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DELHI JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2014

Number of questions- 200

1. International commercial arbitration is an arbitration where at least one of the parties is:

1. A body corporate incorporated in any country other than India
2. A body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India
3. The Government of a foreign country
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

2. As per Section 3(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a communication is deemed to have been received on the day when:

1. It is dispatched to the addressee
2. It is delivered to the addressee
3. Written acknowledgement of the receipt is sent to the sender
4. Written acknowledgement of the receipt is received by the sender.

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is not an essential condition for an arbitration agreement as per Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

1. The agreement must be registered
2. The agreement must be to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes which have arisen or which may arise in respect of a defined legal relationship whether contractual or not
3. The arbitration agreement must be in writing
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is not a ground for setting aside an arbitration award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

1. Incapacity of a party
2. Arbitration agreement not being valid under the law in force
3. Award contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the submission to arbitration
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

5. In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would have no application to International commercial arbitrations held outside India and therefore such awards would only be subject to the jurisdiction of Indian courts when the same are sought to be enforced in India in accordance with Part II of the said Act?

1. Bharat Aluminium Company etc. v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service Inc. etc. (Balco) 2012 (9) SCC 552
2. Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading SA and Anr. 2002 (4) SCC 105
3. Sachin Gupta and Anr. v. K. S. Forge Metal Pvt. Ltd. (2013) 10 SCC 540
4. Kanpur Jal Sansthan and Anr. v. Bapu Construction 2014 (1) SCALE 207.

Answer: (a)

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6. The term consensus ad idem means:

1. No agreement can have more than one meaning
2. To agree the same way
3. To agree on the same thing with same sense
4. To agree for different objects in the same sense.

Answer: (c)

7. In which case it was held that a contract through telephone is concluded at the place where acceptance is heard?

1. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) XL ALJR. 489 (All)
2. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1981-4) All ER Rep. 127
3. Bhagwandas Goverdhandas Kedia v. M/s Girdharilal Parshottamdas & Co. AIR 1966 SC 543
4. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. AIR 1954 SC 44.

Answer: (c)

8. ‘A’ saves ‘B’s property from fire, the circumstances indicated that he had done so gratuitously. Whether ‘A’ is entitled to:

1. Compensation from ‘B’
2. No compensation
3. Compensation from the Government
4. Compensation from heirs of ‘B’.

Answer: (b)

9. The doctrine of privity of contract means that:

1. A contract is a private affair between the parties
2. Consideration can be supplied only by the parties to contract
3. The contract can be enforced only by a civil and private action
4. Only parties to contract can sue and be sued upon the contract.

Answer: (d)

10. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance of a contract being void, is based on:

1. The theory of implied term
2. The theory of just and reasonable solution
3. Supervening impossibility or illegality as laid down in Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
4. The principle of unjust enrichment.

Answer: (c)

11. An agreement is void if its object or consideration is:

1. Forbidden by law
2. Of such nature that if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law or is fraudulent
3. The Court regards it as immoral or against public policy
4. All these are correct.

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following is not a quasi-contract?

1. Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-gratuitous act
2. Responsibility of finder of goods
3. Quantum meruit
4. Novation.

Answer: (d)

13. ‘A’ applies to a banker for a loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. ‘A’ accepts the loan on these terms. In this case, the contract is:

1. Vitiated by undue influence
2. Valid because this is a transaction in the ordinary cause of business
3. Void because the banker took unfair advantage of stringency in the money market
4. Voidable at the option of ‘A’ who was deceived by the banker.

Answer: (b)

14. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of:

1. Fraud
2. Misrepresentation
3. Undue influence
4. Free consent.

Answer: (d)

15. ‘P’ a wholesale dealer in sugar, sells sugar to ‘Q’ with a condition that ‘Q’ shall not sell the sugar beyond one kilometer of ‘P’s go down. The agreement is:

1. Valid
2. Without free consent
3. In restraint of trade and thus void
4. Voidable at the option of ‘P’.

Answer: (c)

16. While determining damages for breach of contract, which of the following are taken into account?

1. Motive
2. Indirect loss
3. Means of remedying the inconvenience caused by non-performance
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

17. In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as against the proposer?

1. When the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission so as to be out of power of the acceptor
2. When the letter of acceptance has been written
3. When the letter of acceptance has been received
4. When the letter of acceptance has been read by the proposer.

Answer: (a)

18. A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a/an:

1. Bailor
2. Indemnity
3. Agent
4. Bailee.

Answer: (d)

19. ‘A’ contract to sing for ‘B’ at a concert for Rs. 50,000/- which are paid in advance. ‘A’ is too ill to sing on the day of the concert. The consequence is:

1. ‘A’ is bound to make compensation to ‘B’ for the loss of the profits which ‘B’ would have made if ‘A’ had been able to sing
2. ‘A’ is bound to refund to ‘B’ Rs. 50,000/- paid in advance
3. ‘A’ can be forced to sing at the concert
4. ‘A’ is bound to refund only that Money out of Rs. 50,000/- that he has not spent.

Answer: (b)

20. Where persons reciprocally promise, firstly to do certain things which are legal and secondly, under specified circumstances, to do certain other things which are illegal, the:

1. First set of promise is a contract, but the second is a void agreement
2. First set of promise is voidable but the second set is a void agreement
3. Entire set of promises is void
4. Entire set of promises is valid.

Answer: (a)

21. If the compensation to be paid on breach of contract is the genuine pre-estimate of the prospective damages, it is known as:

1. Special damages
2. Penalty
3. Un-liquidated damages
4. Liquidated damages.

Answer: (d)

22. Mark the correct answer in respect of Contract of Guarantee.

1. It may be in writing
2. It may be oral
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

23. An agreement that is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a:

1. Valid contract
2. Unenforceable contract
3. Voidable contract
4. Quasi-contract.

Answer: (c)

24. An agency can be terminated by:

1. The principle revoking his authority
2. The agent renouncing the business of agency
3. Either the principle or agent dying
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

25. If the time of performance of contract is the essence of contract and the promisor fails to perform the contract by the specified time, the contract is:

1. Void
2. Valid
3. Voidable at the option of the promise
4. Infructuous.

Answer: (c)

26. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?

1. Evidence excluded by the Evidence Act is inadmissible even if it seems essential for ascertainment of truth
2. Parties cannot contract themselves out of the provisions of the Evidence Act
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

27. Which of the following qualities to be treated as “Fact” within the meaning assigned to it under the Evidence Act?

1. That a man heard or saw something
2. That a man holds a certain opinion
3. That a man acts in good faith
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. According to the Evidence Act, a fact is said to be “not proved”, when the:

1. Court believes that the fact does not exist
2. Fact is vague
3. Fact is neither proved nor disproved
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

29. ‘A’ prosecutes ‘B’ for adultery with ‘C’, wife of ‘A’. ‘B’ contested by denying the allegation. ‘B’ was found guilty and convicted in said case. Subsequently, ‘C’ was prosecuted on charge of bigamy on allegations that she had married ‘B’ during subsistence of her marriage with ‘A’. ‘C’ contested by denying that she was ever married to ‘A’. In the case against ‘C’, the judgment in the first case against ‘B’ is:

1. Relevant
2. Irrelevant
3. Binding
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

30. Mark the incorrect statement.

A court may take the assistance of expert for forming opinion on point of:

1. Foreign law
2. Art
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (d)

31. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. In civil cases, the character to prove the conduct imputed to a party is not relevant
2. In criminal proceedings bad character of the accused is not relevant, unless evidence of good character has been given
3. In criminal proceedings previous conviction of accused is relevant as evidence of bad character
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

32. ‘A’ is on trial for the murder of ‘C’. There is evidence to show that ‘C’ was murdered by ‘A’ and ‘B’, and that ‘B’ said – ‘A’ and I murdered ‘C’. As against ‘A’, this evidence is:

1. Not to be taken into consideration as the evidence is hearsay
2. To be taken into consideration as it is direct
3. Not to be taken into consideration as ‘A’ and ‘B’ are not being jointly tried
4. To be taken into consideration as ‘A’ and ‘B’ are accomplices.

Answer: (c)

33. The essential conditions for the dying declaration to be relevant include that the:

(i) statement is made by a person as to the cause of his death.

(ii) statement is made by a person as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death.

(iii) person must have been under expectation of death at the time of making the statement.

Which of the above proposition(s) is/are correct?

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise flowing from person in authority, giving reasonable impression to the accused that he would thereby avoid punishment is relevant
2. Confession by accused while in custody of police, even if made in the immediate presence of a magistrate, shall not be proved
3. The confession of the accused made while in custody of police may be proved if as a consequence of information received thereby a relevant fact is discovered
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

35. ‘A’ is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to sell them below their value. Which of the following is correct?

1. ‘A’ may prove the statements, though in the nature of admission, because they are explanatory of conduct influenced by facts in issue
2. ‘A’ may not prove the statements because they are self-serving admissions
3. ‘A’ may not prove the statements because as accused he cannot be a witness in his own defence
4. All of the above are incorrect.

Answer: (a)

36. Which of the following is incorrect under the Evidence Act?

1. In a case where ‘A’ is charged with receiving a particular stolen wristwatch knowing the same to be stolen – The fact that at the same time he was in possession of other such stolen articles is relevant
2. In a case where ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by intentionally shooting him to death – The fact that ‘A’ was in the habit of shooting at people with intent to murder them is relevant
3. In a case where ‘A’ is sued for damages for bite injury caused by his dog to ‘B’, ‘A’ having known the dog to be ferocious – The fact that the dog had previously bitten ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is relevant
4. In a case where ‘A’ is accused of defaming ‘B’ by publishing an imputation intended to harm the reputation of ‘B’ – The fact of previous publications by ‘A’ respecting ‘B’, showing ill-will on the part of ‘A’ towards ‘B’ is relevant.

Answer: (b)

37. ‘C’ is employed as a cashier by a firm to receive money at its sale counter. It is his duty to make entries in the ledger showing the amounts received by him. He is prosecuted on the charge of criminal breach of trust in respect of rupees ninety thousand on the basis of evidence showing he made an entry showing that he had received rupees ten thousand only whereas he had actually received rupees one lakh. ‘C’ has taken the plea that the wrong entry was accidental and unintentional. The fact that other entries made in the same ledger are false, each showing receipt of less amount by ‘C’ is:

1. Relevant as it has a bearing on the question of intention
2. Not relevant as the other entries are not basis of charge
3. Not relevant as the evidence is extraneous
4. Not relevant as other entries are not in issue.

Answer: (a)

38. Mark what is not a ‘public document’ within the meaning of the expression used in the Evidence Act?

1. The records of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal
2. The register of private documents maintained in the office of Sub-Registrar under the Registration Act
3. The record of proceedings of the House of the People maintained in the Lok Sabha Secretariat
4. Pronote executed by ‘A’ while taking loan from a money lender.

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following is correct?

1. There is a presumption that maps of various States and Union Territories made by the Survey of India are accurate
2. There is a presumption that map prepared by a registered architect for the purpose of a civil dispute is accurate
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (a)

40. The evidence of contents of the information recorded or stored in a computer may be given through computer output, without production of the original, provided certain conditions are satisfied. The said conditions include that:

1. If the computer was not operating properly during the material part of the period over which it was used to store or process the information for purposes of the relevant activities, it was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its content
2. The information contained in the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of such activities
3. Neither a nor b
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

41. In which case oral evidence cannot be given?

1. ‘A’ hired lodgings of ‘B’ and gives to ‘B’ a card on which he wrote “Rooms, Rs. 2000/- a month”. ‘A’ in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that the terms included partial board
2. ‘A’ hired lodgings of ‘B’ for a year. A regularly stamped agreement was drawn up by an attorney and signed by both of them. The document is silent on the subject of board. ‘A’ in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that the terms included partial board
3. Both in a and in b
4. Neither in a and nor in b.

Answer: (b)

42. The burden of proving that the case of the accused comes within any of the General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon the:

1. Prosecution
2. Court
3. Accused
4. Investigating police officer.

Answer: (c)

43. The facts of which the court must take judicial notice include the:

1. Gazetted Holidays observed by the Government of India
2. Rules of road
3. Neither a nor b
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

44. Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief:

1. With permission of the court as to matters which are introductory
2. If in the opinion of the court the matter involved has been already sufficiently proved
3. Neither a nor b
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

45. For deciding whether or not a witness shall be compelled to answer questions, the court shall have regard to considerations which include as to whether such questions are:

1. Proper if the truth of imputation conveyed thereby would seriously affect the opinion of the court as to the credibility of the witness on the subject matter of his deposition
2. Improper if the truth of imputation conveyed thereby would affect in a slight degree the opinion of the court as to the credibility of the witness on the subject matter of his deposition
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

46. Which of the following is correct?

1. Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is alive if it is shown that he was alive within thirty years
2. Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is dead if it is proved that he has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard from him if he had been alive
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

47. The court may presume that:

1. When a document creating an obligation is in the hands of the obligor, the obligation has been discharged
2. Judicial and official acts have not been regularly performed
3. A bill of exchange, accepted or endorsed, was accepted or endorsed for deficient consideration
4. All of the above are incorrect.

Answer: (a)

48. ‘A’ intentionally and falsely led ‘B’ to believe that a plot of land belonged to him. On that basis, he induced ‘B’ to buy and pay for it. Afterwards the plot of land became the property of ‘A’. ‘A’ brought a suit to set aside the sale in favour of ‘B’ on the ground that, at the time of sale, he had no title. In such suit:

1. ‘A’ may prove want of title at the time of sale
2. ‘A’ cannot be allowed to prove want of his title
3. It depends on the value of the property
4. All of the above are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

49. All persons are competent to testify unless the court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them because of:

1. Tender years
2. Extreme old age
3. Mental disease
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

50. The Judge’s power to put questions or order production of documents does not include authorization to:

1. Compel a witness to answer any question which such witness is entitled to refuse to answer if the question were asked by the adverse party
2. To ask a question which would be proper for any other person to ask
3. To elicit clarity on a point
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

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51. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to:

1. Suits
2. Execution petitions under Order 21 CPC
3. Petitions for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1956
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

52. Which of the following is not a disability under Section 6 (legal disability) of the Limitation Act, 1963?

1. Minority
2. Insanity
3. Insolvency
4. Idiocy.

Answer: (c)

53. In case of a suit for property which the plaintiff has conveyed while insane, the time from which the period of limitation (three years under Article 102 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is:

1. When the plaintiff is restored to sanity
2. The date the property was conveyed
3. When the plaintiff has knowledge of the conveyance
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

54. A suit to set aside a transfer of property made by the guardian of a ward, by the ward who has attained majority, can be filed within three years (Article 60(1) of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) from when the:

1. Transfer of the property was made
2. Person in possession is served notice
3. Ward attains majority
4. Person in possession refuses to hand over possession.

Answer: (c)

55. In case of a suit by a person excluded from a Joint Family property to enforce a right to share therein, the time from which the period of limitation (12 years under Article 110 of the Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is:

1. From the date of exclusion
2. When the exclusion becomes known to the plaintiff
3. When the plaintiff makes known his intention to recover possession
4. The date of refusal to hand over possession to the plaintiff.

Answer: (b)

56. The Supreme Court in Collector Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC 1353 laid down the:

1. Guiding principles for deciding an application under Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963
2. Principles governing the nature of acknowledgement under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

57. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal from a decree passed by a court subordinate to the High Court, to a High Court from the date of the decree is:

1. 90 days
2. 60 days
3. 30 days
4. One year.

Answer: (a)

58. Section 21 (Effect of substituting or adding new plaintiff or defendant) of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply in case of which of the following?

1. Addition of a new defendant for the first time
2. Substitution of a new plaintiff for the first time
3. Transposition of parties
4. Addition of a new plaintiff for the first time.

Answer: (c)

59. Which of the following is correct with regard to acknowledgement of liability under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?

1. Acknowledgement cannot be undated
2. Acknowledgement can be made to a person other than the person entitled to the property
3. Acknowledgement need not be in writing
4. Acknowledgement can be made after the expiry of the period of limitation.

Answer: (b)

60. Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963 fresh period of limitation has to be computed from the date of:

1. Expiry of half of the extended period of limitation
2. Delivering the acknowledgement
3. Signing of the acknowledgement
4. Expiry of the initial period of limitation.

Answer: (c)

61. The relation of partnership according to Section 5 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 arises from:

1. Status
2. Contract
3. Friendship
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

62. The authority of a partner to bind the firm by his acts done in the usual course of business is called his ‘implied authority’. Such authority does not include:

1. Selling the firm’s goods
2. To borrow in a trading firm
3. Settling accounts with the persons dealing with the firm
4. Withdraw a suit or proceeding filed on the firm’s behalf.

Answer: (d)

63. A partnership firm may be dissolved:

1. With the consent of all partners
2. In accordance with a contract between the partners
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

64. When a minor elects to become a partner he becomes personally liable to third parties for all acts of the firm done since:

1. He was admitted to be benefits of partnership
2. From the date of his attaining majority
3. From the date of his becoming a partner
4. Both b and c.

Answer: (a)

65. In which of the following cases, a partner may cease to be a partner without the dissolution of the firm?

1. Retirement
2. Insolvency
3. Death
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

66. A court may deny specific performance of an agreement to sell an immovable property if:

1. It is of the option that the consideration is inadequate
2. The court feels that the contract is onerous to the defendant
3. The performance of the contract would involve hardship on the defendant which he did not foresee and non-performance would involve no such hardship on the plaintiff
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

67. The relief of injunction cannot be granted:

1. When equally efficacious relief can be obtained by any other usual mode of proceeding
2. The plaintiff has not come to the court with clean hands
3. To prevent nuisance when it is not reasonably clear
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

68. ‘S’ a shopkeeper has kept the goods for sale on the pavement outside the shop and constructed temporary overhead shed. Flying squad of NCT of Delhi demolished the temporary construction and seized the goods from the payment, without giving him any notice. After one year, ‘S’ filed a suit for recovery of possession of pavement against NCT of Delhi under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963. The suit is barred as filed:

1. Against the Government
2. After the period prescribed
3. Without the title over the pavement
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

69. The engagement diamond ring of ‘N’ was stolen by ‘T’, a thief who sold it to ‘J’ a jeweller. ‘N’ filed a suit for recovery of ring against ‘J’. ‘J’ contended that he is ready to pay the price of the ring. Whether the decree for recovery of diamond ring can be refused on the ground that:

1. Compensation in terms of money would be adequate relief for the loss of ring
2. ‘J’ is bonafide purchaser of ring for consideration
3. There is no jural relation between ‘N’ & ‘J’
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

70.It is the principle of law that a person who has been in long and continuous possession can protect the same by seeking injunction against any person in the whole world other than the true owner. The above statement is:

1. True
2. False
3. Partly true
4. Partly false.

Answer: (a)

71. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the light of provisions of Article 356?

1. President must proclaim emergency only on the basis of a report from the Governor of the State
2. Governor can recommend President to proclaim emergency on the basis of personal information suggesting large scale defection of legislators
3. President can proclaim emergency only on the advice of Council of Ministers
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

72. In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that – ‘Delay in deciding mercy petition is a sufficient ground for commuting the death sentence to life imprisonment’?

1. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
2. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
3. Rajat Prasad v. CBI
4. Uday Gupta v. Ayesha.

Answer: (a)

73. Which of the following is correct about the preamble to the Constitution of India?

1. It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution
2. It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights
3. It seeks to secure good livelihood to all
4. It is not a part of the Constitution.

Answer: (a)

74. Which of the following is true about Supreme Court of India?

1. Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are approved by the Chief Justice of India under intimation to the President of India
2. No judgment shall be delivered by the Supreme Court save in open court
3. President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court
4. All authorities including armed forces in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court.

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following writ is not amenable to the principle of ‘res judicata’?

1. Mandamus
2. Certiorari
3. Quo Warranto
4. Habeas Corpus.

Answer: (d)

76. ‘Curative Petition’ may be entertained by the Supreme Court in the following situation/situations:

1. When a Judge on the Bench having heard the matter did not disclose his connection with the subject matter
2. The petitioner filing the petition was not a party before the Court but has suffered a grave prejudice by the decision
3. The grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition had been agitated in the Review Petition which was dismissed in circulation
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

77. The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where:

1. Punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial
2. Punishment or sentence is for an offence against law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends
3. Sentences is a sentence of death
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

78. Which of the following is not a requirement under Article 311 of the Constitution while dealing with disciplinary proceedings for dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of a civil servant?

1. A departmental inquiry is held against the delinquent employee after serving him with the charge-sheet
2. A reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges
3. A reasonable opportunity of making representation on the penalty proposed
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

79. Amendment to which of the following provisions of Constitution require ratification by the state?

1. Article 242
2. List-I of Seventh Schedule
3. Chapter V of Part IV
4. Chapter II of Part XI.

Answer: (b)

80. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes:

1. Right to strike
2. Right to collective bargaining
3. Right to lockout
4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

81. Which of the following is not a Fundamental duty under Article 51A?

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
3. To provide opportunity of education to the child below the age of six by his parent or guardian
4. To have compassion for living creatures.

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following is a Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. To provide paternity leave
2. To organize Gram Sabhas
3. To provide for participation of workers in management of industries
4. To take steps for separation of judiciary from legislature.

Answer: (c)

83. Which of the following is a Fundamental Right?

1. To assemble with arms
2. To form co-operative societies
3. Right to employment
4. Right of religious denominations to own immovable property only for charitable purpose.

Answer: (b)

84. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12?

1. National Council of Educational Research and Training
2. Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies
3. Indian Oil Corporation
4. High Court of Delhi.

Answer: (c)

85. Which of the following Articles was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. Article 330
2. Article 13
3. Article 131
4. Article 354.

Answer: (a)

86. Which of the following writs can be sought to be issued to quash unconstitutional appointment to a public office?

1. Quo Warranto
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Certiorari.

Answer: (a)

87. Parliament of India shall consist of:

1. Two Houses
2. Two Houses and Ministers
3. Two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General
4. Two Houses and the President.

Answer: (d)

88. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?

1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Finance Commission
4. Comptroller and Auditor-General.

Answer: (b)

89. Which of the following is not a requirement to be satisfied by the State to exercise their discretion while providing for reservations in promotions in favour of SCs & STs?

1. Backwardness of the class
2. Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a particular year
3. Inadequacy of representation in Public Employment
4. Efficiency in administration.

Answer: (b)

90. Which of the following Articles was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012?

1. 371-J
2. 19(1)(h)
3. 243-P
4. 396.

Answer: (a)

91. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code is that:

1. Whereas in Section 34 there must be at least five persons, Section 149 requires only two persons
2. Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence
3. Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly
4. Both b and c.

Answer: (c)

92. ‘A’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘Z’ fires at the tiger in good faith intending to rescue ‘A’, knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill ‘A’. The shot fired by ‘Z’ gives ‘A’ a mortal wound. ‘Z’ has committed:

1. No offence
2. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
3. Offence of causing death by negligence
4. Murder.

Answer: (a)

93. Which is not the ‘stolen property’?

1. Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
2. Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
3. Possession whereof was obtained by extortion
4. Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust.

Answer: (a)

94. In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed?

1. A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door
2. A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z’s house through that key
3. Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

95. P is found in possession of a document purporting to be a will of ‘Q’ in favour of ‘P’, bearing forged signatures of ‘Q’, intending that the will shall be fraudulently used as genuine after the death of ‘Q’. ‘P’ has committed:

1. No offence as it is mere preparatory to lay a claim
2. No offence till the will is used
3. An offence as mere possession of such document in such circumstances is penal
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

96. ‘A’, finds a gold ring on the road, knowing it be the property of ‘Z’. ‘Z’ having unknowingly lost it there, ‘A’ picks up the ring and pledges it with a money-lender to raise a loan. ‘A’ has committed:

1. Dishonest misappropriation of property
2. Criminal breach of trust
3. Theft
4. No offence.

Answer: (a)

97. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. In conspiracy, there is no distinction between principal and accessory
2. In conspiracy, principal and accessory are distinct
3. There has to be a distinction between principal and accessory in all offences
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

98. If a person sitting across to a girl in public transport deliberately shows a pornographic picture to her, it amounts to the offence of:

1. Voyeurism
2. Sexual assault
3. Sexual harassment
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

99. ‘B’ and his girlfriend ‘G’, both adults, engage in consensual sexual intercourse in the privacy of the bedroom of the latter and ‘B’ with her consent prepares a video clip on his mobile camera and later shows it in total privacy to his friend ‘F’, it amounts to:

1. Stalking
2. Voyeurism
3. Rape
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

100. A woman approaches ‘X’, an officer in charge of a police station and alleges that her boyfriend tried to forcibly remove her shirt in a dress shop, seeking legal action to be taken, but ‘X’ refuses to take note of the incident and asked her to file a criminal complaint before a magistrate. Here, ‘X’ committed a:

1. Misconduct but not any penal offence
2. Cognizable offence
3. Non-cognizable offence
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

101. ‘S’ is found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is arrested by ‘P’, a police officer. ‘S’ is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest and fires at him but kills ‘D’ who was standing near ‘P’, neither intended nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘D’. This is:

1. Culpable Homicide not amounting to murder, because ‘S’ had been deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation
2. Murder, because provocation was given by a thing done by a public servant in lawful discharge of his powers
3. Culpable Homicide not amounting to murder, because the death of ‘D’ occurred by mistake or accident
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

102. ‘A’ was sentenced to fine of rupees one thousand and in case of default to suffer simple imprisonment for six months. He did not pay the fine and was taken in custody. ‘After six weeks, an amount of rupees one hundred was realised through warrant for recovery and he further deposited rupees four hundred the balance remaining unpaid. ‘A’ would be:

1. Entitled to immediate release from custody
2. Entitled to release as soon as three months elapse
3. Liable to undergo imprisonment for the period of six months
4. Entitled to release after such period as the court may further direct on such realisation or deposit.

Answer: (b)

103. The right of private defence of property extends to causing death of the wrongdoer under certain descriptions. Which one of the following descriptions is not included in those?

1. Robbery
2. House-breaking by night
3. Lurking house trespass
4. Mischief by fire on any human dwelling.

Answer: (c)

104. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:

(a) necessary that the act abetted must be committed.

(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.

(c) necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?

1. Only (b)
2. Both (b) and (c)
3. Only (a)
4. Only (c).

Answer: (a)

105. Consider the following statements:

(a) every murder is culpable homicide.

(b) every culpable homicide is murder.

(c) every robbery is either theft or extortion.

(d) every extortion is robbery.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (a) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d).

Answer: (a)

106. With respect to the difference between kidnapping from lawful guardianship and abduction, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a minor or a person of unsound mind & in Abduction is committed in respect of a person of any age
2. In former, the person kidnapped is removed out of lawful guardianship & in Abduction has reference exclusively to the person abducted
3. In kidnapping, consent of the person kidnapped or entitled is immaterial & in abduction, consent of the person moved, if freely and voluntarily given, condones abduction
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

107. ‘X’ along with four other armed associates seizes the child of ‘Y’ and threatens to kill him unless ‘Y’ parts with his watch and diamond ring compelling him to do so. ‘X’ has committed the offence of:

1. Robbery
2. Dacoity
3. Attempt to murder
4. Extotrtion.

Answer: (b)

108. For the offence of cheating:

1. The person deceived must have been fraudulently or dishonestly induced to deliver property
2. As a consequence of the intentional inducement, damage or harm in body, mind, reputation or property is caused or likely to be caused to the person deceived
3. Both a and b are correct
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

‘109. A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement. In course of such fencing, without any foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to ‘Z’. Here, ‘X’:

1. Is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as he attacked ‘Z’
2. Is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the part of ‘Z’ to suffer such harm
3. Is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport
4. Both a and c.

Answer: (b)

110. In answer to the charge of defamation, which of the following is/are good defence(s)?

1. Imputation which is true and published for the public good
2. Opinion respecting the conduct of a public servant concerning discharge of duties of office expressed in good faith
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

111. Consider the following statement(s). A police officer has the power to arrest any person without an order from a magistrate or warrant of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his complicity in a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons in writing that such arrest is necessary:

(i) to prevent such person from committing any further offence.

(ii) for proper investigation of the offence.

(iii) to prevent such person from tampering with or causing the evidence of the offence to disappear.

(iv) to compel the absconding co-accused to surrender.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (c)

112. What is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding three years?

1. Three years
2. Five years
3. Seven years
4. No limitation.

Answer: (d)

113. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court
2. Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure by a magistrate or court
3. Investigation includes all the proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of evidence conducted by a magistrate
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

114. Indicate the correct statement regarding the rights of an arrestee. A person arrested without warrant has the right to:

(i) be informed of the particulars of the offence for which he is arrested.

(ii) have a relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest.

(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation.

(iv) be medically examined by a medical officer.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (c)

115. In order to compel appearance of a person who is absconding in spite of a warrant of arrest being issued against him, his property may be ordered to be attached simultaneously with issuance of a proclamation under Section 82 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that the court is satisfied that such person is:

1. About to dispose of the whole or any part of his property
2. About to remove the whole or any part of property from the local jurisdiction of the court
3. Either condition in a or b exists
4. Both conditions in a and b co-exist.

Answer: (c)

116. Which of the following is not an essential search procedure under Section 100 of Code of Criminal Procedure?

1. Calling upon two independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality to witness the search
2. Signing of search-memo by the witnesses to search
3. Attendance of occupant of the place during the search
4. Signature of the accused on the search list.

Answer: (d)

117. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure if she:

1. Has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried
2. Is unable to maintain herself
3. Refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a mistress
4. Is living in adultery.

Answer: (d)

118. On the non-completion of investigation, i.e., failure of the prosecution to file charge-sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60 days, as given in Section 167 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the:

1. Accused person is to be discharged unconditionally
2. Accused person shall be released on bail if he is prepared to and does furnish bail
3. Right of the accused person to be released on bail could be defeated by the subsequent filling of the charge sheet under any circumstance
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

119. ‘G’, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‘H’. ‘H’ during the subsistence of the said marriage entered into another marriage with ‘P’. The court may take cognizance for the offence of bigamy if the complaint brought by:

1. Her father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter or by her father’s or mother’s brother or sister
2. Any other person related to her by blood, marriage or adoption, with the leave of the court
3. Some other person on her behalf, with leave of court, but where there is a guardian appointed in her respect, then only after such guardian has been heard
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

120. ‘A’ is accused of an act that may amount to theft, or receiving stolen property or criminal breach of trust or cheating. At trial, a formal charge is framed only for the offence of theft. The evidence adduced at trial shows that he committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. He may be convicted:

1. For the offence of theft only for which formal charge was framed
2. For the offence of criminal breach of trust though he was not charged with such offence
3. The trial is vitiated
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

121. The categories of persons who may, without their consent, be charged and tried together include persons accused of:

1. Different offences committed in the course of the same transaction
2. More than one offence of the same kind committed by them within the period of twelve months
3. Neither a nor b
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (a)

122. ‘F’, a French National on a tourist visa to India was raped by a group of four boys, two days prior to her scheduled departure from India. FIR was registered on her statement and the offenders were charge-sheeted. On being summoned by the Court to depose as a witness during trial, she refused to come to India on the ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of the following options is most appropriate for the Trial Court?

1. Issue non-bailable warrant against ‘F’ through Ministry of Home Affairs to compel appearance
2. Initiate proceedings for punishment for non-attendance by ‘F’ under Section 350, Cr.P.C.
3. Drop ‘F’ as a witness and acquit the accused persons
4. Issue a Commission for examination of ‘F’.

Answer: (d)

123. ‘A’ was acquitted of the charge for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by throwing acid on ‘X’, as the victim did not support the police version about involvement of ‘A’ in the incident, though grievous hurt by acid was proved. ‘X’ seeks compensation from the Trial Court. The Trial Court may:

1. Dismiss the claim because the accused was acquitted
2. Dismiss the claim because the victim turned hostile during trial
3. Consider making recommendation to the State Legal Services Authority for compensation to victim
4. Direct the accused to pay compensation to the victim on humanitarian grounds.

Answer: (c)

‘124. A’ faced trial for cheating ‘Z’ by dishonestly inducing him to lend money by knowingly pledging fake diamonds. ‘Z’ died during trial and was survived by a son ‘X’. ‘X’ moved an application in the Trial Court to compound the offence. Which of the following is the correct legal preposition?

1. ‘X’ is not competent to compound the offence
2. On the death of complainant ‘Z’, the trial proceedings shall abate
3. Court cannot entertain such an application after death, of the complainant
4. ‘X’ can compound the offence with the consent of the Court

Answer: (d)

125. Who can file an application for Plea-Bargaining in the court in which an offence is pending for trial?

1. The Public Prosecutor
2. The victim of the offence
3. The Investigating Officer
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

126. A criminal court, at conclusion of trial, may order:

1. Restoration of possession of immovable property to the person who had been dispossessed therefrom by use of criminal force or by criminal intimation by the person convicted
2. The destruction of pornographic material in respect of which conviction was recorded
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

127. A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an accused on bail in non-bailable offence except in following case(s) if:

1. There are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life
2. There are reasonable grounds for believing that he has been guilty of a cognizable offence and he has been previously convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years
3. He had been previously convicted on two or more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

128. In computing the period of limitation, the period which may be excluded includes the:

1. Time during which any person has been prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution on the same facts, in good faith and in a court without jurisdiction
2. Period for which the prosecution in respect of such offence has been stayed by an injunction or order
3. Period during which the application of the accused for release on bail was pending
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

129. The proceedings before a criminal court are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is not empowered by law to do so:

1. Issues search warrant erroneously but in good faith
2. Holds inquest under section 176 of Code of Criminal Procedure erroneously but in good faith
3. Tries an offender summarily
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

130. Prosecution of a case involving misappropriation of property belonging to the Central Government can be withdrawn by:

1. Any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the State Government
2. The Public Prosecutor appointed by the Central Government on the direction of the State Government
3. The Public Prosecutor appointed by the State Government on permission granted by the Central Government
4. Any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the Central Government.

Answer: (c)

131. Consider the following statement(s):

A ‘decree’ means and includes:

(i) Formal expression of an adjudication which, so far as regards the court expressing it, conclusively determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy in the suit.

(ii) Any adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order.

(iii) Any order of dismissal of suit for default.

(iv) Rejection of plaint.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (c)

132. Which is the correct essential conditions for applicability of the rule of sub judice?

1. The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially in issue in the previous suit
2. The parties must be litigating under the same title in both the suits
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

133. The expression ‘former suit’ in the context of rule of res judicata means a suit which has been:

1. Instituted prior to the suit in question
2. Decided prior to the suit in question
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (b)

134. Which of the following statements is true?

1. A suit for recovery of immovable property shall be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the property is situated
2. A suit for partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides or works for gain
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (a)

135. Consider the following statement(s).

(i) A defendant may set up, by way of a counter-claim against the claim of the plaintiff any right or claim in respect of the cause of action accruing to him.

(ii) The counter-claim may be submitted by the defendant even after he has delivered his defence.

(iii) The counter-claim shall not exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (b)

136. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. A representative suit may be instituted by one or more persons for the benefit of all interested persons with the permission of the court
2. Notice of the institution of a representative suit must be given by public advertisement at the plaintiff’s expense to all interested persons whereby reason of their number, personal service is not reasonably practicable
3. Any person for whose benefit a representative suit has been instituted may apply to join as a party thereto
4. The person(s) who instituted the suit or person(s) who joined as party have unrestricted right to compromise with the defendant.

Answer: (d)

137. Where the defendant is absent at the time when service of summons is sought to be effected on him at his residence, there being no likelihood of his availability within reasonable time and in absence of an empowered agent, the service may be made on:

1. Any adult male member of his family
2. Any adult female member of his family
3. A servant engaged by the defendant at his residence
4. Both a and b.

Answer: (d)

138. A suit may be dismissed where:

1. Summons are not served on the defendant in consequence of the failure of the plaintiff to take proper steps like filing of court fee, postal charges or requisite number of copies of plaint
2. Neither party appears when the suit is called on for hearing
3. Plaintiff, after summons to defendant has returned unserved, fails to apply for fresh summons for seven days
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

139. Consider the following statements.

Admissions for forming the basis of judgment may be secured from the opposite party to a civil suit by way of notice:

(i) of admission of the case.

(ii) to admit documents.

(iii) to admit facts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. None of these
2. All of these
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. Only (ii) and (iii).

Answer: (b)

140. When a civil suit reaches the stage of hearing and examination of witnesses:

1. The plaintiff has the right to begin
2. If the defendant admits the facts alleged by the plaintiff and contends that on some additional facts alleged by the defendant, the plaintiff is not entitled to any relief, the defendant has the right to begin
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Where issues both of law and of fact arise and if the court is of opinion that the case may be disposed of on an issue relating to jurisdiction, it may postpone the settlement of other issues until after the issue of jurisdiction has been determined
2. Where a suit may be disposed of on preliminary issue, the court need not pronounce judgment on other issues settled in the case
3. The preliminary issue may relate to a bar to the suit created and law for the time being in force
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

142. Which of the following statements is correct? The court which passed the decree may transfer it to another competent court if the:

1. Judgment debtor carries on business within the jurisdiction of the latter court
2. Judgment debtor has no property within the jurisdiction of the former court sufficient to satisfy such decree but has property within the jurisdiction of the latter court
3. Decree directs the sale of immovable property situated outside the local jurisdiction of the former court
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

143. A money decree may be executed by:

1. Attachment and sale of any property of the judgment debtor
2. Arrest and detention in prison of the judgment debtor for indefinite period
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (a)

144. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. No suit, not involving urgent or immediate relief, may be instituted against the Central Government except after serving a notice of two months
2. A decree against the Union of India may not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for a period of three months
3. Both a and b are correct
4. Both a and b are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

145. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue survivors against the other surviving defendant alone, the case may proceed against the surviving defendant
2. Where on the death of a defendant the right to sue does not survive against the other surviving defendant alone, the case shall abate against the deceased defendant if no application is made within the time limited by law for the legal representative of the deceased defendant to be made a party
3. There shall be no abatement by reason of death of either party between the conclusion of the hearing and the pronouncing of the judgment
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

146. In the context of withdrawal of suit, which is the correct statement?

1. If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect, the plaintiff may be allowed to withdraw the suit with liberty to institute a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter
2. If the plaintiff withdraws from a suit without permission of the court he may bring fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter
3. If there are more than one plaintiffs, one of them may withdraw the suit without the consent of other plaintiffs
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

147. Which is the correct statement in context of summary procedure for civil suits?

1. May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated demand in money payable by the defendant arising out a written contract
2. May be applied suo motu by any civil court in its discretion in the interest of expeditious adjudication
3. Requires the defendant to seek leave to defend which, if granted, must be unconditional
4. All the above statements are not correct.

Answer: (a)

148. In case of breach of any of the terms on which temporary injunction was granted, the court may order:

1. The person in breach to be detained in civil prison for indefinite period but not after the breath has ceased
2. Attachment of the property of the person in breach and if the breach continues for more than one year, sell the attached property and award the entire sale proceeds to the injured party as compensation
3. Both a and b are incorrect
4. Both a and b are correct.

Answer: (c)

149. The leave may be granted by the civil court to deliver interrogatories:

1. Only to the defendant since the plaintiff is the master of the suit
2. Even if they relate to matters not in question in the suit
3. Notwithstanding the objection taken by the opposite party
4. If it considers the same necessary for disposing of the case fairly.

Answer: (d)

150. A decree becomes final when:

1. It conclusively determined the right of the parties
2. No appeal has been preferred against the decree
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

151. Directions (Questions 151-153): In each of these questions, choose the pair from the options that is similar in relationship to the one expressed in the given pair.

SCULPTOR : CHISEL ::

1. Time : Seconds
2. Tailor : Needle
3. Pathology : Disease
4. Engineer : Site.

Answer: (b)

152. WRIST : WATCH ::

1. Buckle : Belt
2. Shoes : Socks
3. Neck : Chain
4. Cuff : Cufflinks.

Answer: (c)

153. CONSTELLATION : STAR ::

1. Center : Circle
2. Earth : Moon
3. Rain : Water
4. Archipelago : Islands.

Answer: (b)

154. Directions (Questions 154-156): In each of these questions, choose the meaning of the idioms and phrases.

Stand on ceremony:

1. Casual approach
2. Act with reserve
3. Lead from front
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

155. Show a clean pair of heels:

1. To run away
2. To confront
3. Obsessed with cleanliness
4. Ready to serve.

Answer: (a)

156. The gift of the gab:

1. Beyond control
2. To blunder
3. A talent for speaking
4. Lovable.

Answer: (c)

157. Directions (Question 157-159): Choose the word that is similar in meaning to the word given.

INUNDATE:

1. Invite
2. To flood
3. Immediate
4. Fragile.

Answer: (b)

158. QUIBBLE:

1. Surrender
2. Play
3. Petty Objection
4. Fidget.

Answer: (c)

159. ZANY:

1. Imitator
2. Intelligent
3. Thinker
4. Enthusiastic.

Answer: (a)

160. Directions (Question 160-162): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word given.

PROBITY:

1. Trust
2. Deception
3. Permit
4. Support.

Answer: (b)

161. INTOLERABLE:

1. Extreme
2. Offensive
3. Bearable
4. Impossible.

Answer: (c)

162. LUSTROUS:

1. Slippery
2. Bright
3. Lopsided
4. Dreary.

Answer: (d)

163. Directions (Questions 163-165): Fill in the blank(s) with appropriate pronoun(s).

Ritu has eaten her lunch already, but I am saving ………………. until later.

1. her
2. hers
3. mine
4. my.

Answer: (c)

164. We gave them ……….. telephone number, and they gave us ……………

1. our, theirs
2. ours, theirs
3. our, their
4. ours, their.

Answer: (a)

165. ……….. pen is broken. Can I borrow ………….

1. Mine, yours
2. My, yours
3. Your, mine
4. Yours, mine.

Answer: (b)

166. Directions (Questions 166-168): Complete the sentence with the most appropriate word from the given choices.

Outgoing and …………. by nature, Kavita became even more gregarious at the school party.

1. affable
2. reclusive
3. solitary
4. withdrawn.

Answer: (a)

167. The Health Ministry rejected the drug because the tests conducted for toxicity showed …………. result on the patients.

1. non-toxic
2. harmful
3. healthy
4. toxic.

Answer: (d)

168. The District Collector …………. the Minister about the flood situation.

1. appraised
2. acquainted
3. apprised
4. provided.

Answer: (c)

169. Directions (Questions 169-171): Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.

Don’t loiter …………. the street.

1. over
2. about
3. across
4. above.

Answer: (b)

170. He rules …………. a vast empire.

1. over
2. about
3. across
4. above.

Answer: (a)

171. The noise comes from …………. the river.

1. over
2. about
3. across
4. above.

Answer: (c)

172. Directions (Questions 172-175): Complete the sentence with the correct adjective from the given choices.

I have not heard the …………. news.

1. later
2. latter
3. latest
4. last.

Answer: (c)

173. He is …………. than I expected.

1. later
2. latter
3. latest
4. last.

Answer: (a)

174. The …………. chapters are lacking in interest.

1. later
2. latter
3. latest
4. last.

Answer: (b)

175. Ours is the …………. house in the street.

1. later
2. latter
3. latest
4. last.

Answer: (d)

176. The first cellular phone service in India was introduced by:

1. Bharti Airtel
2. Modi Telstra
3. Motorola
4. Reliance Telecommunications.

Answer: (b)

177. Rapid Action Force, a Central Armed Force was raised on October 7, 1992, to:

1. Suppress communal and inter-caste riots anywhere in India
2. Protect public property
3. Rescue human lives in the time of natural calamities
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

178. The first indigenously built submarine to join the Indian Navy was:

1. INS Vikrant
2. Shaktimaan
3. INS Shalki
4. Vajra.

Answer: (c)

179. The US whistle blower Edward Snowden has been granted asylum by:

1. China
2. Russia
3. Italy
4. Pakistan.

Answer: (b)

180. Who is known as the Iron Lady of Manipur?

1. Mary Kom
2. Binalakshami Nepram
3. Nalini Bala Devi
4. Irom Sharmila.

Answer: (d)

181. The first Indian to receive the Grammy Life Time Achievement award is:

1. A.R. Rehman
2. Satyajit Ray
3. Pandit Ravi Shankar
4. Anoushka Shankar.

Answer: (c)

182. Human hair is made of the same substance as:

1. Finger Nails
2. Teeth
3. Bones
4. Muscles.

Answer: (a)

183. The thyroid cartilage is commonly known as:

1. Widow’s peak
2. Adam’s apple
3. Newton’s apple
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

184. The smallest particle of an element which is capable of taking part in a chemical reaction is:

1. Molecule
2. Nucleus
3. Atom
4. Matter.

Answer: (c)

185. The year 2014 is observed by the United Nations as the International Year of:

1. Small Island Developing States
2. Crystallography.
3. Family Farming
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

186. India’s National Coral Reef Research Centre is located at:

1. Kavaratti
2. Port Blair
3. Minicoy
4. Calicut.

Answer: (b)

187. Kaziranga National Park, famous for one-horned rhinos is situated in:

1. Assam
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. West Bengal.

Answer: (a)

188. The planet with largest moon is:

1. Venus
2. Mars
3. Jupiter
4. Saturn.

Answer: (c)

189. Mariana Trench, the deepest part of the ocean lies in the:

1. Pacific Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean.

Answer: (a)

190. The imaginary lines drawn out on the global map, from poles to poles and perpendicular to the equator are called:

1. Latitudes
2. Tropics
3. Longitudes
4. Meridians.

Answer: (d)

191. Which is the only country in the world that won its independence because of a slave revolt?

1. America
2. South Africa
3. Haiti
4. Italy.

Answer: (c)

192. Which is the first state to achieve 100% sanitation in rural and urban households?

1. Kerala
2. Sikkim
3. Gujarat
4. Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: (b)

193. Which book was withdrawn by Penguin India from the Indian market, following an out-of-court settlement?

1. Hinduism: Beliefs & Practices
2. The Hindu Mind
3. Hindutva: Exploring the Idea of Hindu Nationalism
4. The Hindus: An Alternative History.

Answer: (d)

194. “2013 All India Football Federation (AIFF) Award for “The Player of the Year” was given to:

1. Jeje Lalpekhlua
2. Pratap Singh
3. Biplab Poddar
4. Sunil Chhetri.

Answer: (d)

195. Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?

1. Justice D.K. Jain
2. Justice A.R Lakshmanan
3. Justice A.P. Shah
4. Justice Santosh Hegde.

Answer: (c)

196. The Supreme Court dismissed the petition filed by the Swiss Firm Novartis for protection of patent of:

1. Cancer fighting drug
2. Diabetes fighting drug
3. AIDS fighting drug
4. Tuberculosis fighting drug.

Answer: (a)

197. Name the sport with which Calcutta Cup Trophy is associated.

1. Football
2. Rugby Union
3. Cricket
4. Badminton.

Answer: (b)

198. The fastest supercomputer in the world is:

1. K computers
2. Cray XK7
3. Sequoia
4. Tianhe-2.

Answer: (d)

199. Who was the first woman Chief Information Commissioner of India?

1. Puneet Arora
2. Kanchan Chaudhary
3. Deepak Sandhu
4. Harita Kaur Dayal.

Answer: (c)

200. The 61st National Film Award for the “Best Feature Film” was given to:

1. Shahid
2. Ship of Theseus
3. Fandry
4. Bhaag Milkha Bhaag.

Answer: (b)

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1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination