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Update: 2021-11-01 06:22 GMT

Find Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Paper on Legal Bites. Candidates preparing for Haryana Judicial Services must solve Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Paper. Practice the Haryana Judiciary Prelims Mock Paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

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HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMS MOCK TEST 1 | Click Here to Download PDF

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMS MOCK TEST 1

No. of questions- 125
Maximum Marks: 500
Timing: 02 Hours

1. Carry forward rule in reservation was introduced through which constitutional amendment?

  1. 80th
  2. 81st
  3. 82nd
  4. 83rd
  5. 86th.

Answer: (b)

2. Scope of Article 356 was examined in the case of:

  1. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
  2. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  3. Minerva Mills ltd. v. Union of India
  4. U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

3. Which of the following relates to anti-defection law?

  1. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab
  2. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
  3. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
  4. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

4. How can a financial emergency be revoked?

  1. By subsequent Proclamation by the President
  2. After expiry of two months from the Proclamation if not approved by the Parliament within two months
  3. After expiry of three months from the Proclamation if not approved by the Parliament within three months
  4. After expiry of six months from the Proclamation if not approved by the Parliament within six months
  5. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (e)

5. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:

  1. Reference
  2. Review
  3. Revision
  4. Appeal to the Supreme Court
  5. Appeal to the High Court.

Answer: (c)

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6. The ‘doctrine of restitution’ is based upon the maxim:

  1. Actus incumbit onus probandi
  2. Actus curiae neminem gravabit
  3. Actus dei nemini facit injuriam
  4. Actus non-facit reum nisi mens sit rea
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

7. Exemption of certain woman from personal appearance in the court is provided under:

  1. Section 133 of Code of Civil Procedure
  2. Section 132 of Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Section 143 of Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Section 142 of Code of Civil Procedure
  5. Section 146 of Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (b)

8. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure?

  1. Numerous parties
  2. Same interest
  3. leave of the court
  4. Written permission of those who are being represented
  5. All of the above not required.

Answer: (d)

9. Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure an ambassador can be sued?

  1. Section 86
  2. Section 88
  3. Section 88A
  4. Section 89
  5. Section 90.

Answer: (a)

10. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:

  1. Order V Rule 9A, Code of Civil Procedure
  2. Order V Rule 9, Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Order IV Rule 7, Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Order VI Rule 6, Code of Civil Procedure
  5. Order VII Rule 9, Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (a)

11. The leading case of Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. is related to:

  1. General offer
  2. Counter offer
  3. Invitation to offer
  4. Lapsed offer
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

12. An executory consideration is:

  1. Past consideration
  2. Mutual exchange of promises, one being a consideration for other
  3. Present consideration
  4. Reciprocal promise
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

13. Union of India v. Maddala Thathiah is an illustration, where the tender was in the form of:

  1. Public offer
  2. Standing offer
  3. Specific offer
  4. General offer
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

14. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes provisions for ‘Notional Partition’?

  1. Section 14
  2. Section 10
  3. Section 6
  4. Section 18
  5. Section 19.

Answer: (c)

15. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the:

  1. Hindu Code Bill
  2. PEPSU Appropriation Bill
  3. Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
  4. Dowry Prohibition Bill
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

16. The Parliament’s exclusive power for giving effect to international agreements is enumerated in the:

  1. Article 254
  2. Article 252
  3. Article 253
  4. Article 244
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

17. Grants-in-aid given to States are meant:

  1. To show favour to backward states
  2. For use in centrally sponsored schemes
  3. To cover gaps on revenue account so that States can undertake beneficial activities
  4. For funding the state plan
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

18. No evidence is required to be pleaded in:

  1. Written statement
  2. Writ petition
  3. Counter affidavit
  4. Only (a) and (b)
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (e)

19. Pleading’ can be altered or amended under:

  1. Order VI, Rule 9 of Code of Civil Procedure
  2. Order VI, Rule 10 of Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Order VI, Rule 16 of Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Order VI, Rule 17 of Code of Civil Procedure
  5. Order VI, Rule 18 of Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (d)

20. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that postage, where chargeable on a notice, summons or letter issued under this Code and forwarded by post, and the fee for registering the same, shall be paid within a time to be fixed before the communication is made?

  1. Section 141
  2. Section 142
  3. Section 143
  4. Section 144
  5. Section 151.

Answer: (c)

21. Which of the following order, a Court may pass under Order IX, Rule 3 of Code of Civil Procedure in a suit where neither plaintiff nor defendant appears on fixed day of hearing?

  1. Decree
  2. Dismissal of Suit
  3. Imposition of Costs
  4. Adjournment sine-die
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

22. Order XII, Rule 8 of Code of Civil Procedure pertains to:

  1. Notice to admit fact(s)
  2. Notice to admit document(s)
  3. Notice to produce document(s)
  4. Only (a) and (b)
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (c)

23. Plea bargaining is provided under which part of the Code of Criminal Procedure:

  1. Chapter XIX
  2. Chapter XX
  3. Chapter XXA
  4. Chapter XXIA
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

24. Legal Aid to the accused at the State expense, is a provision of law under the ……………………………. Of Code of Criminal Procedure.

  1. Section 301
  2. Section 302
  3. Section 303
  4. Section 304
  5. Section 305.

Answer: (d)

25. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court laid down the principles of granting Anticipatory Bail?

  1. Gurbaksh Singh v. State of Punjab
  2. Indira Gandhi v. Delhi Administration
  3. Maneka Gandhi v. Delhi Administration
  4. Lalu Yadav v. State of Bihar
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

26. Essential requirements of Muslim marriage are:

  1. Ijab
  2. Qabul
  3. Both ijab and qabul
  4. Either ijab or qabul
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

27. Under Hindu Marriage Act, a divorced wife is entitled to maintenance from her husband till:

  1. She remarries
  2. Her son becomes major
  3. She is employed
  4. Her death
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

28. Sunni law provides that:

  1. Marriage must be performed before one witness
  2. Marriage must be performed before two witnesses
  3. Marriage must be performed before one male & one female witness
  4. Marriage must be performed before two male & two female witnesses
  5. For the marriage witnesses are not necessary.

Answer: (b)

29. Money Bills can be introduced in the State legislature with the prior consent of the:

  1. President
  2. Governor
  3. Speaker
  4. Chief Minister
  5. Any of the above.

Answer: (b)

30. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended:

  1. Thrice
  2. Twice
  3. Once
  4. Four times
  5. Five times.

Answer: (c)

31. By which Constitutional Amendment the provision of Privy Purse was abolished?

  1. 24th Constitutional Amendment
  2. 25th Constitutional Amendment
  3. 26th Constitutional Amendment
  4. 44th Constitutional Amendment
  5. 46th Constitutional Amendment.

Answer: (c)

32. Which of the following groups take/takes part in the election of the President of India?

  1. All members of Parliament
  2. All Members of State Legislative Assemblies
  3. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
  4. Elected members of Parliament
  5. Only (c) and (d).

Answer: (e)

33. The list of witnesses, after settlement of issues, must be filed within:

  1. Fifteen days
  2. Thirty days
  3. Forty five days
  4. Sixty days
  5. Ninety days.

Answer: (a)

34. Under proviso to sub-rule (1) of Order 17 of Code of Civil Procedure, the maximum adjournments can be granted, are:

  1. Five
  2. Four
  3. Three
  4. Two
  5. Six.

Answer: (c)

35. A ‘Garnishee order’ under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to:

  1. Judgment debtor
  2. Judgment debtor’s creditor
  3. Decree holder
  4. Judgment debtor’s debtor
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

36. An order of injunction made under Order XXXIX if not obeyed:

  1. Is not executable
  2. Is executable by detention of the judgement debtor in civil in civil prison or by attachment of his property
  3. Is executable by filing a application under Order XXI of Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Is executable by filing a fresh suit
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

37. A “consideration” is:

  1. Only in the future
  2. Only in the present
  3. Only in the past
  4. In past, present or future
  5. Only (b) and (c).

Answer: (d)

38. A calls up B and asks “Will you sell me your house? SMS me the lowest cash price.” B’s reply by SMS was “Lowest cash price for my house is rupees 1 crore.” A, immediately sent another SMS to B stating “I agree to buy your house for rupees 1 crore, as asked by you.” B did not respond and subsequently sold the house to C. B’s SMS to A was:

  1. An offer
  2. An acceptance
  3. An invitation to receive offer
  4. Counter offer
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

39. Which of the following is a leading case on the point of communication of offer:

  1. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
  2. Balfour v. Balfour
  3. Taylor v. Portington
  4. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

40. A marriage forbidden by reason of affinity is:

  1. Irregular
  2. Valid
  3. Void
  4. Voidable
  5. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (c)

41. When two persons are the descendents of a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by:

  1. Half blood
  2. Full blood
  3. Uterine blood
  4. Either (a) or (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

42. “‘Sapinda relationship’ has been defined under:”

  1. Section 3(b) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  2. Section 3(d) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  3. Section 3(f) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  4. Section 3(g) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

43. Conditions for a Hindu marriage have been prescribed under:

  1. Section 4 of Hindu Marriage Act
  2. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act
  3. Section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act
  4. Section 7 of Hindu Marriage Act
  5. Section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act.

Answer: (b)

44. In cases of adoption of a daughter by a male, the adoptive father should be at least ___ years older than the girl to be adopted.

  1. 18 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 21 years
  4. 12 years
  5. 16 years.

Answer: (c)

45. 93rd amendment of the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. Right to education
  2. Right in respect of physically handicapped persons in the service under the State
  3. Reservation in the matters of promotion in the service under the State in favour of other backward classes
  4. Reservation for admission in Central educational institutions
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

46. By which one of the following amendment Sikkim was included in the States of India?

  1. 36th Amendment
  2. 35th Amendment
  3. 7th Amendment
  4. 5th Amendment
  5. 20th Amendment.

Answer: (a)

47. Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 describes the offence of:

  1. Using criminal force to any woman, intending to outrage her modesty
  2. Using criminal force in attempting to commit theft
  3. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship
  4. Kidnapping from India
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

48. Acid Attack is an offence as mentioned in:

  1. Section 326
  2. Section 320
  3. Section 326A
  4. Section 354
  5. Section 356.

Answer: (c)

49. Maximum Punishment for Gang-Rape und 376D of Indian Penal Code is:

  1. 10 years
  2. 20 years
  3. Imprisonment for Life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life
  4. Punishment with Death
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

50. Under section 198 of Code of Criminal Procedure the court can take cognizance of any offence laid down under section 497 and 498 of the Indian Penal Code on the complaint of:

  1. Husband of the woman
  2. Father of the woman
  3. Mother of the woman
  4. Any of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

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51. Charge can be altered at any time:

  1. Before taking cognizance
  2. Before framing of charge
  3. Before taking evidence and not afterwards
  4. Before pronouncement of judgment
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

52. A Magistrate, under Section 259 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has the power to convert summons-cases to warrant-cases relating to offence punishable for a term exceeding:

  1. Six months
  2. Three months
  3. One year
  4. Nine months
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

53. The maximum term of imprisonment in a summary trial is:

  1. Three months
  2. Six months
  3. One month
  4. One year
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

54. Under the Indian Contract Act, a contract by an intoxicated person is:

  1. Void
  2. Voidable
  3. Invalid
  4. Valid
  5. Valid and enforceable.

Answer: (b)

55. A minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries. In such a case:

  1. He is liable to return the necessaries
  2. He is liable to pay
  3. His estate is liable to pay
  4. His guardian is liable to pay
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

56. Which of the following is not included in the expression “Court” under section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act?

  1. Civil Judges
  2. Persons legally authorized to take evidence
  3. Arbitrators
  4. Only (b) and (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

57. What is correct as regards the admissibility of self-regarding statements?

  1. Self-harming statement is admissible but self-serving statement is generally not acceptable
  2. Self-serving statement is admissible but a self-harming statement is generally not admissible
  3. Self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally admissible
  4. Self-serving and self-harming statements both are generally inadmissible
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

58. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact:

  1. Must be legally relevant
  2. Must be logically relevant
  3. Must be legally and logically relevant
  4. Only (a) and (b)
  5. Must be legally and logically relevant and admissible.

Answer: (a)

59. The Doctrine of ‘Holding Out’ is mentioned in:

  1. Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act
  2. Section 28 of the Indian Partnership Act
  3. Section 29 of the Indian Partnership Act
  4. Section 39 of the Indian Partnership Act
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

60. Under Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the liability of the partners for the acts of the firm is:

  1. Joint and Several
  2. Several
  3. Joint or Several
  4. Joint
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

61. The rights of unpaid seller have been listed in:

  1. Section 45
  2. Section 46
  3. Section 47
  4. Section 49
  5. Section 50.

Answer: (b)

62. Section 57 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with:

  1. Suit for price
  2. Suit for damages for non-delivery
  3. Suit for damages for non-acceptance
  4. Suit for return of goods
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

63. Baldry v. Marshall is a leading case relating to:

  1. Fitness for buyer
  2. Sale under a patent or trade name
  3. Consent by fraud
  4. Auction sale
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

  1. In which of the following cases, a partner may cease to be a partner without the dissolution of the firm?
  • Retirement
  • Insolvency
  • Death
  • Only (a) and (c)
  • All of the above.

Answer: (e)

65. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?

  1. Judicial review – British Practice
  2. Concurrent List – Australian Constitution
  3. Directive Principles – Irish Constitution
  4. Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

66. The Constitution does not guarantee the following privilege to the President of India:

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any court during his term of office
  2. No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office
  3. The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in exercise of those powers and duties
  4. The President cannot be brought under review by any designated court for the investigation of a charge under article 61
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

67. A’ pulled an earring away from a woman’s ear and thereby tore and wounded her ear. ‘A is guilty of:

  1. Extortion
  2. Mischief
  3. Misappropriation
  4. Robbery
  5. Both (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

68. Cheating by personation is punishable with imprisonment upto:

  1. Seven years
  2. Three years
  3. Five years
  4. Two years
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

69. What punishment is provided for Dowry death?

  1. Not less than three years
  2. Not less than five years
  3. Not less than seven years and in rare circumstances may extend to death sentence
  4. Not less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

70. An offence of criminal intimidation involves:

  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Affray
  4. Threat
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

71. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus in violation of section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act as to the requirement of age, shall be:

  1. Valid
  2. Invalid
  3. Voidable
  4. Void
  5. Irregular.

Answer: (a)

72. Registration of a Hindu Marriage has been provided under:

  1. Section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act
  2. Section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act
  3. Section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act
  4. Section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act
  5. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act.

Answer: (c)

73. As per the Muslim Law, a gift is called:

  1. Hanafi
  2. Hiba
  3. Mahr
  4. Wasiyat
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

74. Motive, preparation and conduct are relevant under:

  1. Section 6 of the Evidence Act
  2. Section 7 of the Evidence Act
  3. Section 8 of the Evidence Act
  4. Section 9 of the Evidence Act
  5. Section 19 of the Evidence Act.

Answer: (c)

75. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant under:

  1. Section 6 of the Evidence Act
  2. Section 7 of the Evidence Act
  3. Section 8 of the Evidence Act
  4. Section 9 of the Evidence Act
  5. Section 29 of the Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

76. Who was the first Indian to receive a Nobel Prize?

  1. C.V. Raman
  2. Hargobind Khurana
  3. Mother Teresa
  4. Rabindranath Tagore
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

77. Which section of Registration Act, 1908 makes it compulsory to affix passport size photographs and fingerprints upon the documents to be registered?

  1. Section 16A
  2. Section 23A
  3. Section 32A
  4. Section 79A
  5. Section 80.

Answer: (c)

78. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the editor of:

  1. Samvad Kaumudi
  2. Navashakti
  3. Yugantar
  4. Vande Mataram
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

79. The maxim “actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:

  1. Prohibited act constitutes an offence
  2. Guilty intention of accused constitutes an offence
  3. Prohibited act followed by guilty intention constitutes an offence
  4. Neither guilty intention alone nor the prohibited act alone constitutes an offence
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

80. The minimum duration of imprisonment provided for an offence under the Indian Penal Code is imprisonment for:

  1. Twenty-four hours under Section 511
  2. Twenty-four hours under Section 510
  3. Sentence of 20 hours under Section 510
  4. Sentence of imprisonment till rising of the court under Section 511
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

81. One Nautical Mile is equal to:

  1. 1005 Meters
  2. 1250 Meters
  3. 1575 Meters
  4. 1852 Meters
  5. 1862 Meters.

Answer: (d)

82. Conspiracy evidence is provided for in which section of the Evidence Act:

  1. Section 11 of the Act
  2. Section 10 of the Act
  3. Section 9 of the Act
  4. Section 8 of the Act
  5. Section 7 of the Act.

Answer: (d)

83. Which of the following is relevant and may be received in evidence?

  1. Tape recording
  2. Dog-tracking
  3. DNA test
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

84. Which section of the Evidence Act lay down rules regarding relevant facts when the right or custom is in question?

  1. Section 12 of the Act
  2. Section 13 of the Act
  3. Section 14 of the Act
  4. Section 15 of the Act
  5. Section 16 of the Act.

Answer: (b)

85. All admissions are confessions but all confessions are not admissions.

  1. Statement is correct
  2. Statement is incorrect
  3. Statement is partly correct and partly incorrect
  4. Depending on the statement
  5. Decided by court.

Answer: (b)

86. Madhubani a style of folk painting is popular in which of the following states in India?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Bihar
  5. Orissa.

Answer: (d)

87. Which section of the Indian Penal Code confers extra territorial operation?

  1. Section 10 & 11
  2. Section 14
  3. Section 11
  4. Section 3 & 4
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

88. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ is incorporated?

  1. Section 78
  2. Section 76
  3. Section 79
  4. Section 80
  5. Section 81.

Answer: (b)

89. The coming back of the property to the sharers is called:

  1. Radd
  2. Ijab
  3. Hiba bil Iwaz
  4. Qabza
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

90. Which section of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 lays down that all adoptions made after the Act came into operation are to be regulated and governed by the provisions of the Act?

  1. Section 2
  2. Section 5
  3. Section 7
  4. Section 10
  5. Section 12.

Answer: (b)

91. A male can adopt without the consent of her wife, in case:

  1. Has ceased to be a Hindu
  2. She is judicially separated from her husband
  3. Has a child from previous marriage
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

92. Under Section 24 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 ………………………….. will be the principal civil court of original jurisdiction.

  1. High Court
  2. District Court
  3. Family Court
  4. Supreme Court
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

93. Use of violence by a member of assembly consisting of 12 persons, in furtherance of their common object will constitute:

  1. Affray
  2. Assault
  3. Rioting
  4. Unlawful assembly
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

94. Section 84 of Indian Penal Code is based on:

  1. Proximity Rule
  2. Rule of common intention
  3. M’Naghten rule
  4. Transferred malice
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

95. The Court can take cognizance of an offence under Section 22 of Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, upon:

  1. A complaint in writing filed with the sanction of the Controller
  2. A report in writing of facts made by the Controller
  3. A complaint in writing filed with or without the sanction of the Controller
  4. Either (a) or (b)
  5. Neither (a) or (b).

Answer: (d)

96. According to Section 7 of the Registration Act, 1908, the State Government shall establish in every ……………………. an office to be styled as the office of the Registrar.

  1. Taluka
  2. District
  3. City
  4. Sub-District
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

97. Under Indian Evidence Act, persons who can make admissions are mentioned in:

  1. Section 18 of the Act
  2. Section 19 of the Act
  3. Section 20 of the Act
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

98. Under section 21 of Evidence Act:

  1. Admissions by persons expressly referred to by party to suit
  2. Admissions by party to the proceedings
  3. Proof of admissions against making them and by or on their behalf
  4. Facts bearing on question whether act was accidental or intentional
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

99. Confession recorded by a Magistrate on oath is:

  1. Admissible
  2. Inadmissible
  3. Admissible only to the extent of corroboration to the other evidence on record
  4. Admissible if corroborated by other evidence on record
  5. Both (a) and (c).

Answer: (b)

100. Parkinson’s disease relates to:

  1. Nervous System
  2. Bones
  3. Eyes
  4. Chest
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

101. Under Indian Penal Code, adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is punishable under:

  1. Section 227
  2. Section 272
  3. Section 273
  4. Section 277
  5. Section 279.

Answer: (b)

102. The distinction between culpable homicide and murder as defined in Indian Penal Code was pointed out in the decision of:

  1. R v. Beard
  2. R v. Tolson
  3. R v. Govinda
  4. R v. Prince
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

103. Who is the author of the book “A Passage to India”?

  1. Charles Dickens
  2. John Ruskin
  3. Daniel Defoe
  4. M. Forster
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

104. Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908 speaks about any document being presented for registration to the proper office within ………………… month(s) from its date of execution.

  1. Six
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. One
  5. Five.

Answer: (c)

105. The words “Satyamev Jayate” in the National Emblem is taken from:

  1. Upanishad
  2. Samveda
  3. Rigveda
  4. Ramayana
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

106. Statements under section 161 of Code of Criminal Procedure can be used to:

  1. Corroborate the statement in Court
  2. Contradict the statement in Court
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Cannot be utilised for any purpose
  5. Can be utilised for any purpose.

Answer: (b)

107. When is an arrested person entitled to meet an advocate of his choice?

  1. During interrogation
  2. After interrogation
  3. Throughout interrogation
  4. All the above are correct
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (a)

108. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 45 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. President of India
  2. Judicial Officers
  3. Members of Armed Forces
  4. Members of Parliament
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

109. When was the Farm Laws in news were promulgated as the ordinance?

  1. June 2020
  2. July 2020
  3. March 2020
  4. August 2020
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

110. This year The World Day against Child Labour is celebrated on June 12 on which theme?

  1. Covid-19: Generation Safety & Healthy
  2. Covid-19: Protect Children from Child Labour, now more than ever
  3. Covid-19: Sexual Exploitation and Abuse
  4. Covid-19: Child Labour in Hazardous Industries
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

111. Inflation means:

  1. Increase in the value of money
  2. Decrease in the value of money
  3. Increase in the demand of goods
  4. Decrease in the purchasing power of money
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

112. Blood Pressure is measured by:

  1. Viscometer
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Nanometer
  4. Pyrometer
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

113. Who among the following is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

  1. USA
  2. China
  3. Japan
  4. France
  5. Russia.

Answer: (c)

114. The National Education Policy 2020 replaces the National Education Policy of:

  1. 1996
  2. 1986
  3. 2000
  4. 1980
  5. 1987.

Answer: (b)

115. Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be:

  1. Six months
  2. Three months
  3. One year
  4. Nine months
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

116. The Supreme Court in Collector Land Acquisition, Anantnag vs. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC 1353 laid down the:

  1. Guiding principles for deciding an application under Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963
  2. Principles governing the nature of acknowledgement under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963
  3. Guiding principles for deciding an application under Section 7 of Limitation Act, 1963
  4. Principles governing the nature of acknowledgement under Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

117. Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the Court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made:

  1. On the day when the Court reopens
  2. On the day before the Court is closed
  3. Within 10 days after the Court reopens
  4. Within a reasonable time
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

118. Mere possession of title is:

  1. Enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
  2. Not enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
  3. Enough to maintain an action under Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
  4. Not enough to maintain an action under Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

119. Suit for dispossession of immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 should be brought:

  1. Within one year from dispossession
  2. Within six months from dispossession
  3. Within three months from dispossession
  4. Within three years from dispossession
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

120. In which case the Supreme Court has provided strict guidelines related to right the arrested persons:

  1. Sakiri Vasu case
  2. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
  3. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
  4. Both (a) and (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

121. What is the time limit prescribed within which claims and objections to attachment to be made under Code of Criminal Procedure?

  1. 6 months
  2. 60 days
  3. 1 year
  4. 3 years
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

122. Search-warrant’ is issued under Section of Code of Criminal Procedure?

  1. Section 93
  2. Section 95
  3. Section 100
  4. Section 105
  5. Section 107.

Answer: (a)

123. Section 164 Code of Criminal Procedure provides a special procedure for recording of:

  1. Confessions
  2. Statements made during the course of investigation
  3. Confessions as well as statements made during the course of investigation
  4. Examination of witnesses by police
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

124. Which one of the following cases is, related to defective investigation?

  1. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
  2. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
  3. Sakshi v. Union of India
  4. Dipesh Chandak v. Union of India
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

125. Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply in case of:

  1. Lunacy
  2. Poverty
  3. Minority
  4. Idiocy
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

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