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DU LLM QUESTION PAPER 2015 | Click Here to Download PDF

DU LLM QUESTION PAPER, 2015

Duration of examination: 2 hours
Maximum marks: 700
Negative marking: 1

1.Which of the following is a correct pair?

1. Temple of Preah Vihear case – Res Judicata
2. Island of Palmas case – Estoppel
3. N. Administrative Tribunal case – Prescription
4. Chorzow Factory case – Nemo judex in causa sua.

Answer: (d)

2. Which one of the following zones was not specifically dealt with under four Geneva Conventions on Law of the Sea of 1958?

1. Contiguous Zone
2. High Sea
3. Exclusive Economic Zone
4. Territorial Sea.

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following instruments entitles an individual to file a petition before Human Rights Committee?

1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
3. First Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
4. Second Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.

Answer: (c)

4. What is the status of European Commission of Human Rights at present?

1. It exists and investigates the facts on the petition of a national from any European country
2. It exists, but investigates the facts only when any of the State Parties so requests
3. It exists, but its working has been put on hold at present
4. It was abolished and it does not exist.

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following international instruments provide for the abolition of death penalty?

1. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
2. First Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
3. Second Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
4. Optional Protocol to International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.

Answer: (c)

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6. The ILC Draft Code on Responsibility of States for Internationally Wrongful Acts of 2001 lays down …………………… as a form of reparation for the injury caused by internationally wrongful act.

1. Servitude
2. Retaliation
3. Satisfaction
4. Referendum.

Answer: (c)

7. Which of the following is not a principle under Article 2 of the United Nations Charter?

1. Principle of sovereign equality
2. Principle of permanent sovereignty over natural resources
3. Principle of resolving international disputes by peaceful means
4. Principle of refraining from the threat or use of force.

Answer: (b)

8. The landlocked States may have access to surplus of the allowable catch in the …………………….. of the Coastal State.

1. Contiguous Zone
2. Territorial Sea
3. Exclusive Economic Zone
4. Both Contiguous Zone and Exclusive Economic Zone.

Answer: (c)

9. Disputes arising out of contract shall be referred to municipal courts of state which grants concession. This is known as:

1. Absolute liability theory
2. Calvo Clause
3. Blackstonian doctrine
4. Rule of exhaustion of local remedies.

Answer: (b)

10. According to U.N. Convention on Law of the Sea 1982, the Contiguous Zone is established to exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringement of coastal state’s laws relating to:

1. Customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitation
2. Security, customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitation
3. Environment, Security, customs, fiscal and sanitation
4. Research, Security, customs, fiscal and sanitation.

Answer: (a)

11. The Legality of the “Uniting for Peace” Resolution of the General Assembly has been upheld by the International Court of Justice in:

1. Certain Expenses of the United Nations case
2. Conditions of Membership in the United Nations case
3. Advisory Opinion on the Legality of the Use of Nuclear Weapons Case
4. Nicaragua Case.

Answer: (a)

12. In maintaining international peace and security, the Security Council has:

1. exclusive responsibility
2. primary responsibility
3. both primary and exclusive responsibility
4. secondary responsibility.

Answer: (b)

13. The Agreement of 1994 Relating to the Implementation of Part XI of the U.N. Convention on Law of the Sea is related to:

1. Fishing at the High Seas
2. Contiguous zone
3. Exclusive economic zone
4. Seabed mining.

Answer: (d)

14. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a State?

1. Article 41
2. Article 40
3. Article 2(4)
4. Article 42.

Answer: (d)

15. A decision of the International Court of Justice has a binding effect on:

1. parties alone in that particular case
2. the States in similar situations
3. national Courts in similar circumstances
4. all the states.

Answer: (a)

16. “Which of the following constitutes patentable subject matter?

(I) a toxin – where such toxin is found on the skin of a previously unknown tree frog of the Amazon basin, which, when administered to patients with a certain cell cancer, causes a substantial reduction in the number of cancerous cells.

(II) an idea – where such idea is that there is a mathematical relation among (1) the exposure time of a tumor to a specified alpha-radiation emitting source, (2) the size of the tumor in cubic centimeters, and (3) the success rate of the procedure as determined by survival rate at five years

(III) kidney cells – where such cells are found in a certain variety of wild pigs

(IV) a new laparoscopic surgical technique – where such technique bears improved results in patient cure

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. All of the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

17. If a trademark is registered in India under the Trade Marks Act, 1999; how long will trademark protection last, assuming renewal?

1. 20 years from the date of the application
2. 28 years, plus a renewal term of an additional 28 years, for a total of 56 years
3. the life of the registrant plus 70 years
4. potentially forever; if there is continued commercial use.

Answer: (d)

18. “Note the following:

(I) the shape of light bulb, where the shape functions to make the light bulb more energy-efficient and also serves to identify the commercial source of the light bulb

(II) the term “Comfortable Shoes” for shoes that have just been introduced to the market

(III) the made-up term “Lappy” for a brand of laptops

Which of the following is likely to be granted registration under the present Trade Mark Act, 1999?”

1. I only
2. II only
3. I, II and III
4. None of I, II and III.

Answer: (d)

19. Which of the following can be patented under the Patents Act, 1970?

1. Micro organisms
2. Seeds
3. Business methods
4. Topography of integrated circuits.

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following is not copyrightable?

1. a false biography that defames its subject
2. a database of real phone numbers
3. the instruction booklet for a useful process
4. an opera that contains dramatic as well as musical elements.

Answer: (a)

21. Copyright could most clearly be claimed over which of the following?

1. a novel computer program
2. a two-word slogan for a chain of fitness centres
3. the shape of a doorknob
4. an idea on how one could establish contact with extra terrestrials.

Answer: (a)

22. Which of the following is an inchoate crime?

1. Public nuisance
2. Criminal attempt
3. Unlawful assembly
4. Riot.

Answer: (b)

23. According to Section 57 of Information Technology Act, 2000 a person aggrieved by an order made by the Controller or an adjudicating officer may prefer an appeal to:

1. Cyber Appellate Tribunal
2. High Court
3. Supreme Court
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

24. Which word under Section 90A of IT Act is substituted for digital signature?

1. Electronic signature
2. Internet signature
3. Computer signature
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

25. What is the appellate authority for the order against National Company Law Appellate Tribunal?

1. District Court
2. High Court
3. Supreme Court
4. Company Board Committee.

Answer: (c)

26. In which of the following cases, the doctrine of Indoor Management was laid down?

1. Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
2. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
3. Foss v. Harbottle
4. Royal British Bank v. Turquand.

Answer: (d)

27. In what way the doctrine of ultra vires is applied to the companies?

1. The activities should be confined within the objects as specified in the Memorandum of Association
2. The members are not allowed to file a suit on behalf of the company
3. Employees of the company must work during the office hours
4. A contract in which directors commit breach of fiduciary duty.

Answer: (a)

28. In which of the following cases corporate veil of the company has not been lifted by the court:

1. Gilford Motor Co. Ltd. v. Horne
2. Daimler Co. Ltd. v. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. Ltd.
3. Dinshaw Maneckjee Petit, Re
4. People Pleasure Park Co. v. Rohleder.

Answer: (d)

29. The most important feature of a ‘partnership at will’ is:

1. Sharing of losses
2. Registration not needed
3. Easy dissolubility
4. Utmost Transparency.

Answer: (c)

30. The Doctrine of Holding out is an application of the principle of:

1. Agency
2. Estoppel
3. Vicarious liability
4. Privity of contract.

Answer: (b)

31. When a minor, who was admitted to the benefits of Partnership becomes a partner upon attaining the age of majority, his personal liability commences from:

1. The date of his first admission to benefit of partnership
2. The date of majority, if he continues in partnership
3. The date fixed by all the partners
4. Only his assets or contributions to the partnership is liable.

Answer: (a)

32. A partner of an unregistered firm cannot sue:

1. For enforcing a right under the Partnership Act
2. For enforcing a right arising out of the partnership contract
3. For dissolution of Partnership Firm
4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

33. Which of the following cannot be claimed by a partner as a matter of right?

1. Right to take part in business
2. Right to have access to account books
3. Right to share profits
4. Right to receive remuneration.

Answer: (d)

34. A, though involved in a motor accident, remained physically unhurt but suffered Myalgic Encephalomyelitis, a psychiatric illness which he had earlier suffered but which was then in remission. He claimed damages from the driver of the motor car. Will he succeed?

1. No, this illness was not foreseeable in a person of normal health
2. No, he has not suffered any physical injury
3. Yes, he has suffered injuries by shock
4. Yes, though this illness was not foreseeable but foreseeability of some physical harm was there.

Answer: (d)

35. “Under the Consumer Protection Act 1986, ‘Complaint’ means an allegation of:

(i) an unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice

(ii) defective goods

(iii) deficiency in service

(iv) charging a price in excess of the price agreed

Select the correct answer:”

1. (i) and (iv)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (d)

36. Who among the following cannot be a complainant under the Consumer Protection Act 1986?

1. a consumer
2. customer’s friend
3. any voluntary consumer organisation
4. Central Government or any State Government.

Answer: (b)

37. A car mechanic was employed by his master, the defendant to repair cars. He repaired a car and then drove the car for a short distance to check whether he had repaired it properly or not. In the process he caused an accident injuring the plaintiff. The master is:

1. liable because it was his servant who had negligently caused the accident for which he was vicariously liable
2. not liable because the mechanic was supposed to repair only and as such driving by him was outside his course of employment
3. liable because driving was necessarily incidental to the duties of the mechanic since he was duty-bound to check by driving whether the repair he had done were correctly done or not
4. it depends solely on the discretion of the court in such cases to decide as to whether the master is liable or not.

Answer: (c)

38. In deciding the question of negligence by professionals, the classical statement of law which has been widely accepted as decisive of the standard of care required both of professionals generally and medical practitioners in particular is popularly called:

1. Stephen test
2. Frien test
3. Bolam test
4. Hyde test.

Answer: (c)

39. “Which of the following statements are not correct?

(1) Res ipsa loquitur is used for the purpose of fixation of liability based on strict liability

(2) Inference of negligence could properly be drawn in res ipsa loquitur

(3) Res ipsa loquitur dispenses with taking of evidence

(4) Res ipsa loquitur mostly favours the defendant

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”

1. (1), (2) and (3)
2. (1), (3) and (4)
3. (2), (3) and (4)
4. (1), (2) and (4).

Answer: (b)

40. In which of the following cases, Justice Kennedy’s limitation to the claims relating to nervous shock that “the shock must have been due to fear of immediate personal injury to oneself’ was rejected?

1. King v. Phillips, (1953) 1 QB 429
2. Dulieu v. White & Sons, (1921) 2 KB 669
3. Hambrook v. Stokes Brothers, (1925) 1 KB 141
4. McLoughlin v. O’Brien, (1983) 1 AC 410.

Answer: (c)

41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. In tort, the duties are imposed by law whereas in contract, the duties are undertaken by the parties themselves
2. In tort, the duty is towards the world at large but in contract, the duty is towards specific individual or individuals
3. In tort, the damages are liquidated but in contract, the damages are unliquidated
4. In tort, the damages are unliquidated but in contract, the damages are liquidated.

Answer: (c)

42. Any amount due from a person under an order made by a Consumer Forum, under the Consumer Protection Act 1986, can be recovered by:

1. Collector of the district in the same manner as arrears of land revenue
2. The Consumer Forum by an order of attachment of property
3. Collector of the district by an order of attachment of property
4. The Consumer Forum in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

Answer: (a)

43. Which one of the following disputes cannot be raised before the Consumer Forum?

1. A dispute relating to services by a government servant
2. A dispute relating to services provided by the medical professional
3. a dispute relating to banking service
4. A dispute relating to insurance services.

Answer: (a)

44. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The liability of master and servant is joint
2. The liability of master and servant is several
3. The liability of master and servant is sometimes joint and sometimes several depending on circumstances
4. The liability of master and servant is joint and several.

Answer: (d)

45. In which of the following cases, insulting words cannot form the basis of an action of defamation?

1. written in a post card
2. written in a group Whatsapp message
3. written in an inland letter
4. written on the notice board.

Answer: (c)

46. What was the rule laid down by the Privy Council in “Wagon Mound” case?

1. The defendant is liable only for that injury which could be reasonably foreseen as occurring due to defendant’s fault
2. The defendant is liable for all the injuries which occur as a direct consequence of defendant fault
3. The defendant is not liable, unless the plaintiff proves that he suffered injuries due to defendant’s negligence
4. The defendant is not liable if he proves that the plaintiff suffered injury owing to his contributory negligence.

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following acts invites tortious liability and is not saved by the Doctrine “Volenti Non fit Injuria”?

1. A surgeon amputates a limb of a patient to save his life
2. Injury is caused while play-fighting with the naked swords at a religious function
3. Injury is caused to a player in football match
4. Injury is caused while doing lawful acts under contract.

Answer: (b)

48. A had constructed a temporary structure on a land belonging to the Municipal Corporation in which he ran a flourishing restaurant that was frequented by elites of the town. The Municipal Corporation constructed a huge Public Toilet in the plot adjoining A’s famous restaurant. Does A have any remedy under the law of tort?

1. He has no remedy because he did not own the plot
2. He has remedy to get the Municipal Corporations’ action stopped as it constituted a nuisance
3. He had the freedom to hedge the restaurant by erecting screens and boards
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

49. Injuria Sine Damnum relates to cases where there is:

1. An invasion of an absolute private right
2. An invasion of a public right
3. A violation of a legal right
4. A legally authorized act resulting in injury.

Answer: (c)

50. X wants to purchase Y’s car and drives it to test it with Y seated by his side. Because of X’s negligence an accident occurs and “Z” is injured. Z sues Y for damages. In this case:

1. Y is not liable as X was driving the car for his own purpose
2. Y is not liable as X was not the servant of Y
3. Y is liable because he had not abandoned his right and duty to control the way in which the car was driven
4. Y is liable because X was driving the car for Y’s purpose.

Answer: (c)

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51. Owing to the negligence of the defendant railway company, the plaintiff and his family were made to get down at the wrong railway station. No accommodation was provided. As a result, the plaintiff’s wife caught cold. The plaintiff claimed damages for consequential loss on account of medical expenses incurred for her treatment and her loss due to pay-cut in office. The claim for damages will not succeed on grounds of:

1. Unreasonableness
2. Remoteness of damage
3. Plaintiff own over-sensitive health
4. Magnifying a small discomfort.

Answer: (b)

52. Which one of the following statements is correct:

1. In case of absolute privilege, action can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice
2. In matters of qualified privilege, no action lies for a defamatory statement even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously
3. In matters of absolute privilege, no action lies for a defamatory statement even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously
4. In matters of qualified privilege, action can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice.

Answer: (c)

53. A lawful act does not become unlawful even if it was done with evil motive. This was held in:

1. Ashby v. White
2. Mayor of Bradford Corpn. v. Pickles
3. Christie v. Devey
4. Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. v. Emmett.

Answer: (b)

54. The Supreme Court brought services provided by medical professionals within the ambit of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 in the case of:

1. Spring Meadows Hospital v. Harjol Ahluwalia
2. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha
3. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
4. Narasimha Rao v. G. Jayaprakasu.

Answer: (b)

55. An order under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

1. is an interlocutory order and no appeal lies against it
2. is an appealable order generally
3. is an appealable order but with the leave of the court only
4. may be appealable depending upon the sole discretion of the court.

Answer: (a)

56. Under Hindu law, in relation to the children of void marriages:

1. a court declaration is necessary to confer a status of legitimacy
2. a court declaration is not necessary to confer a status of legitimacy
3. such a child becomes legitimate after reaching the age of 18 years
4. such a child cannot become legitimate.

Answer: (b)

57. Under Hindu law, if a minor marries without the consent of the parents/guardian, the marriage would be:

1. Invalid
2. Void
3. Valid
4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

58. “Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Codes given below:

List I

(A) Marriage between parties within degrees of prohibited relationship

(B) Impotency

(C) Marriage between, two parties who are sapindas of each other

(D) Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by some person other than the petitioner

List II

1. Voidable
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. Void

Codes:”

1. (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(3), (D)-(4)
2. (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(1), (D)-(4)
3. (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)
4. (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3).

Answer: (c)

59. Fine prescribed under Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for child marriage has been enhanced by the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 from one thousand rupees to:

1. Ten thousand rupees
2. Fifteen thousand rupees
3. Fifty thousand rupees
4. One lakh rupees.

Answer: (d)

60. ‘Desertion’ within the purview of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:

1. a total repudiation of obligations of marriage
2. a partial repudiation of the obligations of marriage
3. a suspension of obligations of marriage
4. equivalent to judicial separation.

Answer: (a)

61. ‘A’, a Hindu boy, aged 15 years, marries ‘B’, a Hindu girl, aged 12 years under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The marriage was consummated when the girl had attained puberty (which she did at the age of 13). The girl at the age of 17:

1. can remarry without getting the marriage dissolved
2. cannot claim divorce
3. can seek repudiation of marriage
4. cannot seek repudiation of marriage.

Answer: (c)

62. Hindu Joint Family Property consists of:

1. All ancestral property
2. Property acquired with the aid of ancestral property
3. Separate property of a coparcener which is voluntarily thrown by him into the common stock to such an extent that it cannot be distinguished from Joint Family Property
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

63. “Assertion(A): A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law.

Reason(R): A child born out of void marriage is deemed as legitimate child of his parents.”

1. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
4. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

Answer: (b)

64. According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003, every appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within:

1. 45 days from the date of decree or order
2. 30 days from the date of decree or order
3. 60 days from the date of decree or order
4. 90 days from the date of decree or order.

Answer: (d)

65. G, a Hindu girl, aged 14 years, marries B, a Hindu boy, simply by exchange of garlands in a temple in Delhi. Later on, G finds that B is impotent. G leaves the matrimonial home and marries A. In the following situation:

1. G can be punished for bigamy
2. G cannot be punished for bigamy
3. G cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of impotency of B
4. G cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of improper solemnization of marriage.

Answer: (d)

66. After the passing of a decree for judicial separation, if one of the spouses dies intestate:

1. the other spouse can inherit the property of that spouse
2. the other spouse cannot inherit the property of that spouse
3. the other spouse can inherit the property of that spouse only with the consent of the children
4. only the children can inherit the property of that spouse.

Answer: (a)

67. Vijay and Saroj was a childless couple. In 1990, Vijay took in adoption his brother’s son Ajay. In 1992, a son was born to the couple. Vijay wants to give Ajay back to his brother. Can he do so?

1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes, if Ajay himself wants to return to his family of birth
4. Yes, with the permission of the court.

Answer: (b)

68. A guardian of a child can give the child in adoption under Section 9(4) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to:

1. anyone excluding himself
2. anyone including himself
3. anyone excluding himself and his family members
4. only his family members.

Answer: (b)

69. Under Section 18(2) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 a wife is entitled to separate residence and maintenance, if the husband is guilty of:

1. desertion
2. cruelty
3. conversion to another religion
4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

70. Shyam was granted divorce against his wife Jyoti on the ground of her adultery, Jyoti filed a petition for maintenance under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Mark the appropriate answer in the light of above facts.

1. Jyoti is guilty of adultery so she is not entitled to any maintenance
2. Granting of maintenance to Jyoti would amount to giving her advantage of her own wrong
3. Jyoti is entitled to maintenance under Section 25
4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

71. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that if the father is wholly indifferent to the matters of the minor, or is physically unable to take care of the minor for any reason whatsoever, the father can be considered to be absent within the meaning of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956?

1. Rosy Jacob v. Jacob Chakramakkal, AIR 1973 SC 2090
2. Gita Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India, AIR 1999 SC 1149
3. Vishwambhar v. Laxminarayana, AIR 2001 SC 2607
4. Manik Chand v. Ramchandra, AIR 1981 SC 519.

Answer: (b)

72. Muslim male A says in the presence of X and Y “I have married myself to B,” who is not present. On receiving this information B says, “I have accepted”. Which of the following is correct?

1. This constitutes a valid marriage
2. This does not constitute a valid marriage, as offer and acceptance must be made at the same time and in the same place
3. This does not constitute a valid marriage as presence of X and Y is insufficient and more persons are required
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

73. Muslim male cannot marry:

1. Wife’s mother
2. Sons’ wife
3. Foster sister
4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

74. Mark the incorrect statement:

1. A Shia male/female may contract a valid marriage with Sunni female/male
2. In Shia Law, at the time of marriage, the witnesses are not necessary
3. Two witnesses are mandatory for Sunnis at the time of marriage
4. Where consent to the marriage has not been obtained, consummation even against the will of women will validate the marriage.

Answer: (d)

75. If a Muslim woman is pregnant at the time of death of her husband, the period of Iddat is for:

1. 3 Months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer
2. 4 Months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer
3. 5 Months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer
4. 6 Months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer.

Answer: (b)

76. If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract need not be performed. The statement relates to:

1. substitute for a contractual party
2. the effect of novation, rescission and alteration of contract
3. unilateral alteration of a contract
4. a substitute contract without consideration.

Answer: (b)

77. Which one of the following is a contingent contract?

1. ‘A’ insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire
2. ‘A’ sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest
3. A guard is appointed at a swimming pool for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons
4. A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the lender when the borrower will be in funds.

Answer: (a)

78. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be:

1. void contract
2. voidable contract
3. illegal contract
4. quasi-contract.

Answer: (a)

79. Under the Indian Contract Act, a proposal when accepted becomes:

1. a promise under Section 2(b)
2. an agreement under Section 2(e)
3. a contract under Section 2(h)
4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

80. “X’ applied for the post of Principal of a local college and the governing body passed a resolution appointing him. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body privately informed him of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. ‘X’ claims damages. In this context, which one of the following propositions is correct?”

1. ‘X’ cannot claim damages as there was no communication
2. ‘X’ can claim damages as there was private communication of resolution
3. ‘X’ is not qualified for the post, so he cannot claim damages
4. the governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed, so ‘X’ can claim damages.

Answer: (a)

81. A proposal is revoked by:

1. communication of notice of revocation
2. failure of acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance
3. insanity of proposer when acceptor comes to know it before acceptance
4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

82. Exceptions to the doctrine of ‘privity of contract’ do not include:

1. beneficiaries under a charge
2. equitable mortgage
3. estoppel
4. marriage settlement.

Answer: (b)

83. Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act lays down a few exceptions, when agreement made without consideration is not valid. Which of the following is such an exception:

1. a written and registered agreement based on natural love and affection between near relatives
2. a written agreement whereby one party promises to compensate the other for past involuntary service
3. an oral agreement by one party to contract to another party to pay a time-barred debt
4. all of the above.

Answer: (a)

84. If minor is supplied with necessaries:

1. minor is personally liable
2. neither minor, nor his estate or property is liable
3. minor’s estate or property is liable
4. minor is liable on becoming major.

Answer: (c)

85. “The case of Mohori Bibi v. Dharmo Das Ghose:

(I) is the decision of Supreme Court of India regarding extraordinary contracts

(II) has laid down that in India a minor’s contract is void ab initio

(III) has laid down that a minor’s contract becomes valid when he attains majority

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?”

1. (I) and (III)
2. (III) alone
3. (I) and (II)
4. (II) alone.

Answer: (d)

86. Under Indian Contract Act, which one of the following does not amount to fraud?

1. Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
2. Active concealment of a fact
3. A false representation made without knowing it to be false
4. A promise made without any intention of performing it.

Answer: (c)

87. A master asks his servant to sell his bike to him at a price less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of:

1. coercion
2. fraud
3. mistake
4. undue influence.

Answer: (d)

88. Effect of frustration of contract is that:

1. promisor is excused from performance
2. contract dissolved automatically
3. contract becomes voidable at the option of promisor
4. both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

89. A is a tenant of B. A is interested in payment of property tax which B is bound by law to pay. A pays the tax on behalf of owner B because B was not willing to pay it. A is:

1. entitled to be reimbursed by B
2. not entitled to be reimbursed by B
3. entitled to demand an equal contribution from B
4. entitled to sell B’s property.

Answer: (a)

90. Under law of Contract, the primary aim of the law of damages is to:

1. punish the party who has committed the breach of contract
2. enrich the party who sustained the loss
3. place the party who sustained the loss in the same position as if the contract has been performed
4. all of the above.

Answer: (c)

91. Hadley v. Baxendale is a leading case on:

1. anticipatory breach
2. remoteness of damages
3. breach of implied term
4. all of the above.

Answer: (b)

92. A person, who sues for damages, under the law of contract:

1. has a duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract
2. has no duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract
3. can claim damages for the sum inclusive of the amount of loss due to his negligence
4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

93. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in a claim for damages for breach of contract?

1. Contract, breach, damages
2. Offer, no acceptance, damages
3. Acceptance, no consideration, damages
4. Contract, offer, damages.

Answer: (a)

94. Under the Indian Contract Act, an agreement by a heavily drunk person has the same consequence as that of:

1. A minor’s agreement
2. A gangster’s agreement
3. A monk’s agreement
4. A mistaken agreement.

Answer: (a)

95. A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a/an:

1. mortgagee
2. bailee
3. bailor
4. owner.

Answer: (b)

96. When the goods are capable of many purposes and the buyer does not mention his purpose to the seller:

1. The condition as to fitness can be implied
2. The condition as to fitness cannot be implied
3. The condition as to fitness can be implied depending upon the circumstances of each case
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

97. A contract of sale is a contract of sale by sample:

1. only when there is an express term in the contract to that effect
2. only when there is an implied term in the contract to that effect
3. when there is an express or implied term in the contract to the effect
4. irrespective of whether the contract contains a term for that effect or not.

Answer: (c)

98. Which of the conditions is to be satisfied, to avail the exception under section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

1. The buyer should make known to the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are required
2. The buyer should rely on the seller’s skill or judgment
3. The goods must be of a description which the seller supplies in course of his business
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

99. Baldry v. Marshall is a leading case relating to:

1. Fitness for buyer
2. Sale under a patent or trade name
3. Consent by fraud
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

100. In which of the following cases the transit comes to an end?

1. Where the buyer or his agent in that behalf obtains delivery of the goods before their arrival at the appointed destination
2. Where after the arrival of the goods at the appointed destination, the carrier or other bailee acknowledges to the buyer or his agent that he holds the goods on his behalf and continues in possession of them as bailee for the buyer or his agent
3. Where the carrier or other bailee wrongfully refuses to deliver the goods to the buyer or his agent in this behalf
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

101. ‘Good Faith’ within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code means:

1. an act done with due care and attention
2. an actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
3. an act, in fact, done honestly
4. an act done under religious belief.

Answer: (a)

102. X, with the intention to kill Y, supplies him a poisoned apple. Y discovers that the apple is poisoned and gives it to a minor child to eat. The child eats it and dies. In this case:

1. X is guilty of murder and Y is guilty of abetment of murder
2. X as well as Y is guilty of murder
3. Y is guilty of murder and X does not commit any offence
4. X is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of murder.

Answer: (d)

103. A attacks B to permanently disfigure his face; A could not do so, but causes B severe bodily pain for 15 days. A commits the offence of:

1. voluntarily causing grievous hurt
2. voluntarily causing hurt
3. attempt to murder
4. affray.

Answer: (b)

104. X takes a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the following is a complete defense if X is charged under Section 361 of the IPC for kidnapping on the ground that the girl was below the age of eighteen years when taken away:

1. the girl was maltreated by the guardians and X promised her a better life
2. the girl was a student in a college and could understand what was right or wrong for her
3. the girl looked more than 18 years of age
4. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

105. In cases of dishonest misappropriation, the initial possession of the property is:

1. dishonest
2. fraudulent
3. innocent
4. both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

106. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:

1. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
2. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

107. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of IPC is:

1. that whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons; Section 149 requires only two persons
2. that Section 149 is only a ‘rule of evidence’, whereas Section 34 creates a specific substantive offence
3. that Section 34 requires active participation in action, whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly
4. that Section 34 need not be joined with the principal offence, whereas Section 149 must be combined with the principal offence.

Answer: (c)

108. Abetment under Section 107 of the IPC can be constituted by:

1. instigation
2. conspiracy
3. intentional aid
4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

109. A invited his friend B to his house for dinner. While there were having dinner, B made certain unwanted comments about the married sister of A. Frustrated A started abusing B and also said that he is a womanizer and a cheat and has misappropriated huge funds of his employer. B sued A for defamation.

1. A is liable as he made derogatory statements about B
2. A is liable as he did not act as a good friend
3. A is not liable as he has not communicated these statements to anybody except B
4. A is not liable as he has made defamatory statements on being provoked by B himself.

Answer: (c)

110. Mark the incorrect statement(s).

1. An inquiry into an offence never ends in a conviction on acquittal. At the most it may result in discharge or commitment of a case for trial by Magistrate
2. Trial is a judicial process whereas investigation is an administrative process
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

111. In a bailable offence:

1. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
2. any conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court
3. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or by the court
4. only mild/nominal conditions can be imposed and that too by the court.

Answer: (c)

112. Under the scheme of Code of Criminal Procedure, non-cognizable offences are:

1. public wrongs
2. private wrongs
3. both public and private wrongs
4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

113. A summon issued by a Court must be in:

1. writing
2. duplicate
3. signed by the presiding officer of the Court or other officer as directed by the High Court
4. all the above.

Answer: (d)

114. A threatens to set a dog at Z, if Z goes along a path by which Z has a right to go. The dog is not really savage, but A causes Z to think so. Z gives up the attempt. A is guilty of:

1. wrongful confinement
2. wrongful restraint
3. both (a) and (b)
4. rightful confinement.

Answer: (b)

115. A bullock cart carrying a box of treasure is intercepted by ‘A’ with dishonest intention and moved the car in his direction. The offence of theft is committed by ‘A’ if and as soon as:

1. he seizes the bullock
2. he takes the box of treasure
3. he appropriates the contents of the box
4. the bullock is made to move by him in his direction.

Answer: (d)

116. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguished theft from extortion:

1. in theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion, it is not there
2. in extortion, there is dishonest intention whereas in theft it is not there
3. in theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is fraudulent intention
4. in theft, there is taking of property whereas in extortion there is delivery of property.

Answer: (d)

117. ‘R’ takes a loan from ‘M’ on the security of his bike. But when ‘M’ was away, ‘R’ took away the vehicle. The loan was not repaid. ‘R’ is guilty of:

1. no offence as the bike belonged to him
2. no offence as what he owes is more money that could be repaid
3. theft as he takes away the vehicle from the possession of ‘M’ with dishonest intention
4. dishonest misappropriation of property as he had no right to appropriate the same.

Answer: (c)

118. “Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using Codes given below:

List I (Topic)

(A) Insanity as a defence

(B) Common Intention

(C) Necessity

(D) Murder on grave and sudden Provocation

List II (Decided cases)

(1) Emperor v. Birendra Kumar Ghosh

(2) R. v. Mcnaughten

(3) State v. K.M. Nanavati

(4) R. v. Dudley and Stephens

(5) R. v. Govinda

Codes:”

1. (A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4)
2. (A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)
3. (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(5)
4. (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1).

Answer: (b)

119. Section 82 of the IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:

1. five years of age
2. eleven years of age
3. seven years of age
4. nine years of age.

Answer: (c)

120. ‘A’, is a surgeon. Knowing fully well, that except a miracle, nothing can save ‘X’, who is ailing from a deadly disease, operates on ‘X’, acting in good faith. However, as ac on sequence of the operation ‘X’ dies. A is guilty of:

1. ‘A’ is guilty of murder since he knew well that ‘X’ will not survive
2. ‘A’ is guilty of murder because the death is the direct consequence of the operation
3. ‘A’ is not guilty because he acted in good faith although knowing well that X may die
4. both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

121. Section 84 of IPC deals with the act of a person who has:

1. medical insanity
2. legal insanity
3. psychological insanity
4. All the above.

Answer: (b)

122. Under Section 98 of the IPC, the right of private defence is also available against a:

1. person of unsound mind
2. person who does not have maturity of understanding
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

123. In the Water Act, the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as water pollution prevention control area under:

1. Section 21
2. Section 23
3. Section 19
4. Section 24.

Answer: (c)

124. The Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of:

1. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
2. Indian Council for Environment Action v. Union of India
3. Jagannath v. Union of India
4. Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India.

Answer: (b)

125. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of Central Government in Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:

1. Section 38
2. Section 39
3. Section 18
4. Section 27.

Answer: (a)

126. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?

1. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed
3. He should be a citizen of India
4. He must have completed the age of 35 years.

Answer: (b)

127. Of the following under which provision is the superintendence, direction and control of the electoral roll vested in the Election Commission of India?

1. Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
2. Rule 25 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960
3. Article 324 of the Constitution of India
4. Para 13(1) of the Handbook of Electoral Registration Officer.

Answer: (c)

128. “What are the reasons due to which a person could be considered unfit for registration in the electoral roll?

(I) Being an Indian citizen

(II) Being of unsound mind and standing declared as such by a competent court

(III) Disqualified from voting for the time being under the provisions of any law relating to corrupt practices and other offences in connection with elections

(IV) Being less than 18 years of age

(V) Being ordinarily resident of a constituency”

1. None of these
2. (II) and (V)
3. (III) and (V)
4. (II), (III) and (IV).

Answer: (d)

129. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by:

1. Either Houses of Parliament
2. Only Rajya Sabha
3. Only Lok Sabha
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

130. When can President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?

1. When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha
2. Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved
3. In all circumstances
4. In no circumstances.

Answer: (a)

131. Which one of the following is not an All-India Service?

1. Indian Administrative Service
2. Indian Police Service
3. Indian Foreign Service
4. Indian Forest Service.

Answer: (c)

132. Article 343 of the Constitution declares Hindi as the:

1. National language
2. State language
3. Official language of the Union
4. Administrative language of the Union.

Answer: (c)

133. Law making is the duty of the Legislature. Bye-law making power granted to the Executive by the Legislature is called:

1. Colourable Legislation
2. Administrative legislation
3. Legislature cannot delegate its power
4. Delegated legislation.

Answer: (d)

134. In case of Armed Forces, the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the constitution are:

1. available only according to law made by Parliament
2. available to them only upon attaining seniority
3. available only at the discretion of President depending upon the circumstances
4. not available to them.

Answer: (a)

135. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the Principle of Sovereign Immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights?

1. Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab
2. Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
3. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
4. Neelabati Behra v. State of Orissa.

Answer: [Question Deleted]

136. In which of the following circumstances, preventive detention can be enforced as per Article 22 of the Constitution?

1. During civil riots
2. During communal violence
3. During emergency
4. During normal times.

Answer: (d)

137. Under which jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears dispute between the Government of India and one or more States?

1. Advisory jurisdiction
2. Appellate jurisdiction
3. Extraordinary jurisdiction
4. Original jurisdiction.

Answer: (d)

138. Autre fois Acquit principle is related to:

1. self-incrimination
2. ex-post facto law
3. retrospective law
4. double jeopardy.

Answer: (d)

139. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution authorizes the President of India to suspend the Fundamental Rights?

1. Article 359
2. Article 369
3. Article 379
4. Article 370.

Answer: (a)

140. As per the decision of the Supreme Court of India in the case of Selvi v. State of Karnataka, compulsory use of Narco-Analysis test, Brain Mapping and Polygraph test violates:

1. Article 20(3) of the Constitution
2. Article 19(c) of the Constitution
3. Article 22(d) of the Constitution
4. Article 23 of the Constitution.

Answer: (a)

141. The phrase ‘due process of law’ means:

1. the judges in India cannot question the fairness or validity of a law, if it is within the limits of the Constitution
2. judges in India can question the fairness or validity of an undue law if in their opinion it is unjust and in violation of natural law
3. judges in India can declare a law invalid simply because they don’t like it
4. black letter law.

Answer: (b)

142. Which one of the following is not a “Money Bill”?

1. A Bill, only containing provision dealing with the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. A Bill providing for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
3. A Bill, only containing provision dealing with the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India
4. A Bill, only containing provision dealing with the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Answer: (b)

143. Which Article of the Constitution makes common law applicable in India?

1. Article 368
2. Article 372A
3. Article 372
4. Article 360.

Answer: (c)

144. In which recent case the Supreme Court held that the Transgenders fall in the Category of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBs)?

1. NALSA v. UOI
2. Dashrath Singh Roop Singh Rathore v. State of Maharashtra
3. Arunesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

145. Parliament of India can make use of the Residuary powers for the purpose of making law:

1. at all times
2. only during war
3. only during State emergency
4. only during Financial emergency.

Answer: (a)

146. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the zonal Councils?

1. Prime Minister
2. Vice-President
3. Union Home Minister
4. President.

Answer: (c)

147. By the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, National Judicial Appointments Commission was introduced to replace the existing Collegium System for appointment of judges. Two eminent persons, nominated by a committee will be a part of the Commission. This Committee does not include:

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4. Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d)

148. The corruption charges against the civil servants of Central Government are probed by the:

1. Cabinet Secretariat
2. Prime Minister’s Office
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. Consultative Committees of different departments.

Answer: (c)

149. Which Article confers advisory or consultative jurisdiction on Supreme Court?

1. Article 131
2. Article 140
3. Article 142
4. Article 143.

Answer: (d)

150. The Right to Education Act makes it mandatory for educational institutions to reserve 25% seats for the children belonging to economically weaker sections. However, this Act is not applicable to:

1. Unaided Private Schools
2. Aided Private Schools
3. Aided or Un-aided Minority Schools
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

151. “Match List I (Jurists) with List II (Theory) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I (Jurist)

(A) Roscoe Pound

(B) Duguit

(C) Bentham

(D) Ihering

List II (Theory)

(1) Social Control

(2) Pleasure Pain

(3) Social Engineering

(4) Social Solidarity

Codes:”

1. (A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1)
2. (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)
3. (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)
4. (A)-(2), (B)-(3), (C)-(4), (D)-(1).

Answer: (c)

152. Mark the incorrect option:

1. Command – Bentham
2. Norms – Hart
3. Rules – Kelsen
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

153 Who among the following called Austin’s analytical school as imperative school?

1. Salmond
2. Allen
3. Holland
4. Gray.

Answer: (b)

154. The statement “There is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to:

1. Comte
2. Spencer
3. Duguit
4. Ehrlich.

Answer: (c)

155. In which case it was held that a bundle of notes found on the floor of a shop passed into the possession of the finder?

1. R v. Reley
2. Armory v. Delamirie
3. Hannah v. Peel
4. Ancona v. Rogers.

Answer: (b)

156. Which of the following objections have been raised against Savigny’s idea of Volksgeist?

1. It attempted to transplant nearly thousand years old Roman law in the alien climate of Europe
2. All laws would be directed only to officials and would be too complex to identify or handle
3. Classification of rights and duties do not indicate the existence of any internal structure
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

157. “Which of the following combination(s) is/are correct?

Theory of Corporate Personality – Propounder

(I) Realist – Gierke

(II) Symbolist – Savigny

(III) Fiction – Ihering”

1. (I), (II) and (III)
2. (I) and (III)
3. (II) and (III)
4. (I) alone.

Answer: (c)

158. Statutes are “sources of law … not parts of the law itself.” This statement is made by:

1. Austin
2. Savigny
3. Gray
4. Pound.

Answer: (c)

159. “It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man’s progress must be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify?

(1) Speculation about law

(2) Scientific investigation of legal problems

(3) Application of quantitative methods specially statistics to law

(4) Relationship between law, economy and society

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”

1. (1), (2) and (3)
2. (2), (3) and (4)
3. (1), (3) and (4)
4. (1), (2) and (4).

Answer: (b)

160. Which one of the following schools consider law as the means by which the individual’s will is harmonized with the general will of the community?

1. Sociological school
2. Philosophical school
3. Historical school
4. Analytical school.

Answer: (a)

161. Which theory of punishment was recognized by Manu?

1. Deterrent theory
2. Retributive theory
3. Preventive theory
4. Reformative theory.

Answer: (a)

162. “A judge is sworn to determine, not according to his own private judgment, but according to the known laws and customs of the land, not delegated to pronounce a new law, but to maintain and explain the old one. The above statement was given by:”

1. Bentham
2. Blackstone
3. Gray
4. Salmond.

Answer: (b)

163. The Pure Theory of Law is:

1. A theory of positive law in general
2. Experimental theory
3. A combination of the morals and philosophy of law
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

164. According to Prof. Rawls, the first priority rule is the:

1. Priority of liberty
2. Priority of welfare
3. Priority of justice
4. Priority of efficiency.

Answer: (a)

165. Who wrote the book “Taking Rights Seriously”?

1. Lon Fuller
2. Justice Holmes
3. L.A. Hart
4. Dworkin.

Answer: (d)

166. Who propounded the theory ‘Justice as Fairness’?

1. John Rawls
2. Robert Nozick
3. Ronald Dworkin
4. Stammler.

Answer: (a)

167. The expression ‘law’ in relation to Jurisprudence means:

1. law in utopic sense
2. positive law only
3. fundamental legal principles
4. theories of punishment.

Answer: (c)

168. Who propounded the theory that “The end of legislation is the greatest happiness of the greatest number”?

1. Jeremy Bentham
2. Karl Marx
3. Socrates
4. Montesquieu.

Answer: (a)

169. A distinction between static and progressive societies was drawn by:

1. Pound
2. Hart
3. Savigny
4. Maine.

Answer: (d)

170. The idea of social contract was conceived of by Rousseau as being:

1. Contracts as per the law
2. Sovereignty of the law
3. Law being a combination of rules
4. Contract as per certain social groups.

Answer: (b)

171. Which of the following is a source of international law as per Article 38(1) of the Statute of International Court of Justice?

1. Teachings of the most highly qualified publicists
2. International Declaration
3. General Assembly Resolutions
4. Equity.

Answer: (a)

172. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?

1. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries case – Straight baseline method for measuring breadth of territorial sea
2. North Sea Continental Shelf cases – Delimitation of continental shelf
3. Lotus Case – Rights of the land-locked states
4. Corfu Channel case – Right of innocent passage.

Answer: (c)

173. The binding force of international law is based on a fundamental principle known as pacta sunt servanda. Who said this?

1. Anzilotti
2. Austin
3. Kelsen
4. Grotius.

Answer: (a)

174. Waving concern for the urgency of conserving and prudently utilizing its natural resources, the government of the United States regards the natural resources of the subsoil and seabed of the continental shelf beneath the high seas but contiguous to the coasts of the United States as appertaining to the United States, subject to its jurisdiction and control. Who made this Proclamation?

1. Elihu Root
2. Hugo Grotius
3. Arvid Pardo
4. Harry S. Truman.

Answer: (d)

175. Who is commonly known as Father of Law of Nations?

1. Greig
2. Grotius
3. Kelsen
4. Hall.

Answer: (b)

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