speed is ………..

  1. 2:03
  2. 4:03
  3. 6:07
  4. 9:06.

Answer: (b)

104. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minute 48 second fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?

  1. 2 p.m. on Tuesday
  2. 2 p.m. on Wednesday
  3. 3 p.m. on Thursday
  4. 1 p.m. on Friday.

Answer: (b)

105. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident?

  1. 5%
  2. 15%
  3. 35%
  4. 45%.

Answer: (c)

106. The sum of all the natural numbers from 200 to 600 (both inclusive) which are neither divisible by 8 nor by 12 is:

  1. 1, 23, 968
  2. 1, 33, 068
  3. 1, 33, 268
  4. 1, 87, 332.

Answer: (c)

107. In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2,… Tn, with n > 5. Each team consists of k players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common T₁ and T2, T2 and T3,….. Tn₋₁ and Tn, and Tn and T₁. No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the n teams together?

  1. k(n-1)
  2. n(k-2)
  3. k(n-2)
  4. n(k-1).

Answer: (d)

108. If n2 = 12345678987654321, what is n?

  1. 12344321
  2. 1235789
  3. 111111111
  4. 11111111.

Answer: (c)

109. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10m. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the stone in the middle, carrying stones in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8 km. Then, the number of stones is:

  1. 35
  2. 15
  3. 31
  4. 29.

Answer: (c)

110. What are the last two digits of 72008?

  1. 01
  2. 21
  3. 61
  4. 71.

Answer: (a)

Section IV – Legal Reasoning

Direction for the Questions 111-125: The questions consist of two statements, one labelled as PRINCIPLE and other as FACT. You are to examine the principle and apply it to the given facts carefully and select the best option.

111. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent moves that property, such taking is said to commit theft.

Fact: RAMU cuts down a tree on RINKU’S ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of RINKU’S possession without RINKU’S consent. A could not take the tree away.

  1. RAMU can be prosecuted for theft
  2. RAMU cannot be prosecuted for theft
  3. RAMU can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
  4. RAMU has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft.

Answer: (a)

112. Principle: Injuria sine damnum i.e. injury without damage.

Fact: SONU, who was returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of MONU, thought he was a qualified voter. The candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected.

  1. MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a fundamental right
  2. MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote, which is a legal right
  3. MONU cannot sue SONU because there is no injury or damage cause to MONU
  4. MONU cannot sue SONU because to whom he sought to vote was declared elected.

Answer: (b)

113. Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Fact: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X.

  1. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract
  2. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract
  3. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

114. Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.

Fact: “Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing: “will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Shyamsunder replied, too by telegram: ‘Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lacs.’ Ramanuj immediately sends his consent through telegram stating: ‘I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lacs asked by you.’ Now Shyamsunder refused to sell the CAR.

  1. He cannot refuse to sell the car because the contract has already been made
  2. He can refuse to sell the car because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer
  3. It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

115. Principle: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course of employment.

Fact: Sanjay is a driver working in Brookebond and Co. One day, the Manager asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way back from the airport, he happened to see his fiancé Ruhina waiting for a bus to go home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be close to his office. She got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence of Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car and suffered multiple injuries. She seeks compensation from Brookebond and Co.

  1. Brookebond and Co., shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of employment at the time of accident
  2. Brookebond and Co., shall not be liable, Sanjay was not in the course of employment when he took Ruhina inside the car
  3. Ruhina got into the car at her own risk, and therefore, she cannot sue anybody
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

116. Principle: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.

Fact: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neigh boring shopkeepers brought an action for nuisance against the defendant.

  1. The defendant is liable for nuisance
  2. The defendant was not liable for nuisance
  3. The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability
  4. The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in his favour.

Answer: (a)

117. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Fact: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumped in the well to take a bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.

  1. A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  2. A has committed murder
  3. A has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsoundness of mind
  4. A’s family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to well.

Answer: (c)

118. Principle: Ignorantia juris non excusat and ingnorantia facit excusat.

Fact: George was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov. 1962 it was found on search that George carried 34 kgs. of gold bars in person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 Government of India issued a notification and modified its earlier exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.

  1. George cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued only two days ago
  2. George cannot be prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is excusable
  3. George’s will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable
  4. George liability would depend on the discretion of the court.

Answer: (c)

119. Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid an act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor. The neighbor for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.

Fact: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.

  1. Krishna will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on the road including Lakshmi
  2. Krishna will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act
  3. Krishna will be liable to Lakshmi because he failed to drive carefully
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

120. Principle: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some special offences.

Fact: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Ramesh, his only son takes the halua and dies. In this case:

  1. Ramesh is liable for the murder
  2. He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone
  3. He is liable for culpable homicide
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

121. Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.

Fact: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs. 500 more if the horse proved lucky.

  1. This is a valid agreement
  2. This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse had brought to the buyer
  3. The agreement is partially valid and partially void
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

122. Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.

Fact: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness.

  1. A can be held liable for fraud
  2. A can be held liable for misrepresentation
  3. A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the soundness of horse
  4. A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.

Answer: (c)

123. Principle: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.

Fact: A purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and had sent it to a garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage.

  1. X can be held responsible for trespass to goods
  2. X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief
  3. X has not committed any wrong
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

124. Principle: “Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.”

Fact: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.

  1. Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house
  2. Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan’s delicate nature
  3. Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

125. Principle: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice.

Fact: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to Custom department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbool was later charged for having committed an offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act.

  1. He cannot be prosecuted because it would amount to double jeopardy
  2. He can be prosecuted because confiscated of good by custom authorities does not amount to prosecution by the court
  3. Maqbool ought to have known that he can be stopped by the custom authorities
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

Direction for the Questions 126-135: The question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.

126. Assertion: Custom per se is law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge.

Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself is not law.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d)

127. Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property.

Reason: Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c)

128. Assertion: Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.

Reason: The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (b)

129. Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.

Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a)

130. Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished.

Reason: A person who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a)

131. Assertion: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.

Reason: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d)

132. Assertion: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Reason: The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d)

133. Assertion: The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.

Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d)

134. Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Democratic Republic.

Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a)

135. Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.

Reason: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.

  1. Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
  2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 136-138: Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given fact situations and answer the Question:

Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which ‘would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime.”

  1. Fault Element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
  2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because of facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.

136. ‘RANI’ ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.

  1. She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before jumping into the well
  2. She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide
  3. Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt to commit suicide
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

137. ‘SINY’ with an intention to pick-pocket puts his hand into MINU’s pocket. MINU had a loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead.

  1. SINY will be liable only for attempting to pick-pocket and not for killing because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no risk of causing death and with no greater care to avoid it
  2. SINY will be liable for attempting to murder
  3. SINY will be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as his intention was definitely not to kill
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

138. ‘JAM’ denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to escape.

  1. JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife
  2. JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife and he was only doing preparation
  3. JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option to escape
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 139-142: Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.

139. The NDA led Government notified the ….……. and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, thus ending the over two-decade-old ……………….. of appointing judges of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six- member panel headed by ………………….….. will select judges of the apex court and state high courts.

  1. 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Chief Justice of India
  2. 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Union Law Minister
  3. 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Prime Minister
  4. 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, cabinet system, the Prime Minister.

Answer: (a)

140. The …………..……. Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed a controversial Anti-Terrorism Law. Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two times by the then ………………… in 2004 and 2008.

  1. Bihar, Presidents
  2. Madhya Pradesh, Governors
  3. Gujarat, Presidents
  4. Maharashtra, Governors.

Answer: (c)

141. The Union Government on the recommendation of the ………………………….. under the chairmanship of ……………… has decided to decriminalize Section …….. of the Indian Penal Code.

  1. 20th Law Commission, Justice A.P. Shah & 309
  2. 20th Law Commission, Justice M.P. Shah & 307
  3. Supreme Court, Justice H.L. Dattu & 309
  4. Planning Commission, Law Minister, 309.

Answer: (a)

142. A bench headed by ………………..…. quashed allocation of 214 …………….… as ……………….

  1. Justice H. L. Dattu, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary
  2. Justice R. M. Lodha, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary
  3. Justice T. S. Thakur, licenses, illegal and arbitrary
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

143. Choose the best option for the following statement:

No one can be compelled to sing the national Anthem since:

  1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
  2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
  3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
  1. 1 and 2 are correct
  2. 2 and 3 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. None is correct.

Answer: (c)

144. Five years’ experience is a must to be able to practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India. This rule was prescribed by the ………….

  1. Bar Council of India
  2. Supreme Court of India
  3. High Court of Delhi
  4. Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India.

Answer: (a)

145. Union Government recently approved 33 per cent Reservation for Women in:

  1. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
  2. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
  3. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
  4. Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

Answer: (a)

146. As per Indian Protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence?

  1. Deputy Prime Minister
  2. Former President
  3. Governor of a State within his State
  4. Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Answer: (c)

147. Consider the following statements and choose the best option:

  1. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the Chief Justice of India.
  2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H. L. Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA.
  3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the Supreme Court of India.
  4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice T. S. Thakur is the present Chairman of NALSA.
  1. 1 and 2 are correct
  2. 2 and 3 are correct
  3. 3 and 4 are correct
  4. None is correct.

Answer: (c)

148. India and Britain recently signed an “extradition treaty”. Extradition means:

  1. Exports without double taxation
  2. Order of Indian courts will apply to Indian living in U.K.
  3. India and the U.K will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

149. What is a ‘moot’?

  1. A basic point of law
  2. A basic fact of case
  3. Mock court for practice by students in general
  4. Another name for magistrate’s court.

Answer: (c)

150. The temporary release of a convicted prisoner from jail for a fixed period is called:

  1. Bail
  2. Parole
  3. Acquittal
  4. Discharge.

Answer: (b)

151. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over-crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answer:

  1. X can sue the railway authorities for the loss suffered
  2. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in an over-crowded train
  3. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

152. Choose the best option for the following statement:

The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:

  1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may be quite innocent.
  2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages. Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.
  3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence”. But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence”.
  4. None of the above.
  1. 1 is correct
  2. 1 and 2 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 correct
  4. Only 4 is correct.

Answer: (c)

153. In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice Prafulla C Pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of Cr.P.C. cannot be restricted for the iddat period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principle behind Section 125. Also, it said that an order under Section 125 Cr.P.C. can be passed if a person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife.

  1. Shamima Farooqui v. Shahid Khan
  2. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
  3. Hamida Bano v. Abdul Rasheed
  4. Abdul Kadir v. Salima.

Answer: (a)

154. Select the correct statements on Social Justice Bench Constituted on Social issue.

  1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014.
  2. Started operation on 12 December 2014.
  3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H. L. Dattu.
  4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B. Lokur.
  5. The other member is Justice U. U. Lalit.
  1. 1, 2 and 5 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. All are correct.

Answer: (d)

155. Select the correct statements about 14th Finance Commission which submitted its report to President.

  1. It covers the period between 1 April 2015 and 31 March 2020.
  2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor Y V Reddy.
  3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the Centre to the States.
  4. Article 280 of Constitution provides for appointment of Finance Commission.
  5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was headed by K. C. Neogy & Dr. Vijay Kelkar respectively.
  1. 1, 3 and 5 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. All are correct.

Answer: (d)

156. Who administers oath of office to the Governor of a State?

  1. President of India
  2. Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state
  3. Chief Justice of India
  4. Speaker of State Assembly.

Answer: (b)

157. Governor of a State can make Laws during recess of State Legislative Assembly through ………..

  1. Act
  2. Bills
  3. Notification
  4. Ordinanace.

Answer: (d)

158. Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal?

  1. Austin
  2. C. Wheare
  3. M. Servai
  4. Jennings.

Answer: (b)

159. President of India exercises his powers ……….

  1. Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
  2. Through ministers
  3. Through Prime Minister
  4. Through Cabinet.

Answer: (a)

160. Vote on accounts is meant for ………..

  1. Vote on the report of CAG
  2. To meet unforeseen expenditure
  3. Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
  4. Budget.

Answer: (c)

Section V – Logical Reasoning

Direction for the Questions 161-168: W, X, Y, and Z are four friends, who do not mind exchanging items. X has two chessboards each costing Rs. 500, and a record player. Z originally had a cycle and a Walkman. Each cricket bat costs Rs. 700. Both W and Z got a cricket bat from Y. X gave his record player costing Rs. 2,000 to Y. Z get a camera costing Rs. 1,500 from W. The cycle of Z costs Rs. 1,000 and the Walkman is for Rs. 700. Y had three cricket bats at the beginning and W had two cameras the total cost of which is Rs. 5, 000. X gave one of his chessboards to Z and took Z’s cycle. Z gave his Walkman to W.

161. Total cost of materials Z had at the beginning was:

  1. 1,500
  2. 1,700
  3. 1,000
  4. 2,000.

Answer: (b)

162. At the beginning who had the costliest items:

  1. W
  2. X
  3. Y
  4. Z.

Answer: (a)

163. Who did not have a cricket bat after the exchange of items was over?

  1. W
  2. X
  3. Y
  4. Z.

Answer: (b)

164. Who became the gainer by highest amount through exchange?

  1. W
  2. X
  3. Y
  4. Z.

Answer: (d)

165. The person incurring the highest amount of financial loss through exchange lost an amount of:

  1. 600
  2. 1,000
  3. None
  4. 500.

Answer: (c)

166. The amount of price of all the things remaining with the four persons lie between:

  1. 800 – Rs.900
  2. 10,000 – Rs. 12,000
  3. 9,000 – Rs. 10,000
  4. 10,000 – Rs. 11,000.

Answer: (d)

167. Even after exchanges, an item of highest value remained in possession of:

  1. W
  2. X
  3. Y
  4. Z.

Answer: (a)

168. Among the things exchanged, which one faced the highest exchange value in percentage term?

  1. Cricket bat
  2. Record player
  3. Camera
  4. Cycle.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 169-173: Read the following information and chose the best option.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially, the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained for both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answer into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. This data represents question numbers.

Name Wrong Answer(s) Blank Answer (s)
A 46 ——
B 96 46, 90, 25
C 27, 56 17, 46, 90
D 17 ——
E 46, 90 ——
F 14, 46 92, 90
G 25 ——
H 46, 92 ——
I 27 17, 26, 90

169. Which one of the following must have two sources?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D.

Answer: (b)

170. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5.

Answer: (c)

171. Both G and H were sources to ……

  1. F
  2. B
  3. A
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

172. Which of the following statement is true?

  1. I introduced the wrong answer to Question 27
  2. E introduced the wrong answer to Question 46
  3. F introduced the wrong answer to Question 14
  4. H introduced the wrong answer to Question 46.

Answer: (c)

173. Which of the following two groups of people has identical sources?

  1. A, D and G
  2. E and H
  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Neither I nor II
  4. Both I and II.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 174-178:

In the following Question, a group of numerals is given followed by four groups of symbol/letter combinations lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and conditions. You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) is correct and indicate your answer accordingly.

Numerals: 3 5 7 4 2 6 8 1 0 9
Letter/Symbol code: * B E A @ F K % R M

Following conditions apply:

  1. If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as X.
  2. If the first digit as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded as $.
  3. If the last digit is ‘O’, it is to be coded as #.

174. Find out the combination for: 487692

  1. $KEFM@
  2. AKEFM@
  3. AKFEM@
  4. $KEFM$.

Answer: (d)

175. Find out the combination for: 713540

  1. X%*BA#
  2. E%*BA#
  3. E%*BAR
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

176. Find out the combination for: 765082

  1. EFB#K@
  2. XFBRK@
  3. EFBRK@
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

177. Find out the combination for: 364819

  1. *FAK%X
  2. XFAK&M
  3. *FAK%M
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

178. Find out the combination for: 546839

  1. XAFK*X
  2. XAFK*M
  3. BAFK*X
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

Direction for the Questions 179-181:

From the alternatives given below, choose the best option that correctly classifies the four sentences as a:

F: FACT: If it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true.

J: JUDGMENT: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.

I: INFERENCE: if it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts.

179.

  1. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships.
  2. The root of many misunderstandings has been cited in poor relations among individuals.
  3. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.
  4. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals.
  1. F J I J
  2. J F I F
  3. F I F J
  4. I F F J.

Answer: (b)

180.

  1. The Cabinet minister definitely took the wrong step in giving the government contract.
  2. Under the circumstances, he had many other alternatives.
  3. The Prime Minister is embarrassed due to the minister’s decision.
  4. If he has put the government in jeopardy, the minister must resign.
  1. J F F I
  2. I F J I
  3. F F J I
  4. I F I J.

Answer: (a)

181.

  1. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism.
  2. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries.
  3. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
  4. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this.
  1. I J F J
  2. J F J I
  3. I J J F
  4. I F J J.

Answer: (b)

Direction for the Questions 182-184:

Question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the best option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.

182.

  1. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.
  2. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to wealth.
  3. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.
  4. Some traffic congestion does not cause increase carbon monoxide.
  5. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health.
  1. C B A
  2. B D E
  3. C D E
  4. B A C.

Answer: (a)

183.

  1. MBAs are in great demand.
  2. Samrat and Akshita are in great demand.
  3. Samrat is in great demand.
  4. Akshita is in great demand.
  5. Samrat and Akshita are MBAs.
  1. A B E
  2. E C D
  3. A E B
  4. E B A.

Answer: (c)

184.

  1. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
  2. Infotech employees are knowledge workers.
  3. Infotech is a software company.
  4. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
  5. Infotech employs only knowledge workers.
  1. A B C
  2. A C B
  3. C D B
  4. A C E.

Answer: (b)

Direction for the Questions 185 and 186: Read the following information carefully to choose best option for the question:

  1. ‘L % M’ means that M is brother of L.
  2. ‘L x M’ means that L is mother of M.
  3. ‘L ÷ M’ means that L is the sister of M.
  4. ‘L = M’ means that M is father of L.

185. Which of the following means “I is the nephew of Q?”

  1. Q % J = I
  2. Q ÷ M x B % I
  3. C ÷ I = B %Q
  1. Only 3
  2. Only 1
  3. Only 2
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

186. If ‘A $ B’ means that A is the father of B, ‘A * B’ means that A is the mother of B, ‘A @ B’ means that A is the wife of B, then which of the following means that M is the grand-mother of N?

  1. M * R $ T @ N
  2. M * R @ T @ N
  3. M * T $ N @ R
  4. M * T $ N @ R.

Answer: (c/d)

Direction for the Questions 187-189: The question contains two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question Read both the statements and give your answer as:

  1. Answer (1) If the information in the statement I alone are sufficient to answer the questions.
  2. Answer (2) If the information in the statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions.
  3. Answer (3) If the information either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions.
  4. Answer (4) if the information even in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.

187. Can a democratic system operate without an effective opposition?

  1. The opposition is indispensable.
  2. A good politician always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (c)

188. Do habits make men’s life rigid?

  1. It is out of habit that people envy others.
  2. Men become slave of habits.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (b)

189. Does intelligence predict the child’s ability to learn?

  1. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching or dull home environment.
  2. Children from poor home backgrounds do not do well in their school work.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (d)

Direction for the Questions 190-192:

In the following question some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them their coding has been given. In the question, a particular word has been coded in a particular manner using codes as given below the capital letters.

You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to answer the question asked subsequently.

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
U a 2 v b w 3 t 4 x s y 5 z 6 c d 8 7 e r h 9 1 p q

190. If DASH is 2a84, then SMASH is?

  1. 75U7t
  2. eya84
  3. 8zqe3
  4. 8zqe4.

Answer: (c)

191. If FASHION is z64t7w, then POSITION is?

  1. z64e476c
  2. z64e47c6
  3. c674e46z
  4. c674e4z6.

Answer: (a)

192. If LONDON is 5c62z5, then EUROPE is?

  1. wh7cdw
  2. wh7z6v
  3. br76cb
  4. wh76cb.

Answer: (b)

Direction for the Questions 193 and 194:

The question contains two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II.

You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the two given statements.

  1. Answer (1) If only conclusion I follows.
  2. Answer (2) If only conclusion II follows.
  3. Answer (3) If neither I nor II follows.
  4. Answer (4) If both I and II follows.

193. Statements:

  1. Some players are singers.
  2. All singers are tall.

Conclusion:

  1. Some players are tall.
  2. All players are tall.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (a)

194. Statements:

  1. Some vegetables are fruits.
  2. No fruit is black.

Conclusions:

  1. Some fruits are vegetables.
  2. No vegetable is black.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (a)

195. Amit first goes in South direction, then he turns towards left and travel for some distance. After that he turns right and moves certain distance. At last he turns left and travels again for some distance. Now, in which direction is he moving?

  1. South
  2. West
  3. East
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

196. There are six houses in a row. Mr. Aalekh has Mr. Mishra and Mr. Iliyas as neighbours. Mr. Mritynjay has Mr. Sandeep and Mr. Nayak as neighbours. Mr. Sandeep’s house is not next to Mr. Mishra or Mr. Iliyas and Mr. Nayak does not live next to Mr. Iliyas. Who are Mr. Mishra’s next door neighbours?

  1. Aalekh and Mr. Mishra
  2. Aalekh and Mr. Iliyas
  3. Nayak and Mr. Aalekh
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

197. From the word ‘LAPAROSCOPY’, how many independent meaningful English words can be made without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4.

Answer: (b)

198. If Monday falls on 1st of October, which day will fall three days after the 20th in that month?

  1. Monday
  2. Tuesday
  3. Saturday
  4. Wednesday.

Answer: (b)

199. In the word GRAPHOLOGIST, if 1st and 7th letters, 2nd and 9th letters, 3rd and 11th letters, 4th and 8th letters and 5th and 12th letters are mutually interchanged then which letter will be 6th letter from the left of 10th letter from the left side?

  1. S
  2. T
  3. G
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

200. The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On the basis of this information, how is M related to B?

  1. Grandfather
  2. Grandmother
  3. Grandmother’s mother
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

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