CUET PG LLM 2024 Solved Paper | CUET PG LLM Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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The CUET PG exam pattern for 2024 comprises a total of 100 questions, divided into two CUET papers: Section A and Section B. Section A consists of 25 general-type questions, while Section B includes 75 domain-specific questions. Section A remains consistent for all subjects, regardless of the chosen field.

Find the solved CUET PG LLM 2024 paper below.

Common University Entrance Test [CUET (PG)] Examination 2024
Law (LLM)

Duration: 120 Minutes
Total Questions : 100
Type: MCQ

Section A consists of 25 general-type questions

SECTION B: Domain-Specific Question
Question - 75

1. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India held that “the rule of res judicata applies to a petition filed under Article 32 of the Constitution and if a petition filed by a petitioner in the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution is dismissed on merits such decision would operate as res judicata so as to bar a similar petition in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution.”

1. State of UP v. Nawab Hussain

2. Gulam Abbas v. State of UP

3. Daryao v. State of UP

4. Iftikar Ahmed v. Syed Meharban Ali

2. The chief exponent of auto limitation theory regarding basis of international law is

1. Starke

2. Jellinek

3. Hart

4. Oppenheim

3. ‘Individual is the ultimate unit of all laws, International or municipal’- given by:-

1. Austin

2. Lauterpacht

3. Starke

4. Fenwick

4. Which of the following is associated with ‘Droit Administratif'

1. Edward Coke

2. Montesquieu

3. Aristotle

4. Napolean Bonaparte

5. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India held that the Indian Constitution has not indeed recognised the Doctrine of Separation of Power in its absolute rigidity but the functions of the different parts of the government have been sufficiently differentiated

1. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

3. AK Kraipak v. Union of India

4. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab

6. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applicable on

1. Suits appeals and applications

2. Suits and appeals only

3. Appeals and Application related with executions

4. Appeals and Application other than executions

7. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A)-(I) (B)-(II) (C)-(III) (D)-(IV)

2. (A)-(I) (B)-(III) (C)-(II) (D)-(IV)

3. (A)-(I) (B)-(II) (C)-(IV) (D)-(III)

4. (A)-(III) (B)-(IV) (C)-(I) (D)-(II)

8. President can return the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration

1. Twice only

2. Any number of times

3. Once only

4. Not even once

9. Right guaranteed under Article 25 is subject to

1. Fundamental rights, dignity and privacy

2. Public order, morality and health and the other provisions of Part III

3. Public order, decency and health and the other provisions of Part IV

4. Public order, morality and health and Article 14

10. Unless approved by the State legislature, the ordinance issued by the governor shall cease to operate

1. One year

2. Six months

3. Six weeks

4. Two months

11. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV

2. A – I, B – III , C – II, D – IV

3. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

12. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV

2. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

3. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

13. Savigny’s Theory is based on

1. Greek law

2. Common law

3. Roman law

4. Spanish law

14. Res Nullius rule implies

1. A right of easement acquired after a passage of time prescribed by law

2. Owner of a property has right to take benefit from the property

3. Where there is an extinction of previous ownership by an independent adverse act of an acquirer

4. For previously ownerless object, the person took the object as an owner

15. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV

2. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

3. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

16. Which of the section in the Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with ‘set off'?

1. Section 427

2. Section 190

3. Section 428

4. Section 328

17. Which of the following is correct with reference to Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(A) Transfer of Property Act deals only with immovable property
(B) Transfer of Property Act deals with both movable and immovable property
(C) Property may be transferred orally under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in all cases
(D) Property can be transferred orally under Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (B) and (C) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only.

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

18. Consider the following statements

(A) Constitutional Amendment Bill be introduced only with the prior permission of the President
(B) Even if both the Houses of the Parliament passed the Constitutional Amendment Bill President can refuse to sign
(C). If both the Houses of the Parliament passed the Constitutional Amendment Bill, it mandatory for President to sign and there is provision for joint sitting

(D) If both the Houses of the Parliament has passed the Constitutional Amendment Bill, it is discretionary for the President to sign and there is provision for joint sitting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (A) and (C) only

3. (C) only

4. (D) only

19. Where the President issued Proclamation under Article 356, the President may by Proclamation

(A) assume to himself all or any functions of the Government of the States
(B) assume to himself all or any powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor
(C) declare that the powers of the legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament
(D) assume to himself any powers vested in or exercisable by a High Court

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (A) (B) and (C) only

3. (A) (B) (C) and (D)

4. (B) (C) and (D) only

20. Read the following with reference to fundamental rights and directive principles

(A) Primacy is not given to all fundamental rights over directive principles
(B) Primacy is given to all fundamental rights from Article 14 to Article 32 over directive principles.
(C) Primacy is given only to Directive Principles contained in Art. 39(b) and Art 39 (c) over the fundamental rights under Arts 14 and 19.

(D) Primacy is given only to Directive Principles contained in Art. 39(a) and Art 39 (b) over the fundamental rights under Arts 14 and

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (D) only

3. (C) only

4. (C) and (D) only

21. A decree for restitution of conjugal rights can be executed in India by

1. Attachment of the property of the respondent

2. Attachment of the property of the respondent and by arresting the respondent

3. Arrest of respondent

4. Either Attachment of the property of the respondent or by arresting the respondent

22. Where in order to give effect to international agreement the Parliament enacts law on matter enumerated in the State List without consulting the affected states, the law is

A. Void
B. Valid
C. Void to the extent of encroachment
D. Valid only to the extent affected state has given the consent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (B) and (C) only

3. (B) only

4. (D) only

23. Sequence the following as it appears in the Preamble of the Constitution of India

A. Democratic - Fraternity
B. Secular – Equality
C. Socialist – Liberty
D. Sovereign – Justice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) (C) (D)

2. (D) (C) (A) (B)

3. (D) (C) (B) (A)

4. (C) (B) (D) (A)

24. Which of the following is the exclusive power of the House of People

1. Impeachment of the President of India

2. To pass non-confidence motion against Council of Ministers

3. To ratify the declaration of national emergency

4. To pass Constitutional Amendment Bill

25. Which of the following are the circumstances under which a Member of Parliament can be disqualified under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India

(A). If he has voluntarily given up his membership of his political party
(B) If votes or abstains from voting contrary to direction issued by his political party
(C). A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified if he joins any political party after Six Months
(D) A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified if he joins any political party before Six Months

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B) (C) and (D)

4. (B) (C) and (D) only

26. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the following options

1. A-I , B II, C – III, D – IV

2. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

3. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

4. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I

27. Arrange the following as per the sequence in which they appear in the Criminal Procedure Code

A. Withdrawal from prosecution
B. Tender of pardon
C. Free legal aid
D. Double jeopardy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B, C, D

2. A, B

3. B, A, D, C

4. D, C, B, A

28. Which of the following is/are methods of termination of treaty

(A) By consent of parties
(B) By denunciation or withdrawal
(C) By concluding another treaty
(D) According to the provisions of the treaty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A), (B) and (D) only.

2. (A), (B) and (C) only.

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).

4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

29. Regard being had to the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 which of the following statement is/are not correct

(A) Criminal Procedure Code came into force on 1st January, 1974
(B) The term First Information Report is used in Section 207
(C) The term First Information Report is used in Section 154 and Section 207
(D). There are six columns in the schedule attached to the Criminal Procedure Code

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B) (C) and (D)

4. (B), and (D) only

30. Which of the following is an incorrect statement with reference to Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)

(A) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) contains 35 Articles besides the Preamble
(B) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) contains 30 Article besides the Preamble
(C). The Draft of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) has been adopted in the United Nation General Assembly on 10th December, 1948
(D). The Draft of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) has been adopted in the United Nation General Assembly on 24th October, 1948

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (B) and (C) only

4. (B) (C) and (D) only

31. Who coined the term 'criminology'?

1. M A Elliot

2. Raffaele Garofalo

3. William Blackstone

4. Jerome Hall

32. Who coined the term victimology

1. Raffaele Garofalo

2. Wolfgang and Ferracuti

3. Benjamin Mendelsohn

4. H L A Hart

33. Which of the following case or cases is/are not related related with post decisional hearing

A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. H L Terhan v. Union of India
C. A K Gopalan v. State of Madras
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B and D only

2. A, B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A and B only

34. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court has given detailed guidelines so that Section 89 of Code of Civil Procedure can be utilized so as to achieve the best result

1. Gulam Abbas v. State of UP

2. Fathima Bibi Ahmed Patel v. State of Gujarat

3. Dhula Bhai v State of M.P

4. Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd.

35. In which of the following case, that “all information of the collegium discussion can not be disclosed in public domain only final decisions are to be uploaded on Supreme Court website”

1. Anjali Bharadwaj v. CPIO, Supreme Court of India

2. HDFC Bank Ltd. v. Union of India

3. Saurav Das v. Union of India

4. Supreme Court of India v. Subash Chandra Aggarwal

36. What is the maximum penalty under the Right to Information Act, 2005 for delay in furnishing the information?

1. Rs 200 per day maximum up to Rs. 15000

2. Rs 250 per day maximum up to Rs 15000

3. Rs 250 per day maximum up to Rs 25000

4. Rs 500 per day maximum up to Rs 25000

37. Q strikes X. X by this provocation is excited to extreme violent rage. Y is a bystander and is an enemy of Q. Y taking advantage of this rage, puts a knife into X’s hand to cause the death of Q. X kills Q with the knife.

What are the offences committed by X and Y if any?

1. X and Y both committed the offence of murder under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code

2. X has committed murder under section 300 IPC but Y has committed no offence

3. X has committed only culpable homicide, but Y is guilty of murder under Section 300 IPC

4. X and Y both have committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder

38. Nayan meets Bala on the high roads, shows a pistol and demands from Bala all the valuables that she is in possession. She surrenders her gold bangles, and all cash money. Here Nayan has committed which of the following offence?

1. Extortion

2. Robbery

3. Theft

4. Dacoity

39. In which of the following case has the Supreme Court held that teachers are not ‘workmen’ under Section 2(s) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

1. Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea Estate v. Management of Dimakuchi Tea Estate, AIR 1958 SC 353

2. H. R Adhyathaya v. Sandoz (India) Ltd., (1994) 5 SCC 737

3. J. H Jadhav v. Forbes Gokak Ltd (2005) 3 SCC 202

4. A Sundarambal v. Governemnt of Goa, Daman & Diu, AIR 1988 SC 1700

40. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) behind the enactment of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act 19927

(A) To protect the interest of investors in securities
(B) To promote the development of securities market
(C) To ensure that the Indian securities market works at par with markets of other developed nations
(D) To regulate the securities market

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1 (B) only

2 (A), (B) and (D) only

3. (A), (C) and (D) only.

4. (B) and (D) only

41. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options below

1. A – III, B – II, C – I , D – IV

2. A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV

3. A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

42. Which of the following is a valid contract?

1. A, a man feebled by disease, is induced, by B's influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services

2. A, being entitled to an estate for the life of B, agrees to sell it to C. B was dead at the time of the agreement, but both parties were ignorant of the fact

3. A. with free consent agrees to sell a horse worth Rs. 1,000 for Rs 10

4. A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery, and B promises to restore the value of the things taken

43. X holds a Y at gunpoint and makes him sign a gift deed of all Y's properties in favour of G. X's daughter This agreement is

(A) Valid if ratified by Y
(B) Void if rescinded by Y
(C) Void ab-initio
(D) Valid at the option of X

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (B) only

2. (B) and (C)

3. (C) only

4. (A) and (B)

44. Madhu, an unpaid seller, can exercise the right of lien provided under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, under which of the following circumstances?

(A) Before the contract of sale has been concluded
(B) When the goods are in the possession of Madhu
(C) After the agent of the buyer has collected the goods but before the buyer has received the same
(D) After the goods have been delivered to the carrier but the goods have not reached the buyer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (C) and (D) only

3. (A) only.

4. (B) only

45. Hiralal Traders, a partnership firm enters into a supply contract in March 2020 with Pimala Ltd. for providing 100 bales of cotton for the next 3 years as raw materials to them. X was introduced as a partner in the firm in April 2023. In May 2023 Pimala Ltd. sued the firm and its partners for failure to supply the cotton bales as agreed. In the given suit determine the liability of X

1. X is liable for the act of the firm since all partners are jointly and severally liable under sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

2. X is not liable as per Section 31(2) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

3. X's liability would depend on the fact that whether Pimala Ltd. has named X in the suit instituted by them

4. X's liability would depend on the time of the default that was made

46. X and Y, both Hindus, married in 2022. X, the husband was 21 years of age while the wife was 16 years of age. According to the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (HMA), this marriage is-

1. Void marriage under Section 11 HMA

2. Voidable marriage under Section 10 HMA

3. May be Void or Voidable as desired by the parties

4. Valid marriage

47. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options below

1. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

2. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I

3. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I

4. A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

48. Which of the following case does not pertain to maintenance of Muslim women?

1. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985) 2 SCC 556

2. Shabana Bano v. Imran Khan (2009) 1 SCC 666

3. Ahmedabad Women Action Group v. Union of India (1997) 3 SCC 573

4. Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001) 7 SCC 740

49. Which of the following is NOT a condition for a valid adoption under Section 11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act 1956?

1. The same child may be adopted by two or more persons simultaneously

2. If the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother must be at least twenty-one years older than the child to be adopted

3. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive parents must not have a Hindu son, son's son or son's son's son living at the time of the adoption

4. The child to be adopted must be actually given and taken in adoption

50. Mr. Ceaser, an Indian, derives income from various sources. in the FY 2021-2022, he gained Rs 50,000 from trading of shares and other securities in the share market and their dividends. This income will be calculated under which of the following heads of income under the Income Tax Act, 1969?

1. Profit and Gains from Business and Profession

2. Capital Gains

3. Income from Other Sources

4. Both Income from Other Sources and Capital Gains

51. Section 17 of the Income Tax Act, 1969 deals with

1. Salaries only

2. Deduction from Salary and Salary

3. Heads of Income and Expenditure

4. Salary, perquisite and 'Profits in lieu of Salary'.

52. Arrange the following provisions under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in sequence of the sections as they appear in the Act

A. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages
B. Maintenance pendente lite and expenses of proceedings
C. Ceremonies for a Hindu Marriage
D. Registration of Hindu Marriages

Choose the correct answer from the options

1. C, D, B, A

2. D, C, A, B

3. C, A. D, B

4. C, D, A, B

53. Arrange the following landmark decisions of contract law in the sequence of them being pronounced by the courts

(A) Mohori Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose
(B) Bhagwan Das Goverdhan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal & Co
(C) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(D). Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. (C) (D) (A) (B)

2. (C), (A), (D), (B)

3. (D), (C), (A), (B)

4. (A), (D), (B), (C)

54. Which of the following is NOT a principle of an Insurance Contract?

1. Cause Proxima

2. Mitigation of Risk

3. Subrogation

4. Donatio mortis causa

55. Under the Marine Insurance Act, 1963, a marine insurance contract may protect the assured against risks incidental to sea voyage and covers such losses on

1. Inland waters Only

2. Any land risk only

3. Both inland waters and land risks

4. Neither inland waters nor land risks

56. While pronouncing the constitutionality of a statute, the courts must start with the presumption in favour of its constitutionality

Which of the following legal maxims iterate this principle under the rules of interpretation of statutes?

1. Expressio unius est exclusio alterius

2. Noscitur a sociis

3. Generalia specialibus non derogant

4. Ut res magis valeat quam pareat

57. Which of the following is not an internal aid in the interpretation of Statutes?

1. Preamble

2. Parliamentary Notes

3. Long Title

4. Marginal Notes

58. Which of the following is considered to be an 'anti-competitive agreement under Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002

(A) Supply agreement
(B) Exclusive distribution agreement
(C) Tie-in agreements
(D) Resale price maintenance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (D) only

2. (A) (C) and (D) only

3. (A) and (C) only

4. (B) (C) and (D) only

59. While inquiring that whether an enterprise enjoys a dominant position under Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002, which of the following factors are to be considered?

(A) Dependence of consumers on the enterprise
(B) Market share of the enterprise
(C) Creation of barriers for new entrants in the market
(D) Counterveiling buying power

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (B) and (D) only

2. (B) and (C) only.

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B) (C) and (D) only

60. Arrange the following Statutes based on the year of their enactment

(A). The Forest (Conservation) Act
(B). The Wildlife (Protection) Act
(C) The National Green Tribunal Act
(D). The Environment (Protection) Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (D), (C).

2. (B), (D), (A), (C)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C).

4. (A), (B), (D), (C).

61. In which of the following judgements did the Supreme Court hold that the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not prohibit the issuance of ex-post facto Environment Clearance?

1. M/S Pahwa Plastics Pvt Ltd v. Dastak NGO, SC judgement dated 25-03-2022

2. Almitra H. Patel v. Union of India, SC judgement dated 15-02-2000

3. K.M Chinnappa, T.N. Godavarman Thirumalpad v. Union of India, SC judgement dated 30-10-2002

4. S Jagganath v. Union of India, SC judgement dated 11-12-1996

62. Section 27(2) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 enshrines which of the following principles of trademark law?

1. Deceptive Similarity

2. Passing Off

3. Phonetic Similarity in Trademarks

4. Visual Similarity in Trademarks

63. What is the maximum punishment that can be imposed for criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 in India?

1. Fine of Rs.10000

2. Fine of Rs. 10000 and 3 months imprisonment

3. Fine of Rs. 20000 and 6 months imprisonment

4. Disqualification from legal practice

64. Arrange the following chapters under the Companies Act as per the sequence in which they appear in the statute

(A) Compromise, arrangements and amalgamation
(B) Prevention of oppression and mismanagement
(C) Meetings of Board and its power
(D) Appointment and qualifications of Directors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (C) (D), (B) (A)

2. (D) (C) (B) (A)

3. (B) (A) (D) (C)

4. (D) (C) (A) (B)

65. The definition of Geographical Indication in relation to goods means an indication which identifies

(A) such goods as originating in the territory of a country, region or locality
(B) such goods that are exclusively grown or produced in the said territory, region or locality of the country
(C) such goods having a reputation or characteristics that is attributable to its geographical origin
(D) that in case such goods are manufactured then either production, processing or preparation of the goods takes place in such territory, region or locality of the country

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) (C) and (D) only

2. (A) and (C) only

3. (B) (C) and (D) only

4. (B) and (C) only

66. Author in relation to any musical or artistic work which is computer generated is :

1. The composer

2. The artist

3. The performer

4. The person who caused the work to be created

67. Under which international instrument/mechanism can a party bring a claim for violation of its international trade rights and obligations against another member state of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

1. The UN Charter

2. WIPO ( World Intellectual Property Organization)

3. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations

4. Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU)

68. Which International Organization is primarily responsible for standardizing terms used in International sales contract including Incoterms?

1. UNCTAD

2. UNCITRAL

3. WTO

4. ISO

69. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

2. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

3. A – III, B – I , C – IV, D – II

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

70. When the plaintiff by his own want of care contributes to the damage caused by the wrongful conduct of the defendant, it is considered to be

1. Remoteness of damage

2. Contributory negligence

3. Inevitable accident

4. Nuisance

71. Which of the following is NOT a valid purpose of spending the general funds of a Trade Union under section 15 of the Trade Union Act, 1926?

1. Conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the trade union

2. Payment of funeral expenses of deceased members

3. Payment of expenses incurred by a candidate for election as a member of any legislative body constituted under the Indian Constitution

4. Provide educational benefits to the members of their dependants

72. Which of the following is/are cases NOT pertaining to dishonour of cheque under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) Modi Cements Ltd. v. Kuchil Kumar Nandi (1998)3 SCC 249
(B) Indian Overseas Bank v. Industrial Chain Concem (1990)1 SCC 484
(C) Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod v. State of Maharashtra (2014) 9 SCC 129
(D) G.J. Raja v. Tejraj Surana, AIR 2019 SC 3817

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B) and (C) only

2. (B) only

3. (A) only.

4. (C) and (D) only

73. As per Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank has the power to give directions under which of the following circumstances?

(A) in public interest
(B) in the interest of public policy
(C) to secure proper management of banking companies
(D) to prevent affairs of banking companies being conducted in matter detrimental to depositor's interest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) and (D) only.

2. (A) (C) and (D) only

3. (A) (B) (C) and (D)

4. (B) and (D) only

74. Sequence the following as per Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(A) sudden and grave provocation
(B) act done in good faith for the exercise of right to private defence
(C) death caused with mutual consent
(D) act done in sudden fight

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D).

2. (A), (B), (D), (C).

3. (B), (A), (D), (C).

4. (C), (B), (D), (Α).

75. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
Legal Doctrine	Case Law
A. Negligence	I. Municipal Corporation Delhi v. Subhagwanti
B. Strict Liability	II. Ryland v. Fletcher
C. Res Ipsa loquitur	III. Winterbottom v. Wright
D Nuisance	IV. Campbell v. Paddington Corporation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV

2. A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

3. A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV

4. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D - II

Answers 

1) 3

2) 2

3) Drop

4) 4

5) 4

6) 4

7) 4

8) 3

9) 2

10) 3

11) 4

12) 3

13) 3

14) 4

15) 2

16) 3

17) Drop

18) Drop

19) 2

20) 3

21) 1

22) 3

23) 3

24) 2

25) 2

26) 4

27) 4

28) 3

29) Drop

30) Drop

31) 2

32) 3

33) 3

34) 4

35) 1

36) 3

37) 3

38) 2

39) 4

40) 2

41) 4

42) 3

43) 4

44) 4

45) 2

46) Drop

47) 1

48) 1

49) 1

50) 4

51) 4

52) 4

53) 2

54) 4

55) 4

56) 4

57) 2

58) 3

59) 4

60) 3

61) 1

62) 2

63) Drop

64) 4

65) 1

66) 4

67) 4

68) 2

69) 3

70) 2

71) 3

72) 2

73) 2

74) 2

75) 3