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U.P. Judiciary Prelims Paper 2023
Law Paper
1. Presumption as to the electronic record of five-year-old is
a) Presumption of Fact
b) Presumption of Law
c) Conclusive proof
d) Presumption of Fact and Law
2. Which Section of the CPC prohibits arrest or detention of woman in the execution of a decree of money?
a) Section 60
b) Section 55
c) Section 56
d) Section 59
3. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 45 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a) Members of armed forces
b) Members of Parliament
c) Judicial Officers
d) President of India
4. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code below the lists-
List-I
A. Interpretation Clause
B. When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant
C. Burden of Proof
D. Relevancy of facts forming parts of the same transaction
List-II
1. Section 6 Indian Evidence Act.
2. Section 105 Indian Evidence Act.
3. Section 11 Indian Evidence Act.
4. Section 3 Indian Evidence Act.
Code:
a) A-4, B-3, C-2,D-1
b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
5. Which one of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related with the 'Presumption as to electronic agreements'?
a) Section 85C
b) Section 81A
c) Section 88A
d) Section 85A
6. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List -I
A. Fraudulent transfer
B. Election when necessary
C. Rule against perpetuity
D. Conditional transfer
List -II
1. Section 14 TPA
2. Section 35 TPA
3. Section 25 TPA
4. Section 53 TPA
Code:
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List -I
A. Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act
C. Section 45A of the Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act
List -II
1. Opinion of Examiner on Electronic Evidence
2. Admission in Civil cases when relevant
3. Presumption as to Power of Attorney
4. Expert opinion
Code:
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
8. Which of the following case is related to the defence of necessity?
a) Case of MC’ Naughten
b) R. vs. Dudley and Stephen
c) D. P. P vs. Beard
d) R. vs. Lipman
9. Consider the following activities & arrange them into chronological ascending order as per relevant Sections of the Indian Penal Code.
I. Sedition
II. House Trespass
III. Communication made in good faith
IV. Public Nuisance
Select the correct answer using the code given Below –
Code
a) III, I, IV, II
b) IV, II, I, III
c) III, IV, I, II
d) I, III, II, IV
10. Assertion (A): Invitation to make tenders is not offer.
Reason(R): A tender in response to such invitation is an offer.
Select the correct answer:
a) (A) & (R) both are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) & (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
c) (R) is true but (A) is false.
d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
11. If a witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in open court, evidence so given, shall be deemed to be-
a) Oral evidence
b) Secondary evidence
c) Documentary evidence
d) Primary evidence
12. Match list-I with list-II and give correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List -I
A. Adjournment
B. Execution of Decree and orders
C. Plaint
D. Affidavit
List-II
1. Order 19 CPC
2. Order 17 CPC
3. Order 21 CPC
4. Order 7 CPC
Code:
a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D
13. Assertion (A): Custom to have the force of law may not continuously be enjoyed.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Select the correct answer
a) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. What was the theme of World Human Rights Day 2021?
a) Let’s stand up for equality, justice and human dignity
b) Equality -Reducing inequalities, Advancing Human Rights
c) Woman Rights are Human Rights
d) Recovers better - Stand up for Human Rights
15. Who can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any legal question?
a) The General Assembly of the United Nations
b) Any permanent member of the Security Council
c) The highest Court of Justice of any Nation
d) Any member of United Nations
16. A session Judge, under Section 9(2)of Cr.P.C. is appointed by the-
a) District Magistrate
b) State Government
c) High Court
d) None of the above
17. Which of the following suits are of civil nature?
1. Suits related to Right of Worship.
2. Suits for rights of hereditary offices.
3. Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
4. Suits for specific relief.
Select the correct answer
Code –
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
18. The case of Tweddle vs. Atkinson is related with
a) Anticipatory Breach of Contract
b) Impossibility of performance
c) General offer
d) Privity of Contract
19. Which one is the correct sequence from the following as implied in the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) Offer of proposal
(B) Contract
(C) Promise
(D) Agreement
(E) Acceptance
Select the correct answer-
a) (D), (B), (C). (A), (E)
b) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
c) (A), (E), (C), (D), (B)
d) (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)
20. Disclosure of the identity of a rape victim is punishable under the following Section of IPC, 1860 –
a) Section 337
b) Section 228
c) Section 229
d) Section 228A
21. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List -I
A. Anticipatory Bail
B. Cognizance on complaint
C. Language of Court
D. Security of good behaviour from habitual Offender
List-II
1. Section 272 of Cr.P.C
2. Section 110 of Cr.P.C
3. Section 438 of Cr.P.C
4. Section 190 of Cr.P.C
Code:
a) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
b) (A)-1, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-2
c) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
d) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
22. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid
B. Constitution of Parliament
C. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
D. Fundamental Duties
List-II
1. Article 50
2. Article 51A
3. Article 39A
4. Article 79
Code:
a) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
b) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
c) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1
d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)- 4
23. Devilal Modi vs. STO AIR 1965 SC 1150 is a leading case on which topic?
a) Place of Suit
b) Stay of Suit
c) Interlocutory Order
d) Constructive res judicata
24. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Section 463 IPC
B. Section 445 IPC
C. Section 441 IPC
D. Section 503 IPC
List-II
1. Criminal trespass
2. Forgery
3. Criminal intimidation
4. House breaking
Code-
a) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-1
b) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
c) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
d) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4
25. Match list-I with list-II and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Primary evidence
B. Public document
C. Private document
D. Secondary evidence
List-II
1. Section 74 Indian Evidence Act
2. Section 75 Indian Evidence Act
Section 62 Indian Evidence Act
Section 63 Indian Evidence Act
Code-
a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
26. By the Constitution 103 Amendment Act, 2019, Which one of the following Clause was added to Article 16 of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 16 (6)
b) Article 16 (5)
c) Article 16 (7)
d) Article 16 (4-B)
27. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. International Day of Education
B. World Environment Day
C. World Teachers Day
D. International Mother language
List-II
1. 24 January
2. 05 October
3. 21 February
4. 05 June
Code-
a) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-4
b) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
c) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
d) (A)-1, (B) 2, (C)-3, (D)-4
28. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Article 43
B. Article 42
C. Article 44
D. Article 50
List-II
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
2. Living wage, etc., for worker
3. Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
4. Uniform Civil Code
Code-
a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
b) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1
c) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
d) (A}-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
29. No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of the parties.” It is provided in-
a) Section 96(2) CPC
b) Section 96(1) CPC
c) Section 96(3) CPC
d) Section 96(4) CPC
30. Which Article of Constitution provides for establishment of ‘Goods and Services Tax Council'?
a) Article 279A.
b) Article 279
c) Article 270
d) Article 269A
31. ‘The greatest happiness for greatest number’ is
a) Utilitarian Concept
b) Realistic Concept
c) Analyst Concept
d) Positivist Concept
32. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Purpose Theory
B. Will Theory
C. Fiction Theory
D. Realist Theory
List-II
1. Salmond
2. Gierke
3. Ihering
4. Austin
Code-
a) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
b) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
c) (A)-4, (B)-3. (C)-1, (D)-2
d) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
33. Arrange the following in the chronological ascending order as per relevant Sections of the India Penal Code-
I. Document
II. Fraudulently
III. Dishonestly
IV. Public Servant
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
a) III, II, IV and I
b) II, III, I and IV
c) IV, III, II and I
d) I, II, III and IV
34. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
a) Section 350 IPC – Rape
b) Section 354C IPC – Stalking
c) Section 340 IPC -Wrongful confinement
d) Section 124A IPC- Criminal conspiracy
35. Identification proceedings’ are provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
a) Section-9
b) Section -7
c) Section- 11
d) Section -8
36. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Section 2(6) CPC- Foreign Judgment
b) Section 2(2) CPC -Decree
c) Section 2(13) CPC – Order
d) Section 2(9) CPC- Judgment
37. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to-
a) Summon Cases
b) Warrant Cases
c) Both of the above (a) and (b)
d) Neither of the above (a) and (b)
38. ‘A’ is a national champion of swimming in pond. He could have saved the child but did not do so. The child drowned. Is ‘A’ guilty of?
a) Murder
b) No offence
c) Culpable Homicide not amounting to murder
d) Abetment of suicide
39. The Cardinal Principle of Criminal Law ‘Nullum Crimen Nulla Poena Sine Lege’ means-
a) No crime of punishment can exist without pre-existing Criminal Law
b) Ignorance of fact is excused
c) A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty
d) Ignorance of the law is not excused
40. The expression ‘disaffection’ used in Section 124-A of the Indian Penal Code includes –
a) hatred or contempt
b) disloyalty and all feeling of enmity
c) all feeling of enmity only
d) disloyalty only
41. Within the meaning of Section 51 of TP Act, the Transferee –
a) is not entitled to the value of improvements
b) is entitled to the value of improvements
c) has conditional entitlement to the value of improvements
d) None of the above
42. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists
List-I
A. Causing death by negligence
B. Dowry death
C. Abetment to suicide
D. Attempt to commit suicide
List-II
1) Section 309 IPC
2) Section 306 IPC
3) Section 304A IPC
4) Section 3048 IPC
Code-
a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
b) (A}-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
c) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
d) (A)-1, (B)- 2, (C)-4, (D)- 3
43. For the validity of a contract, which of the following elements are necessary?
1. Intention to create legal relationship
2. Knowledge of the offer
3. Writing of the agreement
4. Acceptance of the offer
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code-
a) 2, 3 &4
b) 1, 2 & 4
c) 1,3 & 4
d) 1,2 & 3
44. When transfer of property by the owner is dissented under Section 35 of Transfer of Property, under which circumstances compensation should be given to disappointed transferee?
1. Where the transfer is gratuitous and the transferor has, before the election, died or otherwise become incapable of making a fresh transfer.
2. Where the transfer is gratuitous and the transferor is, before the election, alive.
3. When the transfer is for consideration and the transferor has, before the election died.
4. When the transfer is for consideration and the transferor is, before the election, alive.
Select the correct answer-
a) 1,2, 3 and 4
b) Only 1, 3, 4
c) Only 2, 3, 4
d) Only 1, 2, 3
45. Point out the correct answer
a) An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.
b) An agreement which is not enforceable by law is also a contract.
c) Every agreement is a contract.
d) None of the above
46. The concept of Double Veto' has been provisioned under which of the following Article of U.N. charter?
a) Article 28
b) Article 24
c) Article 27
d) Article 29
47. Order XX-A of the Civil Procedure Code applies to which of the following?
a) Appeal
b) Withdrawal of suit
c) Cost
d) Judgment
48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Pleading to state material facts and not evidence
2. Amendments of pleadings is provided in Order VI Rule 16 of CPC.
Select the correct answer:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1and2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which one of the following is not the essential element for sale?
a) Seller and Buyer
b) Without Consideration
c) Transfer of ownership
d) None of the above
50. In which case Supreme Court says that ‘ownership is pre-eminently a right’ ?
a) PT Municchikanna Reddy vs. Revamma
b) B Gangadhar vs. B.C Rajalingam
c) Bhishambsr Dayal Chandra Mohan vs. State of U.P
d) None of the above
51. QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) Summit 2022, was held at which place?
a) Japan
b) Australia
c) Germany
d) India
52. When the accused is aggrieved by the report of the psychologist as to his unsoundness of mind, he may appeal to -
a) High Court
b) Session Court
c) Magistrate hearing the case
d) Medical Board
53. Assertion (A): Transfer in perpetuity is allowed for the benefit of the public.
Reason (R): Welfare of the public at large is above the welfare of the individual.
a) A & R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is true but R is false
c) A & R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) R is true but A is false
54. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Matrimonial Communication- Section 122 of Indian Evidence Act.
b) Confidential Communication with Legal Advisors – Section 127 of Indian Evidence Act.
c) Professional Communication- Section- 126 of Indian Evidence Act.
d) Official Communication- Section- 124 of Indian Evidence Act.
55. Subject to sub-section (2) of section 64 of the code of civil procedure, 1908 a private alienation of property after attachment is-
a) Improper
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) Lawful
56. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Article 2(7) U.N. Charter
B. Article 4(2) U.N. Charter
C. Article 33 U.N. Charter
D. Article 36(3) U.N. Charter
List-lI
1. Admission of a State into U.N.
2. Pacific settlement of disputes
3. Legal disputes to be submitted to International Court of Justice
4. Domestic Jurisdiction Clause
Code-
a) (A)-3, (B)- 1, (C)- 2, (D) -4
b) (A)-3,(B)-2, (C)- 1, (D)-4
c) (A)-4, (B)- 2, (C)- 1, (D) -3
d) (A)-4, (B) -1, (C)- 2, (D)- 3
57. Who among the following said that “witnesses are eyes and ears of justice”?
a) Kelsen
b) Holland
c) Fuller
d) Bentham
58. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Electronic Records
B. Opinion as to digital signature
C. Proof as to digital signature
D. Presumption as to digital messages
List-II
1. Section 47A Indian Evidence Act
2. Section 88A Indian Evidence Act
3. Section 22A Indian Evidence Act
4. Section 67A Indian Evidence Act
Code-
a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
c) A:3, 8-1, C4, D-2
d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
59. A hangman, who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of –
a) Section 76 IPC
b) Section 78 IPC
c) Section 73 IPC
d) Section 77 IPC
60. Which of the following pairs is not matched?
a) Theft – Section 378 IPC
b) Extortion- Section 383 IPC
c) Robbery- Section 389 IPC
d) Dacoity- Section 391 IPC
61. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Section 44 Cr.P.C. – When police may arrest without warrant
(b) Section 42 Cr.P.C. – Arrest on refusal to give name and residence
(c) Section 43 Cr.P.C. – Arrest how made
(d) Section 41 Cr.P.C. – Arrest by Magistrate
62. The evidence may be given of following facts:
1. Facts in issue
2. Relevant facts
Select the correct answer using the code given
Code-
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1&2
d) Neither 1or2
63. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
A. Holding over
B. Universal donee
C. Redemption
D. Purchases
List-II
1. Mortgage
2. Gift
3. Lease
4. Sale
Code-
a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
64. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principle of law”. This statement is of-
a) Keeton
b) Prof. Allen
c) E.W Patterson
d) H.L.A. Hart
65. Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by-
a) Magistrate first class in any part of India
b) Magistrate in any part of State
c) Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the offence
d) Session Judge
66. Which provision of the Cr. P.C resembles with Habeas Corpus Writ?
a) Section 97
b) Section 91
c) Section 93
d) Section 96
67. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below-
List-I
A. Doctrine of subrogation
B. Doctrine of consideration
C. Doctrine of Accumulation
D. Doctrine of Lis pendens
List-II
1. Section 17 TPA
2. Section 52 TPA
3. Section 61 TPA
4. Section 91 TPA
Code-
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
68. Match the List-I with List-II and give the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
A. Voidable Contract
B. Contract
C. Void Agreement
D. Consideration
List-II
1. Section 2(d) Indian Contract Act
2. Section 2(g) Indian Contract Act
3. Section 2(i) Indian Contract Act
4. Section 2(h) Indian Contract Act
Code-
a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
69. Which of the following executes the decision of the International Court of Justice?
a) International Court of Justice itself
b) Military Staff Committee
c) Security Council
d) General Assembly
70. Match the List-I with List-II and give the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
A. Right against exploitation
B. Equal justice and free legal aid
C. Power of President to grant pardon
D. Seat of Supreme Court
List-II
1. Article 39A
2. Article 130
3. Article 23-24
4. Article 72
Code-
a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
71. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Appeal in case of acquittal- Section 378 of Cr.P.C
b) Trial by High Court- Section 473 of Cr.P.C
c) Power of High Court to make rules- Section 477 of Cr. P. C
d) Resumption of inquiry or trial- Section 331 of Cr.P.C
72. Assertation (A): International organizations play a very important role in maintaining peace.Reason ( R ): Countries have conflicts and differences with each other.
Select the correct answer:
a) A is true but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is false but R is true
d) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
73. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Delivery of property
B. Taking of property
C. Entrustment of property
D. Convertibility of property got innocently to one’s own use
List-II
1. Criminal breach of trust
2. Criminal misappropriation of property
3. Theft
4. Extortion
Code-
a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
74. Legal Terminology ‘Res Nullius’ is used for-
a) Property of certain person
b) Ownerless property
c) Property of corporation
d) None of the above
75. In which of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act, the fact showing the knowledge is declared relevant?
a) Section-13
b) Section-9
c) Section-14
d) Section-8
76. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act is not matched?
a) Section 4- May presume, shall presume, conclusive proof
b) Section 17- Relevant Fact
c) Section 45- Opinion of Expert
d) Section 5- Evidence may be given of facts in issues and relevant facts
77. Assertion (A): Inquiry precedes trial
Reason ( R ): Trial is the third stage of criminal proceeding
a) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
b) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
78. Assertion (A): A is a child of nine years, he intentionally killed B. A may be proved guiltyReason ( R ): Child below the age of 12 years exempted from criminal liability
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is false but R is true
c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is true but R is false
79. Under which article of the UN charter, the members of the United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?
a) Article 26
b) Article 25
c) Article 27
d) Article 28
80. Which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, grants the right to life, liberty, and security of a person?
a) Article 4
b) Article 3
c) Article 1
d) Article 2
81. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R )-
Assertion (A): United Nations Charter does not authorize the United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State.
Reason (R ): This principle should not prejudice the application of enforcement measures under chapter VII of the U.N. Charter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R ) are true but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(b) (A) is true but (R ) is false.
(c) Both (A) and (R ) are true and (R )is the correct explanation of (A).
(d) (A) is false but (R ) is true.
82. ‘Movable Property’ under section 2(13) of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 includes-
(a) Growing crops
(b) Buildings
(c) Money
(d) Growing trees
83. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
A. Section 16 Indian Contract Act
B. Section 17 Indian Contract Act
C. Section 2(d) Indian Contract Act
D. Section 56 Indian Contract Act
List-II
1. Consideration
2. Agreement to do impossible act
3. Undue influence
4. Finder of goods
Code-
(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
(b) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-2
(c) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4
(d) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
84. Match list-I with list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -
List-I
(A) Part performance
(B) Conditional Transfer
(C) Appointment of receiver
(D) Implied contracts by mortgagor
List-II
(1) Section 65 TPA
(2) Section 53A TPA
(3) Section 69A TPA
(4) Section 25 TPA
Code-
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
85. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by the application of Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Select the correct answer using the code given below -
(1) Stocks
(2) Shares
(3) Debentures
Code-
(a) All 1, 2, and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
86. In November 2021, which of the following has launched a new Journal 'Solar Compass' to enhance research on the use of Solar Power?
(a) Euro-solar
(b) Global Green Growth Institute
(c) International Solar Alliance
(d) United Nations Environment Programme
87. Section 75 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provides for -
(a) Issuing Commission for getting opinion
(b) Appointment of executors and administrators
(c) Settlement of disputes outside the court
(d) All of the above
88. Read the following statements carefully-
The presumption of legitimacy of child is governed by Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act.
Narendra Nath Pahari vs. Ram Govind Pahari is a leading case on the legitimacy of a child born during the continuance of valid marriage.
From the above-
(a) Both A and B are false
(b) A is false but B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) A is true but B is false
89. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Revocation how made- Section 5 Indian Contract Act
(b) Acceptance must be absolute- Section 6 Indian Contract Act
(c) Person competent to contract- Section 10 Indian Contract Act
(d) Responsibility of finder of goods- Section 71 Indian Contract Act
90. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement, such confinement shall in no case exceed, how many days at a time?
(a) 21 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 01 month
(d) 7 days
91. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Short title of Constitution- Article 1
(b) Advocate General for the State- Article 165
(c) Official language of State- Article 345
(d) Constitution of Parliament- Article 79
92. The Headquarter of the 'World Intellectual Property Organization' is located in-
(a) Madrid
(b) Paris
(c) New York
(d) Geneva
93. Match list-I with list-II and select the answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Execution of Decree
(B) Letter of request
(C) Legal representative
(D) Institution of Suit
List-II
(1) Section 50 CPC
(2) Section 26 CPC
(3) Section 77 CPC
(4) Section 38 CPC
Code-
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
94. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Presumption as to dowry death - Section 113A Indian Evidence Act
(b) Presumption as to documents thirty years old - Section 90 Indian Evidence Act
(c) Official Communications Evidence Act - Section 124 Indian
(d) Order of Examinations Section 138 Indian Evidence Act
95. In case of death of the President while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of -
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 6 months
96. Which one of the following principles is laid down in the case of Rajesh Kant Roy vs. Shanti Debi?
(a) Principles of Vested interest
(b) Principles of Part Performance
(c) Principles of Lis Pendens
(d) Principles of Contingent interest
97. Which Article of U.N. Charter provides for the expulsion of the member state?
(a) Article 5
(b) Article 4
(c) Article 6
(d) Article 7
98. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) Number of Judges in International Court of Justice - 20
(b) Apartheid - Treating all the people as equals
(c) Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice - Sources of International Law
(d) The Seat of International Court of Justice- Paris
99. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
(1) Interpleader Suit - Order 35 CPC
(2) Judgment and Decree - Order 20 CPC
(3) Withdrawal and Adjustment of Suits - Order 23 CPC
(4) Payment into Court - Order 21 CPC
Select the correct answer -
Code -
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
100. Assertion (A): The Indian Penal Code contains certain exemptions from criminal liability.
Reason (R): These cannot be universal criminal liability in all circumstances.
Select the correct answer -
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false
101. Which Section of Cr.P.C. is related to "no unnecessary restraint"?
(a) Section 46
(b) Section 48
(c) Section 49
(d) Section 4
102. The subject of criminal procedure falls in which one of the following List of the Constitution of India?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
103. Which of the following Sections of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with transfer of decree for execution?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 19
(d) Section 42
(c) Section 51
104. Taylor vs. Caldwell, 122 ER 309 is a leading case on which topic in Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(a) Offer
(b) Doctrine of Necessity
(c) Contingent Contract
d) Doctrine of Frustration
105. Russian invasion on Ukraine violates which Article of the U.N. Charter?
(a) Article 2 (4)
(b) Article 1 (4)
(C) Article 4 (2)
(d) Article 3
106. Assertion (A): Right to Education is a Fundamental Right.
Reason (R): Our Constitution has no provision for education before making Right to Education as Fundamental Right.
Select the correct answer-
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct. explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
107. Arrange the following in the chronological order on the basis of Sections of Criminal Procedure Code-
l - Public prosecutor
ll - Special Metropolitan Magistrate
lll - Special Judicial Magistrate
IV - Court of Session
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Code
(a) I, IV, III and II
(c) IV, I, II and I
(b) II, IV, II and 1
(d) I, II, III and IV
108. Match the list-l with the list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Duty to register FIR
(B) Laches in investigation
(C) Faulty investigation.
(D) Delay in examination of witnesses
List-II
(1) Rajinder Singh Katoch vs. Chandigarh Administration and others
(2) Krishnegowda vs. State of Karnataka
(3) Saidu Mohammed vs. State of Kerala
(4) Surjit Sarkar vs. State of West Bengal
Code-
(a) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (0)-4
(b) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-2
(c) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-4
(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
109. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Free consent
(B) Misrepresentation
(C) Coercion
(D) Fraud
List-II
(1) Section 17 Indian Contract Act
(2) Section 15 Indian Contract Act
(3) Section 18 Indian Contract Act
(4) Section 14 Indian Contract Act
Code-
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
110. Which of the following is not an element of crime?
(a) Actus Reus
(b) Object
(c) Mens Rea
(d) Human being
111. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 how many witnesses are required for the proof of any fact?
(a) Not specified
(b) At least two
(C) At least one
(d) At least five
112. Consider the following events and arrange them into chronological order-
I. Cross-examination
II. Examination in chief
III. Re-examination
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code
(a) II, III and I
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, I and III
(d) III, II and I
113. Which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that, 'No judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally Interested"?
(a) Section 479
(b) Section 481
(c) Section 478
(d) Section 477
114. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists -
List-I
(A) Arrest by Magistrate
(B) Arrest by private person
(C) Arrest how made
(D) Arrest by police officer without warrant
List-II
(1) Section 41 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 43 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 44 Cr.P.C.
(4) Section 46 Cr.P.C.
Code-
(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4
(b) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-4
(c) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1
(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
115. Match listed with list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(A) Language of the Court
(8) Compensation to the victim
(C) Classification of offences
(D) Inherent powers of High Court
List-II
(1) Section 482 Cr.P.C.
(2) Section 272 Cr.P.C.
(3) Section 357 Cr.P.C.
(4) 1st Schedule Cr.P.C.
Code-
(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-4, (D)-1
(b) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
(c) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
(d) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-4
116. 'A' commits theft on the property in the possession of 'B' and while committing theft 'A' has a loaded pistol under his garments, kept for the purpose of hurting 'B' in case 'B' resist. The offence committed by 'A' is defined under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(a) Section 390
(b) Section 382
(c) Section 381
(d) Section 379
117. An agreement, the meaning of which is neither certain nor is capable of being certain is-
(a) Illegal
(c) Void
(b) Voidable
(d) Valid
118. Match list-I with list-II and give correct answer by using the code given below the lists -
List-l
(A) Composition of General Assembly
(B) Composition of Security Council
(C) Composition of Economic and Social Council
(D) Composition of Trusteeship Council
List-II
(1) Article 9
(2) Article 61
(3) Article 86
(4) Article 23
Code-
(a) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
(b) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1
(c) (A)-2, (B)-3. (C)-4, (D)-1
(d) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
119. Match list-l with list-ll and select the correct answers using the code given below
List-I
(A) Settlement of dispute outside the court
(B)Suit by or against the Government
(C) Interpleader Soft
(D) Resistance to execution
List-II
(1) Section 74 CPC
(2) Section 88 CPC
(3) Section 79 CPC
(4) Section 89 CPC
Code-
(a) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-1, (D)-3
(b) (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-1
(C) (A)-3, (B)-4(C)-2 (D)-1
(d) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
120. Which one of the following Section of Transfer of Property Act relates to oral transfer?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 9
121. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Joint transfer for consideration 45 of TPA
(b) What may be transferred-Section 6 of TPA
(c) Oral transfer Section 9 of TPA
(d) Vested interest-Section 21 of TPΑ
122. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to review its own decisions?
(a) Article 138
(b) Article 137
(c) Article 136
(d) Article 135
123. Match List -l with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(A) Contents of charge
(B) Judgment
(C) Assistant Public Prosecutor
(D) Reference to High Court
List-II
(1) Section 395 Cr.P.C
(2) Section 25 Cr.P.C
(3) Section 353 Cr.P.C
(4) Section 211 Cr.P.C
Code
(a) (A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-3, (D)-2
(b) (A)-4, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-1
(c) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
(d) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
124. Match list-l with list-il and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) UNESCO
(B) I.L.O
(C) I.M.F.
(D) I.C.J
List-II
(1) Geneva
(2) USA
(3) Netherland
(4) Paris
Code
(a) (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1, (D)-4
(b) (A)-4, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-3
(c)(A)-1, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-3
(d)(A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
125. Which of the following is an exception to the maxim 'Ubi jus ibi remedium'?
(a) Perfect right
(b) Positive right
(C) Negative right
(d) Imperfect right
126. Assertion (A): Admission is only prima facie proof.
Reason (R): Admission is not a conclusive proof but it may operate as an estoppel
(a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) R is true but A is false
(d) A and R both are true but it is not the correct explanation of A
127. "The Statement in order to constitute 'Confession' under the Indian Evidence Act, must either admit in terms the offence or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offence".
The above view was expressed by the Privy Council in which one of the following case?
(a) John Makin vs. Attorney General
(b) Pakla Narayan Swamy vs. Emperor
(c) Q.E. vs. Abdullah
(d) H.HB. Gil vs. King Emperor
128. 'A' owes 'B' 1000 but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. 'A' signs written promise to pay 'B' 500 on account of the debt. This is a-
(a) Void contract
(b) Contract
(c) Void agreement
(d) Agreement
129. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R)-
Assertion (A): International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity.
Reason (R): Equity is one of the general Principles of Law recognised by civilized nations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
130. Match list - I with list - Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Section 146 IPC
(B) Section 340 IPC
(C) Section 192 IPC
(D) Section 383 IPC
List-II
(1) Fabricating False Evidence
(2) Extortion
(3) Rioting
(4) Wrongful confinement
Code -
(a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
131. Under which of the following conditions, Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable?
(a) Where the transfer is by the way of sale
(b) Where the transfer is by the way of exchange
(c) Where the transfer is by way of gift.
(d) Where the transfer is by the way of Lease
132. Arrange the following in the chronological order on the basis of Sections of Civil Procedure Code, 1908-
(I) Institutions of Suits
(II) Res Judicata
(III) Legal representative
(IV) Arrest and detention
Select the correct answer
Code-
(a) I, III, II & IV
(b) I, II, III & IV
(c) II, III, 1& IV
(d) II, I, III & IV
133. Who has the authority to fix scales of monthly allowances payable for subsistence of judgment debtors?
(a) State Government
(b) District Magistrate
(c) District Court
(d) High Court
134. Match list-I with list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists -
List-I
(1) Section 11 CPC
(2) Section 26 CPC
(3) Section 33 CPC
(4) Section 35 B CPC
List-II
(A) Institution of Suits
(B) Res judicata
(C) Costs for causing delay
(D) Judgment and Decree
Code-
(a) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-2
(b) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
(c) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
(d) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
135. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Leviathan- Hobbes
(b) Law, Liberty and Morality - Fuller
(c) Social Control through Law - Roscoe Pound
(d) Levers of social motion - Ihering
136. Provision regarding adjudication of Claims and Objection to attached property is
(a) Order 21 Rule 58 CPC
(b) Order 21 Rule 59 CPC
(c) Order 21 Rule 57 CPC
(d) None of the above
137. When consideration and object of an agreement is partly unlawful under Indian Contract Act, 1872, the agreement is
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Partially void and partially voidable
(d) None of the above
138. "A Barrister is instructed by an Attorney or Vakil that an important witness is a dacoit. This is a reasonable ground for asking the witness whether he is a dacoit."
This illustration is based on which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 153
(b) Section 145
(c) Section 147
(d) Section 149
139. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Principal deposits his goods with an agent
(B) Buyer purchases books from the shopkeeper
(C) Owner wearing his watch
(D) Author's copyright in his work
List-II
(1) Immediate Possession
(2) Mediate Possession
3) Incorporeal Possession
(4) Corporeal Possession
Code
(a) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-3
(b) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1 (D)-1
(c) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-4, (D)-3
(d) (A)-2, (B)-1, (C)-3, (D)-4
140. Which Section of Cr.P.C. has provision for the cancellation of warrants?
(a) Section 69
(b) Section 70
(c) Section 71
(d) None of the above
141. The official language of International Court of justice is -
(a) French and English
(b) English and Chinese
(c) English and Russian
(d) English and German
142. Where lies the procedure under Criminal Procedure Code: 1973, when corporation or registered society is an accused?
(a) Section 305
(b) Section 304
(c) Section 319
(d) Section 306
143. Which of the following Section in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with settlement of disputes outside the court?
(a) Section 91
(b) Section 90
(c) Section 89
(d) Section 88
144. Assertion (A): Agreements enforceable by law are contracts
Reason (R): Agreements not enforceable by law are void
Select the correct answer using the code given below-
Code-
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct.
145. Match list-l with list-l and select the correct answer using code given below the lists-
List-I
A. 120A
B.124A
C. 295A
D. 354C
List-II
1. Sedition
2. Voyeurism
3. Criminal conspiracy
4. Deliberate and Malicious Acts intended to outrage religious feelings or any class by insulting religious belief or religion.
Code
(a) (A)-4, (B)-3, (C)-2, (D)-1
(b) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-4, (D)-2
(c) (A)-1, (B)-2, (C)-3, (D)-4
(d) (A)-2, (B)-4, (C)-1, (D)-3
146. Match list-l with list-ll and select the correct answers from the code given below the lists
List-I
(A) Hostile witness
(B) Dying Declaration
(C) Refreshing Memory
(D) Leading Questions
List-II
(1)Section 159 Indian Evidence Act
(2) Section 32(1) Indian Evidence Act
(3)Section 154 Indian Evidence Act
(4) Section 141 Indian Evidence Act
Code
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-1,B-2, C-3, D-4
(c)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
147. Match list- l with list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Sale
(B) Marshalling
(C) Gift
(D) Contingent interest
List-II
(1) Section 21
(2) Section 122
(3) Section 54
(4) Section 81
Code
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(C) A-1, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
148. Match list-l with list-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists-
List-I
(A) Distribution of Legislative power
(B) Organisation of Village Panchayats
(C) Extent of executive power of the Union
(D) Parliamentary privileges
List-II
(1) Article 40
(2) Article 73
(3) Article 245-255
(4) Article 105
Code
(a) (A)-3, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-4
(b) (A) 4, (B)-1, (C)-2, (D)-3
(c) (A)-3, (B)-4, (C)-2, (D)-1
(d) (A)-1, (B)-2 (C)-3, (D)-4
149. The concept of "Living Law' was expounded by which Jurist?
(a) Roscoe Pound
(b) Duguit
(c) Ehrlich
(d) Ihering
150. Under Section 2(C) of Indian Contract Act 'promisee' is the-
(a) Person who makes the promise.
(b) Person to whom the proposal is made.
(c) Person who accepts the proposal.
(d) Person who makes the proposal.
Answer Key
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. d
6. d
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. b
11. a
12. d
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. d
19. c
20. d
21. d
22. b
23. d
24. c
25. b
26. a
27. b
28. b
29. c
30. a
31. a
32. b
33. c
34. c
35. a
36. c
37. b
38. b
39. a
40. b
41. b
42. a
43. b
44. b
45. a
46. c
47. c
48. a
49. b
50. b
51. a
52. d
53. a
54. b
55. b
56. d
57. d
58. c
59. b
60. c
61. b
62. c
63. a
64. b
65. c
66. a
67. d
68. b
69. c
70. b
71. b
72. b
73. c
74. b
75. c
76. b
77. b
78. d
79. b
80. b
81. c
82. a
83. a
84. a
85. a
86. c
87. a
88. c
89. d
90. b
91. a
92. d
93. b
94. a
95. d
96. a
97. c
98. c
99. b
100. b
101. c
102. c
103. b
104. d
105. a
106. b
107. c
108. d
109. a
110. b
111. a
112. c
113. a
114. c
115. a
116. b
117. c
118. d
119. d
120. d
121. d
122. b
123. c
124. b
125. d
126. a
127. b
128. b
129. d
130. b
131. d
132. d
133. a
134. b
135. b
136. a
137. a
138. d
139. a
140. b
141. a
142. a
143. c
144. b
145. b
146. a
147. b
148. a
149. c
150. c