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RAJASTHAN JUDICIARY PRELIMS 2011 QUESTION PAPER| Click Here to Download PDF

RAJASTHAN JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2011

Number of Questions- 120

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The principal offender must have the same guilty mind as that of the abettor
2. Abettor’s liability is dependent on the liability of the principal offender
3. Abettor’s and principal offenders maybe differently liable for different offences
4. If the abettor is innocent, the principal offender is also not liable.

Answer: (d)

2. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes theft from extortion?

1. In theft movable property must be dishonestly taken whereas in extortion there is the delivery of the thing extorted
2. In extortion, there must be dishonest intention whereas in theft the same is not necessary
3. Theft requires dishonest intention whereas extortion requires fraudulent intention
4. Theft is an offence against movable property whereas extortion is an offence against immovable property.

Answer: (a)

3. ‘A’ intentionally causes ‘Z’s death partly by illegally omitting to give ‘Z’ food and partly by beating ‘Z’, ‘A’ is liable for murder by virtue of which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code?

1. Section 36
2. Section 37
3. Section 34
4. Section 35.

Answer: (a)

4. ‘A’ signs his own name to a bill of exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was drawn another person of the same name ‘A’ has committed:

1. Forgery
2. Forgery for the purpose of cheating
3. Cheating by personation
4. Attempt to commit forgery.

Answer: (a)

5. ‘A’, a Spanish citizen, who was residing in Paris, instigated the commission of an offence which is consequence was committed in India. He:

1. Is liable as the offence was committed in India
2. Is liable since the Indian Penal Code also extends to extra-territorial acts
3. Can be held liable because the offence was to be committed in India
4. Cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory.

Answer: (a)

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6. Offence under Chapter IV of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 are cognizable:

1. But bailable
2. As well as non-cognizable
3. And compoundable
4. And not bailable.

Answer: (d)

7. The establishment of a Sessions Court as a special court to try offences under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 requires the concurrence of:

1. State government
2. Chief justice of the concerned High Court
3. District Judge of the concerned area
4. Advocate General of the State.

Answer: (b)

8. Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to:

1. The Sessions Court
2. The High Court
3. Home Minister
4. Chief Justice Magistrate.

Answer: (a)

9. Which one of the following is not a condition precedent to the release of an offender on probation under Section 4, Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?

1. Circumstances of the case
2. Nature of the offence
3. The character of the offender
4. Amount of damage caused by the offender.

Answer: (d)

10. Which one of the following is not theft of electricity?

1. Using electricity through a tampered meter
2. Tapping off any connection with underground cables
3. Using electricity for the purpose other than the authorised
4. Using electricity as per the licence.

Answer: (d)

11. Which one of the following Act, 2000 applies also to an offence committed outside of India?

1. When the accused is an Indian national only
2. When the accused is of any nationality
3. When the act or conduct constituting the offence involves a computer, computer system or computer network irrespective of its location
4. When the act or conduct constituting the offence involves a computer, computer system or computer network is located in India.

Answer: (d)

12. In a criminal case document are exhibited as which one of the following?

1. Ex-1 by one party and Ex-A-1 by the other
2. Ex-P-1 by one party and Ex-D-1 by the other
3. Ex-X-1 by one party and Ex-Y-1 by the other
4. Ex-M-1 by one party and Ex-N-1 by the other.

Answer: (b)

13. Select the right option based on the following Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): The principle of equality before the law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.

Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment, or circumstances.

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

14. Select the right option based on the following Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): Non-inclusion of Rajasthani language in the Eighth Schedule of the constitution does not violate Article 14.

Reason (R): Such policy matters have to be left of the state.

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (b)

15. Select the right option based on following Assertion-Reason:</p>

Assertion (A): The evidence of an accomplice requires to be accepted with a great degree of caution and scrutiny.

Reason (R): He hopes for pardon or has secured it and so favours the prosecution.

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (b)

16. “Select the right option based on following Assertion-Reason:</p>

Assertion (A): The offence of dishonor of cheque excludes mens rea.

Reason (R): It creates strict liability.

1. Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

17. Ban on smoking in public place is a violation of which one of following articles of the constitution?

1. Article 14
2. Article 20
3. Article 21
4. Article 25.

Answer: (c)

18. In which one of the following cases it was held that telephone tapping is an invasion of right to privacy?

1. People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
2. State of Maharashtra v. Murli Deora
3. Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh
4. X v. Hospital Z.

Answer: (a)

19. Which one out of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

1. Right to strike
2. Right against exploitation
3. Right to equality
4. Right to freedom of religion.

Answer: (a)

20. The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be enlarged by the:

1. Parliament by law
2. Parliament by resolution
3. President of India
4. President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (a)

21. When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence over a Central law on the same subject?

1. In no circumstances
2. If it was made before the Central Law
3. If it had got the President’s assent before the enactment of the Central Law
4. If consent of the President was taken before its introduction as a bill in the State legislature.

Answer: (c)

22. Who out of the following nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?

1. Prime Minister of India
2. President of India
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (c)

23. A legislation made by the state legislature is:

1. Subordinate legislation
2. Supreme legislation
3. Autonomous legislation
4. Delegated legislation.

Answer: (b)

24. Under section 10, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court during pendency of a suit before it:

1. Can entertain and try second suit
2. Cannot entertain and proceed to try second unit
3. Shall not proceed to try though may entertain second unit
4. Neither can entertain nor shall proceed for second suit.

Answer: (c)

25. While executing a decree of other State on reciprocity, a court:

1. Can execute the decree in the same manner as if it itself had passed it
2. Can decide all questions relating to the execution
3. Can provide any incidental and consequential relief
4. Cannot execute a decree relating to fine, charges, penalty, taxes, or arbitration award of that State.

Answer: (a)

26. A court to which decree has been transferred for execution cannot while executing:

1. Order attachment
2. Execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor
3. Send the decree for execution to another court
4. Order execution at the instance of the transferee of the decree.

Answer: (d)

27. The transferee of a decree:

1. May enforce the decree against the legal representatives too
2. May enforce the decree against the sureties available with the judgment debtor
3. May enforce the decree against the securities available with the judgment debtor
4. Shall hold the equities which the judgment debtor might have enforced against the original decree-holder.

Answer: (d)

28. When a commission has been issued under section 75, Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the commission, if not a Judge of Civil Court?

1. Can call any witness relating to the matter
2. Can determine the legality of questions asked during the conduct of proceedings by the commission
3. Can extend time and grant exemption from personal appearance
4. Cannot impose penalties of the fine and initiate contempt of court proceedings.

Answer: (d)

29. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 an ex-parte order and ex-parte decree may be set aside?

1. Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 10
2. Order 9, Rule 4 and Order 9, Rule 5
3. Order 9, Rule 7 and Order 9, Rule 13
4. Order 9, Rule 11 and Order 9, Rule 12.

Answer: (c)

30. Interpleader suit cannot be instituted:

1. For any property which relates to two persons but which is being held by a third person for the time being
2. For determining the relation between a property and the persons claiming it
3. For getting himself absolved from the liability to keep the property which is not being held by him
4. Where a suit is pending in which the rights of all parties can properly be decided.

Answer: (d)

31. Once revision is made before the court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, it:

1. Acts as a stay on the proceedings
2. Acts as a res-judicata on the issues
3. Acts as an injunction for immediate relief
4. Shall not operate as a stay of suit or other proceeding before the court except where such suit or proceeding is stayed by the court.

Answer: (d)

32. A caveat under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be lodged when any:

1. Suit is instituted
2. The proceeding is initiated or instituted
3. Suit is about to be instituted
4. Suit or proceeding is instituted or about to be instituted.

Answer: (d)

33. ‘A’ and ‘B’, two members of a three-member partnership firm, bring a suit for recovery of the debt due from ‘X’ to the firm, but their firm is not registered on the date of the institution of the suit. The suit:

1. Is maintainable with leave of the court
2. Is maintainable with the concurrence of ‘X’
3. Is liable to be rejected in view of section 69, Partnership Act
4. Will become maintainable after the original defect is cured by subsequent registration.

Answer: (c)

34. Which one of the following contracts is specifically enforceable?

1. ‘A’, an author, contracts with a publisher, to complete a literary work
2. ‘A’ contracts to sell and ‘B’ contracts to buy a residential building
3. ‘A’ contracts to marry ‘B’
4. ‘A’ contract by a guardian to purchase immovable property on behalf of a minor.

Answer: (b)

35. Crossword competition is:

1. Wagering agreement
2. Contingent contract
3. Illegal agreement
4. Valid agreement.

Answer: (b)

36. An advertisement of auction is:

1. Proposal
2. Mere statement
3. Invitation to offer
4. Standing offer.

Answer: (c)

37. In which one of the following, consideration is not required?

1. Contract of insurance
2. Contract of bailment
3. Contract of guarantee
4. Contract of service.

Answer: (b)

38. ‘A’ agrees to pay ‘B’ a sum of money if ‘B’ gets married to ‘C’. ‘C’ marries ‘D’. In such a situation, which one of the following statements, is correct?

1. The agreement will be effective when ‘C’ will divorce ‘D’
2. The performance of the agreement will be deemed impossible
3. ‘B’ is bound to get married to ‘C’ under the agreement
4. ‘A’ is bound to pay ‘B’ the agreed sum of money.

Answer: (b)

39. ‘A’ asked ‘B’, “I want to purchase your bike. What will be the cost”? ‘B’ replied that the cost will not be less than Rs. 20,000. ‘A’ was interested to purchase it for Rs. 20,000. Which one of the following statement is correct?

1. There was a proposal that was accepted
2. There was neither a proposal nor an acceptance
3. There was proposal but no acceptance
4. There was a counteroffer that was accepted.

Answer: (c)

40. An easement which, not being an easement of absolute necessity, comes into existence by presumed grant or operation of law is called:

1. Easement by prescription
2. Easement by local custom
3. Easement by necessity
4. Quasi-easement.

Answer: (d)

41. Neighbour principle was propounded by Lord Atkin in:

1. Donoghue v. Stevenson
2. Polemis case
3. Derry v. Peek
4. Rylands v. Fletcher.

Answer: (a)

42. ‘The rule of last opportunity’ was laid down in:

1. Thomas v. Quartermaine
2. Davies v. Mann
3. Smith v. Baker
4. Fardon v. Harcourt Rivington.

Answer: (b)

43. Which one of the following is defamatory?

1. Publishing a report of parliament for which the editor tendered an apology
2. Publishing a report of parliamentary proceedings showing the misconduct of a member present there
3. Publishing a report of judicial proceeding showing statement made by a witness
4. Publishing a false report in a newspaper that a minister was involved in a kidnapping case.

Answer: (d)

44. Joint tort-feasors may be held liable:

1. Jointly and severally for the whole damage
2. For damage caused by a person employed by any of them
3. For damage caused independently of their plan
4. For damage caused by stranger.

Answer: (a)

45. As a result of a collision between two buses a passenger in one of the buses died. The accident occurred due to the negligence of the drivers of both buses. In a suit by the legal representative of the deceased against owners of both the buses, which one of the following statements is legally sustainable?

1. Each owner of the buses is liable for the whole damage
2. The owners of the buses are not joint tort-feasors
3. Neither of the owners of the buses is liable as the defence of act of God applies
4. Each owner of the buses was liable for one-half of the damage.

Answer: (a)

46. Which one of the following did not emerge from the case of Donoghue v. Stevenson?

1. A manufacturer of products will be liable if he fails to take reasonable care to ensure that his products are reasonably safe
2. In order to successfully claim for negligence, the plaintiff does not need to have a contract with the defendant
3. Manufacturers have to pay damages to consumers whenever damage is caused by the products
4. The neighbour principle can be used to establish the existence of a duty of care in negligence.

Answer: (c)

47. Who cannot file an application for compensation under section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

1. The injured person
2. The owner of the property
3. The legal representative of the deceased
4. A public interested person.

Answer: (d)

48. If within thirty days the parties fail to appoint their arbitrators, or the arbitrators fail to appoint the third arbitrator, the arbitrator shall be appointed by the:

1. National Arbitration Council, New Delhi
2. District Judge of the Lord Court
3. State Legal Services Authority of the State Concerned
4. Chief Justice or a person/institution designated by him.

Answer: (d)

49. If any party to a proceeding before a revenue court does not appear on the date fixed for hearing, the revenue court may:

1. Hear the proceeding
2. Determine the case in his absence
3. Dismiss the case in default
4. Refer the dispute to arbitration.

Answer: (b)

50. Specific performance of contract is allowed where:

1. The plaintiff is not entitled to recover compensation
2. The defendant is incompetent to perform the contract
3. Compensation is not the adequate relief
4. The defendant has died.

Answer: (c)

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51. Under pious obligation a son is obliged to pay a debt contracted by his father:

1. Before partition
2. After partition
3. Either before or after partition
4. For immoral purpose before partition.

Answer: (a)

52. A Hindu woman aged twenty years adopts a Hindu boy aged twenty years. The adoption is:

1. Void
2. Voidable at the instance of the boy
3. Immoral and unenforceable
4. Valid, if taken with leave of court.

Answer: (a)

53. Which one of the following statement is not correct? Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to:

1. Jains
2. Buddhists
3. Sikhs
4. Persons belonging to scheduled tribe.

Answer: (d)

54. If a Hindu boy marries a Hindu girl of the same gotra under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage is:

1. Void
2. Voidable
3. Valid
4. Unenforceable under law.

Answer: (c)

55. Under Hindu Law a mother, in the absence of her son’s father, sells her minor son’s immovable property. The minor son, on attaining majority, can challenge this transaction:

1. On the ground of not taking permission from the court
2. As the transaction was not done by his father
3. As no such transaction can be done for minor son
4. But he will be unsuccessful because the transaction is valid.

Answer: (a)

56. Which one of the following is not correct? Under Hindu Law a person can be adopted if he is:

1. Hindu
2. Unmarried
3. Above fifteen years of age
4. Not already adopted.

Answer: (d)

57. Maina Bibi v. Choudhary Vakil Ahmed is related to:

1. Mehr
2. Guardianship
3. Maintenance
4. Wakf.

Answer: (a)

58. Which one of the following is not a ground for dissolution of a Muslim marriage under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?

1. Whereabouts of the husband is not known for four years
2. Option of puberty
3. Non-maintenance of the wife by the husband for two years
4. Non-payment of mehr.

Answer: (d)

59. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim?

1. Claim for arrears of rent
2. Provident fund payable after retirement
3. A share in partnership
4. A secured debt.

Answer: (d)

60. Which one of the following is an exception to the rule against perpetuity?

1. Permanent transfer for gift
2. Personal covenants
3. Pre-emption
4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

61. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a charge may be created by:

1. Acts of the parties
2. Process of law
3. Presumption
4. Acts of parties and process of law.

Answer: (d)

62. ‘A’ borrowed a sum of money from ‘B’. The last date for filing the suit falls on a Sunday. On Monday, the next day, ‘A’ gives a written acknowledgment to ‘B’. In this case:

1. ‘A’ Should file the suit on Monday
2. Section 18, Limitation Act, 1963 gives a circumstances
3. The suit is barred by limitation under all circumstances
4. The suit can be filed any time subject to the provisions of section 12, Limitation Act, 1963.

Answer: (b)

63. A permanent Lok Adalat shall take cognizance of any:

1. Matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law
2. Matter relating to an offence compoundable under any law
3. Public utility service related matter where the value of the property in dispute exceeds 10 lakh rupees
4. Matter referred to it by the District Judge.

Answer: (b)

64. An application for residential order shall be made by a victim of domestic violence before a:

1. Civil Judge (Senior Division)
2. Magistrate of the First Class
3. Family Court
4. Mediation Centre established by the High Court.

Answer: (b)

65. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a:

1. Substantive law
2. Procedural law
3. Combination of substantive law and procedural law
4. Directory law.

Answer: (b)

66. Which one of the following is not correct?

1. High courts should not pass interim orders which are likely to hamper the investigation
2. A Magistrate can under section 156(3), code of criminal procedure, 1973 send a complaint of non-cognizable offence to the police
3. The power of the Magistrate of the first class to take cognizance of the cognizable offence may be impaired by territorial restrictions
4. During the course of the investigation by the police, the question of cross-examination does not arise.

Answer: (c)

67. An accused can make an application for plea bargaining if and when he is alleged to have committed the offence:

1. Of Murder
2. Affecting socio-economic condition of the country
3. Theft
4. Affecting women or children below the age of 14 years.

Answer: (c)

68. When at the stage of framing of charge the sessions court feels that the case in not exclusively triable by it, it may:

1. Send the case to the Chief Judicial Magistrate for farming of the charge
2. Frame the charge and transfer the case to the Chief Judicial Magistrate/Magistrate of the first class
3. Frame the charge and transfer the case to a magistrate of the second class
4. Send the case to Lok Adalat.

Answer: (b)

69. The term ‘bail’ signifies the conditional release of an accused or arrested person by the:

1. Police during the investigation, but not by the magistrate during the inquiry
2. Magistrate during inquiry, but not by the court during trial
3. Court during the trial, but not during revision
4. Police Magistrate or court during investigation, enquiry or trial.

Answer: (d)

70. A memorandum of arrest of an arrested person is required to be signed and attested by one member of:

1. His family and one of his relatives
2. The locality and one of his relatives
3. Other locality and one member of his family
4. His family and one member of the locality, and countersigned by the arrested person.

Answer: (d)

71. An Executive Magistrate may act even ex-parte under Section 144, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if immediate prevention or speedy remedy is desirable:

1. To prevent obstruction, annoyance or injury to any lawfully employed person
2. To avoid danger to human life, health or safety
3. To avoid disturbance to public peace and tranquility, riot or affray
4. On anyone or all off the above grounds.

Answer: (d)

72. While exercising its inherent powers under section 482, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the High Court cannot:

1. Review its own Judgement
2. Do all the mentioned things
3. Convert itself into court of appeal when the legislature has not conferred a right to appeal to it
4. Grant police custody from Judicial Custody.

Answer: (b)

73. Habitual offender is one who:

1. Habitually commits offence
2. Habitually remains in company of habitual offenders
3. Deals with and gives asylum to habitual offenders
4. Commits offences mentioned in section 110 and against whom record of commission of more than two offences is available at the time of initiation of proceeding against him.

Answer: (d)

74. Who out to the following may investigate a cognizable case even without the order of the Magistrate?

1. Superintendent of Police
2. Deputy Inspector General of Police
3. Deputy Superintendent of Police
4. Incharge of Police Station.

Answer: (d)

75. ‘A’ is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched as the head of a mob. The cries of the mob are relevant as:

1. They are related to things said or done by the conspirators in reference to the common design
2. Explanation of the nature of the transaction
3. Explanatory of motive or preparation
4. Explanatory of occasion, cause or effects or facts.

Answer: (d)

76. The expression ‘Police Custody’ means and includes:

1. Control by the police over the accused directly
2. Control by the police directly as well as through third persons indirectly over the accused
3. Control over the accused indirectly through third persons
4. Some kind of surveillance and restrictions over the accused by Police or through third persons.

Answer: (d)

77. The evidentiary value of a retreated confession is that it:

1. Still remains an evidence
2. Remains evidence but a weak evidence
3. Becomes a corroborative evidence
4. Becomes ‘other evidence’ from ‘only evidence’.

Answer: (c)

78. ‘A’ prosecutes ‘B’ for adultery with ‘C’ who is ‘A’s’ wife. ‘B’ denies that ‘C’ is ‘A’s’ wife, But the court convicts ‘B’ for adultery. Thereafter, ‘C’ says that she was never ‘A’s’ wife. The statement is:

1. Irrelevant against ‘C’
2. Relevant against ‘B’
3. Nonrelevant against ‘B’ and ‘C’
4. Relevant against ‘C’.

Answer: (a)

79. Newspaper report about any matter is which one of the following kinds of evidence?

1. Hearsay
2. Circumstantial
3. Primary
4. Secondary.

Answer: (a)

80. Hostile witness is one who:

1. Does not tell the truth
2. Gives statements against the opposite party
3. Gives statement against the party who called him as a witness
4. Is not desirous to tell truth, and gives testimony against the party who called him as a witness in his favour.

Answer: (d)

81. A prostitute, suffering from communicable disease, has sexual intercourse with a man representing that she was free from any disease commits:

1. Unnatural offence
2. Hurt
3. Cheating
4. Mischief.

Answer: (b)

82. A hangman who hangs a prisoner pursuant to an order of a court is exempt from criminal liability under the Indian Penal Code under:

1. Section 75
2. Section 77
3. Section 78
4. Section 79.

Answer: (c)

83. ‘A’ knows that ‘B’ is suffering from a heart disease and also that if a blow is given to ‘B’ on his chest it is likely to cause his death. Knowing this, ‘A’ gives blow on ‘B’s’ chest causing ‘B’s’ death. ‘A’ is guilty of:

1. Murder
2. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
3. Grievous hurt
4. Causing death by rash or negligent act.

Answer: (a)

84. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Every culpable homicide is murder
2. Death caused by negligent act is murder
3. Every murder is culpable homicide
4. Death caused in course of quarrel is murder.

Answer: (c)

85. ‘अपकर्श‘ का विलोम शब्द क्या है :

1. उत्कर्ष
2. विकर्श
3. निरकर्ष
4. दुर्घर्श.

Answer: (a)

86. इनमे विदेषज शब्द है:

1. शिक्षा
2. रज्जु
3. सांस
4. जलेबी.

Answer: (d)

87. इनमे एक शब्द ‘सरस्वती‘ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:

1. गिरा
2. ईला
3. सविता
4. श्री.

Answer: (a)

88. इनमे से कौन–सा वाक्य ‘पूर्ण भूतकाल‘ का घोतक है?

1. मैं अपना काम कर रहा था
2. मैं तो कब का अपना काम कर चूका था
3. मैंने अपना काम किया
4. मैं आपके आने पर अपने काम मे लग गया.

Answer: (b)

89. ‘भारी मुसीबत मे भी कुछ अनिष्ट न होने‘ के लिए उपयुक्त मुहावरा है:

1. तीन तरेह करना
2. बाल बांका न होना
3. दाँत खट्टे करना
4. आसन डोलना.

Answer: (b)

90. ‘आच्छादन‘ शब्द मे उपसर्ग है:

1. आ:
2. आ
3. आछ
4. अ.

Answer: (b)

91. ‘ग्रामामत‘ शब्द का समास विच्छेद होगा:

1. ग्राम को गया हुआ
2. ग्राम को आया हुआ
3. ग्राम से गया हुआ
4. ग्राम मे आया हुआ.

Answer: (a)

92. ‘रसोत्पत्ति‘ शब्द संधि से बना है जिसका निर्माण इन वर्णो के मिलने से हुआ है:

1. उ + अ
2. आ + उ
3. ओ + उ
4. अ + उ.

Answer: (c)

93. इनमे से एक शब्द ‘रात‘ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है:

1. निशा
2. यामिनी
3. उर्मि
4. विभावरी.

Answer: (c)

94. ‘कृप्या आवश्यक कार्यवाही करें‘ टिप्पण के लिए अंग्रेजी मे लिखा जाता है:

1. Necessary action is needed
2. Please take action
3. Please take necessary action
4. Do the needful.

Answer: (c)

95. ‘Against Public Interest’ के लिए उपयुक्त हिंदी पद होगा:

1. जनता के लिए
2. लोकहित में
3. जनता के साथ’
4. लोक हित के प्रतिकूल.

Answer: (d)

96. इनमे एक वाक्य शुद्ध है:

1. सच सुनते ही उसका चेहरा उतर गया
2. जबर्दस्ती आप जो चाहे करें
3. सोरठा हिंदी का एक छंद है
4. मैंने एक साल तक आपकी प्रतीक्षा देखी.

Answer: (c)

97. विमति ( असहमति ) टिपण्णी के लिए अंग्रेजी मे उपयुक्त पद है:

1. No objection note
2. Objection note
3. Negative note
4. Note of dissent.

Answer: (d)

98. ‘तबेल की बला बंदर के सिर‘ लोकोक्ति का अर्थ:

1. दोशी कोई फसे कोई
2. दोशी को पहचानना
3. दोश स्वीकार
4. दोशी को खोजक.

Answer: (a)

99. साक्ष्य या गवाही के लिए अंग्रेजी का उपयुक्त शब्द है:

1. Estimate
2. Present
3. Evidence
4. Exempt.

Answer: (c)

100. अंग्रेजी के ‘SINE DIE’ पद के लिए हिंदी मे उपयुक्त पद है:

1. बंद करना
2. स्थगित
3. तिरस्त करना’
4. अनिश्चितकाल के लिए.

Answer: (d)

101. अंग्रेजी के Autonomous शब्द के लिए हिंदी का सही पद है:

1. स्वगत
2. स्वायत्त
3. स्वचालित
4. स्ववित्तपाणी.

Answer: (b)

102. ‘कानूनी प्रक्रिया‘ के लिए अंग्रेजी का उपयुक्त पद है:

1. Legal Process
2. Legal Notice
3. Legal Work
4. Legal Right.

Answer: (a)

103. …………….. you like to stay tonight?

1. Dare
2. Would
3. Need
4. Can.

Answer: (b)

104. She ………. be able to drive to school.

1. dare
2. need
3. can
4. will.

Answer: (d)

105. ………. you pass me the salt?

1. Could
2. Need
3. Dare
4. Ought.

Answer: (a)

106. I’m trying to phone her, but I can’t ……………

1. get up
2. get through
3. get on
4. get away.

Answer: (b)

107. The weather is ……………..

1. carrying on
2. closing down
3. clearing up
4. come round.

Answer: (c)

108. ………….. and see me any time.

1. Drop up
2. Drop doing
3. Do up
4. Drop in.

Answer: (d)

109. They ran past me and jumped into a car.

1. Past Perfect
2. Past Continuous
3. Past Simple
4. Present Simple.

Answer: (c)

110. I was standing outside the post office.

1. Present Continuous
2. Past Continuous
3. Past Simple
4. Past Perfect.

Answer: (b)

111. Note: Select the sentence with coordinating conjunction.

1. He held my hand lest I should fall
2. He is slow but he is honest
3. Rana will go if Hari goes
4. A book is a book although there is nothing in it.

Answer: (a)

112. Note: Select the sentence with subordinating conjunction.

1. Horses neigh and cats mew
2. I was annoyed still I kept quiet
3. He is slow but he is honest
4. He ran away because he was afraid.

Answer: (c)

113. Note: Mark the passive voice which is correct: The Principal read the report.

1. The principal is reading the report
2. The report was read by the principal
3. The report was had been read by the principal
4. The principal will not read the report.

Answer: (b)

114. Could we have ……………… coffee, please?

1. some
2. few
3. no
4. a few.

Answer: (a)

115. ……………….. the money goes into a special bank account.

1. Every
2. All
3. Each
4. Some.

Answer: (b)

116. The agent has asked ……………….. of his customers to give money.

1. every
2. a little
3. a few
4. each.

Answer: (d)

117. ………………… I get you a glass of water?

1. Dare
2. Need
3. Can
4. Would.

Answer: (c)

118. I may not be at home.

1. He said he might not be at home
2. He said I may not be at home
3. He said he could not be at home
4. He said he should not be at home.

Answer: (a)

119. I do not think I will buy another car.

1. She says she cannot buy another car
2. She says she will not buy another car
3. She says she would not think of going to buy a car
4. She says she does not think she will buy another car.

Answer: (d)

120. You can pay me cash or give me a cheque.

1. He told her, she could pay in cash or cheque
2. He told her she could pay him cash or give him a cheque
3. He told her she would pay him cash or give him a cheque
4. He told her she should not pay him cash or give him a cheque.

Answer: (b)

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