M.P. Judiciary Prelims Examination 2017 Solved Paper | Madhya Pradesh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

Find M.P. Judiciary Prelims Examination 2017 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Practice the Madhya Pradesh Judiciary past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year's paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

No. of Questions: 150
Time Allowed: 2 hours
Total Marks: 150

Constitution of India (Total - 10 Questions)

1. The mind of the maker of constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

a. The Preamble

b. The fundamental rights

c. The directive principle of state

d. The fundamental duties

2. Who is ex-officio Chairman of Council of States

a. President

b. Vice President

c. Prime Minister

d. Speaker of House of the People

3. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President shall be inquired into and decided by

a. Prime Minister

b. council of ministers

c. Supreme Court

d. Election Commission

4. Right to property is a :

a. Fundamental Rights

b. Legal Rights

c. Social Right

d. Directive principle of state

5. The words, “Unity and integrity of the Nation” were incorporated in the preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment

a. 41st Amendment

b. 42nd Amendment

c. 43rd Amendment

d. 44th Amendment

6. Whose administers, oath to President?

a. The Chief Justice of India

b. The chief Election Commissioner of India

c. The Vice President of India

d. There is no need to administer oath

7. A Money bill can originate

a. Only in the Lok Sabha

b. Only in the Rajya Sabha

c. In both houses simultaneously

d. At the joint session of house

8. By operation of which Article of the Indian Constitution the law declared by the supreme court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

a. Article – 140

b. Article – 141

c. Article – 142

d. Article – 143

9. Who shall preside the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?

a. Deputy Chairman of Council of States

b. Speaker of the House of People

c. Vice–President of India

d. The President of India

10. In which one of these cases it was held that smoking in public is a violation of fundamental rights of life and personal liberty?

a. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

b. Murli S. Deora v. Union of India and others

c. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn

d. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

Civil Procedure Code,1908 (Total 15 questions)

11. A suit filed for compensation for a wrong done to a person or movable property shall be instituted in the Court within whose jurisdiction

a. the wrong was done

b. the defendant resides

c. the defendant personally works for gain

d. any of the rest three options

12. In a suit against central government, the authority to be named as defendant is?

a. the President

b. the Prime Minister

c. the Minister of concerned department

d. the Union of India

13. In an execution proceeding, what is the liability of the legal representative of the deceased judgment debtor?

a. is under no liability at all

b. is liable only to the extent of the property received by him from deceased judgment debtor

c. has absolute liability co-extensive with that of judgment debtor, no matter that he receives no property from the deceased

c. none of the above

14. No permission to sue as an indigent can be granted, if

a. the application does not disclose a cause of action

b. any other person has agreed to finance the litigation

c. the interest of applicant in the subject matter stands transferred to another person

d. all of the above

15. Attachment of portion of salary can be continued for a maximum period of

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c.24 months

d.36 months

16. Under which of the following conditions a plaint cannot be rejected:

a. it fails to disclose a cause of action

b. it is not filed in duplicate

c. the plaintiff fails to comply with the provision of Order 7 Rule 9 CPC

d. it is filed in court of incompetent jurisdiction

17. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. Temporary injections may be granted only at the time of institution of suit.

b. Temporary injunctions may be granted at any stage of suit.

c. Temporary injunctions are regulated by the Civil Procedure Code 1908.

d. Temporary injunctions are form of preventive relief.

18. An ex parte decree can be set aside-

a. under Order 9, Rule 10 C.P.C

b. under Order 9, Rule 7 C.P.C

c. under Order 9, rule 13 C.P.C

d. under Order 9, rule 11 C.P.C

19. U/S 100 C.P.C second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate court to High Court if it involves?

a. Question of law

b. Question of fact

c. Mixed question of fact

d. A substantial Question of law

20. Pleadings shall contain-

a. Material facts only

b. only law

c. Facts and law both

d. Evidence

21. An executing court –

a. can go behind the decree

b. cannot go behind the decree

c. It depends on Discretion of the court

d. None of the above.

22. In which proceeding rules 3, 4 and 8 of Order 22 of CPC shall not apply:

a. Civil suit

b. Civil Appeal

c. Miscellaneous Appeal

d. Execution of Decree

23. No preliminary decree is passed

a. in a partition suit

b. in a suit seeking specific performance of sale agreement

c.in a suit seeking the relief of foreclosure

d. in a suit seeking a relief of redemption

24. Right to lodge Caveat is provided under the provision of....

a. Sec. 87 A of CPC

b. Sec. 87 B of CPC

c. Sec. 135-A of CPC

d. Sec. 148 – A of CPC

25. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders from any accidental slip may be corrected by the court under which section of CPC

a. sec. 151

b. sec. 152

c. sec. 153

d. sec. 144

Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (Total – 7 Questions)

26. Under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act an instrument is defined as:-

a. a testamentary instrument

b. a non-testamentary instrument

c. an official document

d. all of them

27. Whether one co-owner of immovable property can transfer his share without partition?

a. he can transfer his share but not a particular portion of the immovable property

b. he cannot transfer his share without partition.

c. he can transfer his share as well particular portion of the immovable property.

d. None of the above.

28. Does agreement of sale convey title to be purchaser?

a. No, intending purchaser has right to get conveyance in the terms of the agreement

b. Yes, if intending purchaser has paid full consideration

c. Yes, if attested.

d. Does not provide any rights

29. A gift comprising both the existing and future properties is:-

a. void as to the first part only

b. void as to the second part only

c. void as to both the parts

d. not void at all

30. Whether a Hindu person can “gift” his immovable property orally?

a. Yes, if possession is delivered

b. No

c. It is upon discretion of the donee.

d. None of these

31. Who may sue for redemption?

a. Mortgagor

b. Mortgagee

c. both of them

d. None of them

32. By which of these modes an actionable claim can be transferred?

a. By registered instrument

b. By an execution of instrument in writing signed by the transferor

c. By an instrument attested by two witnesses

d. By all of them

Indian Contract Act, 1872 (Total - 8 questions)

33. A contract with or by minor is:-

a. valid

b. void

c. voidable

d. voidable at the option of either party.

34. In which case fraud is committed by silence?

a. A did not disclose B at the time of selling his car that he had stolen the car.

b. A did not tell B at the time of selling wheat about its quality.

c. A did not let B known that price of Gold is likely to fall at the time of selling Gold to him,

d. A did not reveal B at the time of sale that the new Edition of the Book has been published.

35. An agreement to 'sale of goodwill' for a specified area, to which the purchaser agreed is

a. Void

b. voidable

c.valid

d. None of the above

36. A contract is void if -

a. it is caused by fraud

b. it is caused by coercion

c. its consideration is unlawful

d. All of these.

37. A contract is not void if it is made:-

a. in restraint of the marriage of a person, not being minor

b. in restraint of any trade if the goodwill of trade is not sold

c. by way of wager

d. to pay a time-barred debt

38. A employs B to beat C and agrees to indemnify him against all the consequences of the act. B thereupon beats C. B is sued for damages by C, which is correct in given options -

a. A is liable to indemnify B for those damages

b. Only A is liable to C to pay those damages

c. A is not liable to indemnify B for those damages

d. none of the above

39. "Contract of indemnity" is defined in which section of Indian Contract Act-

a. Sec. 124

b. Sec. 125

c. Sec. 126

d. Sec. 127

40. The provision which provides for Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract is provided in

a. Sec. 51 of Contract Act

b. Sec.63 of Contract Act

c. Sec. 73 of Contract Act

d. Sec. 125 of Contract Act

Specific Relief Act and Law of Limitation (Total - 10 questions)

41. Under sec. 6 of specific relief act if any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise in due course of law, to recover possession

a. He has to prove his title.

b. He has to prove his prior possession.

c. He has to prove both his title and prior possession.

d. None of the above.

42. In order to succeed in the suit for the specific performance of a contract for sale, the plaintiff has to aver and prove that:

a. His readiness and willingness to perform the contract.

b. Only, his readiness to perform the contract.

c. Only, his willingness to perform the contract.

d. Only his potential to perform the contract.

43. An instrument is not "settlement" under the Specific Relief Act:-

a. whereby an interest in the property is devolved by a will.

b. whereby devolution of an interest in a movable property is disposed of.

c. whereby devolution of successive interests in an immovable property is disposed of,

d. whereby devolution of interest in an immovable property is only agreed to be disposed of.

44. A plaintiff, in a suit based upon contract for sale, may seek the relief of rescission of contract

a. in alternative to the relief of specific performance.

b. even after the decree for specific performance, under certain circumstances

c. if it is voidable by him.

d. in all of them.

45. "The Jurisdiction to decree of specific performance is discretionary and the Court is not bound to grant such relief merely because it is lawful to do so" These words are taken from which section of Specific Relief Act 1963?

a. Sec. 19

b. Sec. 20

c. Sec. 21

d. Sec. 22

46. Section 39 of Specific Relief Act 1963 related with –

a. Effect of declaration

b. Temporary Injunction

c. Perpetual Injunction

d. Mandatory Injunction

47. Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to?

a. suits

b. execution of decree

c. appeal and application

d. all the above.

48. In which section it is provided that, In computing the period of limitation for appeal, review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining copy of the decree or order appealed shall be excluded under :

a. sec. 12(1)

b. sec. 12(2)

c. sec. 13(3)

d. sec. 14(4)

49. Which among the following is not a legal disability under Section 6 of Limitation Act, 1963

a. imprisonment

b. idiocy

c. minority

d. insanity

50. Limitation to file suit for possession of Immovable property

a. 1 year

b. 3 year

c. 12 year

d. 30 year

M.P. Accommodation Control Act,1961 (Total – 5 questions)

51. A landlord who recovers the possession of an accommodation under a Court's decree passed under Section 12(1) (e) of MP Accommodation Control Act can re-let it within two years of obtaining such possession

a. with the permission of the Court

b. with the permission of the Rent Controlling Authority

c. with the permission of both of them

d. without the permission of anyone

52. Which proposition is correct:-

a. A landlord can file a suit for eviction on bonafide ground.

b. owner can not file a suit for eviction on bonafide ground.

c. The landlord must be owner of the accommodation to file a suit for eviction on the ground of bonafide

d. Either landlord or owner can file suit for eviction on the ground of bonafide need.

53. If tenant denies the title of the landlord and setup title in himself in the written statement, its ground for eviction under section?

a. 12 (1)(b) M.P.A.C.A.

b. 12(1)(c) M.P.A.C.A.

c. 12(1)(d) M.P.A.C A.

d. 12(1)(k) M.P.A.CA.

54. If any Landlord contravenes the provisions of sub-section 1 of section 38 of M.P. Accommodation Control Act 1961, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to -

a. 15 days

b. 1 Month

c. 2 Months

d.3 Months

55. A Landlord has acquired an accommodation by transfer. He cannot sue for eviction on the ground of bona fide requirements under Section of 12(1) (e) or (f) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act 1961 before completing the period of?

a. 6 Months

b. 1 year

c. 2 years

d. 3 years

M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 (Total - 5 Questions)

56. MP. Land Revenue Code "Abadil' means -

a. The area reserved in a village in an urban area for the purpose for residence of the inhabitants.

b.The area reserved in a village in a non-urban area for the residence of the inhabitants.

c. Agriculture land in non-urban area.

d. Land held as occupancy tenant in non-urban area.

57. M.P. Land Revenue Code: Whether Civil Court can declare. the entries in the record of rights as null and void?

a. No, only revenue courts has jurisdiction.

b. Yes, civil court has jurisdiction

c. Jurisdiction of civil court is barred u/s 257 M.P.L.R.C

d. Yes, but with the prior permission of the High Court.

58. M.P. Land Revenue Code: The Tehsildar, before whom a dispute of title is raised, in the partition proceeding of an agriculture holding, should

a. dismiss the proceeding and direct the parties to resolve the title dispute through Civil Court

b. ignore the question and proceed to partition the holding in accordance with the entries in the record-of-rights.

c. stay the partition proceedings for a period of three months to facilitate parties to institute a civil suit for determination of title dispute

d. decide the dispute of the title himself

59. "Agricultural year" as defined in Section 2 (C) of the M.P. Land revenue code Commence:-

a. From 1st January

b. From 1st April

c. From 1st July

d. From 1st September

60. Who among of these is not authorized under section 168 (2) of M.P.L.R.C to transfer the whole holding through Lease?

a. A married woman who is living below poverty line

b. A married woman who has been deserted by her husband

c. A widow

d. A person in the service of Armed Forces of the Union

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (Total - 15 Questions)

61. Principle of Falsus in uno falsus in omnibus" is

a. rule of law

b. rule of caution

c. Not applicable in India.

d. Both (2&3) above.

62. The conduct of accused is relevant under -

a. sec. 8 Indian Evidence Act

b. sec. 10 Indian Evidence Act

c. sec. 11 Indian Evidence Act

d. sec. 12 Indian Evidence Act

63. A discovery of fact u/s 27 of the Evidence Act includes -

a. the object produced.

b. the place from which that object is reduced.

c. knowledge of the accused to existence of that object.

d. all of these.

64. To prove cåll details report (CDR) of the mobile calls, condition of which section is to be fulfilled -

a. see. 63 Evidence Act

b. sec. 65 Evidence Act

c. sec. 65B Evidence Act

d. sec. 67 Evidence Act

65. How many witnesses are required to prove a fact?

a. Two

b.One

c. At least one eye witness and complainant

d. No particular number

66. According to Sec. 3 of The Indian Evidence Act "Courts" do not include

a. Judges

b. Magistrates

c. Arbitrators

d. Persons legally authorise to take evidence

67. Fact Judicially noticeable need

a. to be proved like other fact

b.to be proved like a special fact

c. not to be proved

d.to be proved as an expert's opinion

68. A fact is said to be "not proved"

a. Court either believes it does not exist

b. Court considers its non-existence so provable that a prudent man under the circumstance of the particular case, to act upon the supposition that it does not exist

c. Court believes it's existence

d. When the facts are neither proved nor dis-proved

69. Under Sec. 146 of The Evidence Act, which kind of questions cannot be asked during cross-examination?

a. To test the veracity of witness.

b. To discover the witness's position in life.

c. To shake credit of witness.

d. Previous sexual experience of victims of offence of rape.

70. As per Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 a 'Leading question" means -

a. Any Question informing the answer.

b. Any Question suggesting the answer.

c. Any Question directing the answer.

d. Any Question declaring the answer.

71. Whether a Judge can ask questions during examination of witness?

a. No.

b. Yes.

c. Judge should sit as a spectator during recording of evidence.

d. None of the above.

72. Newspaper report is a evidence:

a. Hearsay

b. Circumstantial

c. Primary

d. Secondary

73. Which of the following is not a competent witness-

a. Dumb

b. Deaf

c. Minor

d. A person unable to understanding the questions put to them or unable to giving rational answers to those questions

74. C Child was born after dissolution of marriage between F & M. The legitimacy of child C will be taken as conclusive proof only when child C was born within…….days after dissolution.-

a. 280

b. 290

c. 295

d. 300

75. Which evidence is not a secondary evidence?

a. Copies made from original

b. Copies compared with the original

c. Counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them

d. Counterparts of documents as against the parties who executed them

Indian Penal Code,1860 (Total - 15 Questions)

76. Right to private defence extends to:

a. defence of body only

b. defence of property only.

c. Defence of body and property Both.

d. None of the above

77. Under Section 320 of IPC which of the following kinds of hurt is not designated as "Grievous Hurt"-

a. Emasculation

b. Privation of any joint

c. Permanent disfiguration of the chest

d. Dislocation of tooth

78. 'Dowry Death' is an offence under:

a. sec. 304-A I.P.C.

b. sec. 304 I.P.C.

c. sec. 304-B I.P.C

d. sec. 302 I.P.C

79. Voluntarily causing hurt on grave and sudden provocation to a person is punishable under?

a. sec. 331 l.P.C.

b. sec. 332 l.P.C.

c. sec. 333 l.P.C.

d. sec. 334 I.P.C.

80. As defined in I.P.C. a "Woman" denotes a female human being of –

a. 16 years of age & above.

b. 18 years of age & above.

c. 21 years of age & above.

d. of any age.

81. A' instigate 'B' to burn 'Z' house, 'B' sets fire to the house and at same time 'B' commits theft of property there. 'A is guilty of

a. Abetting the theft.

b. Abetting the burning of house.

c. Abetting the theft & burning.

d. A' is not guilty because offence was committed by 'B'.

82. Which is not the ingredient of offence of Dowry Death defined under I.P.C

a. Unnatural Death.

b. Death Within 7 years of marriage.

c. Women was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or by any other person.

d. Cruelty or harassment with women should be in connection with demand for dowery.

83. A' in good faith believing property of 'Z' to be own property, takes the property out of B's possession. Here 'A' commits?

a. Theft.

b. Criminal Misappropriation of Property

c. Criminal Breach of Trust.

d. No Offence,

84. Generally preparation of an offence defined in I.P.C. is not punishable but preparation of ------------ is punishable under I.P.C. as an offence.

a. Theft

b. Extortion

c. Robbery

d. Dacoity

85. Robbery is an aggravated form of -

a. Only Theft

b. Only Extortion

c. Either Theft or Extortion both

d. None of them

86. 'A' falsely pretends to be in Civil Service, intentionally deceives 'Z' and thus dishonestly induces 'Z' to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay 'A' commits the offence -

a. False Representation

b. Cheating

c. Attempt of Extortion or theft

d. None of the above

87. Maximum Punishment for Gang-Rape under 376-D of IPC is-

a. 10 Years

b. 20 Years

c. Imprisonment for Life which shall mean Imprisonment for the remainder of that person's natural life

d. Punished with Death

88. Section 87 of IPC is based on the legal maxim of –

a. De minimis non curat lex

b. Volenti non fit injuria

c. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

d. Doli incapax

89. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion is punishable under which section of the IPC?

a. 153

b. 153-A

c. 153-AA

d. 153-B

90. Voluntarily attempting to throw acid on any persons is punishable under which section of IPC?

a. 324

b. 326-A

c. 326-B

d. none of these

Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (Total - 15 Questions)

91. "Police Report" means-

a. Report lodged by the complainant in the police station.

b. Report sent by officer in charge of police station to superior officer.

c. A report forwarded by police officer to a magistrate under sec.173 (2) of Cr.P.C.

d. Report entered in a case diary.

92. "Summon case" means a case relating to -

a. Imprisonment for a term— exceeding two years.

b. Imprisonment which may extend to two years.

c. Imprisonment for life.

d. None of the above

93. The closure report in a murder case can be accepted by –

a. The magistrate

b. The court of sessions

c. The High Court

d. None of the above

94. Maximum period of Police remand of an Accused is

a. 7 days

b. 9 days

c. 12 days

d. 15 days

95. Power to grant Anticipatory bail can be exercised by

a. High Court

b. Court of sessions

c. Chief Judicial Magistrate

d. High court and court of sessions both

96. No order U/s 144 of Cr.P.C. shall remain in force for more than -

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. One year

97. If a person who is otherwise competent to compound an offence U/s 320 of Cr.P.C., dies then-

a. Offence can be compounded by Complainant

b. Offence can be compounded by the eye witness

c. Offence can be compounded by the legal representative of such person with the consent of court

d. No one is competent to compound the offence

98. The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of?

a. Death

b. Imprisonment for life

c. Imprisonment for a term of ten years

d. Imprisonment for a term of five years

99. Court may alter the charges framed against the accused -

a. Before beginning of prosecution evidence

b. Before beginning of defence evidence

c. Before examination of accused u/s 313 of Cr.p.c

d. At any time before Judgment is pronounced

100. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders may be taken by the Executive Magistrate under which provision of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973?

a. Sec. 110

b. Sec. 107

c. Sec. 108

d. Sec. 112

101. By which provision of Criminal Procedure Code 1973 the High Court have inherent powers?

a. Sec. 474

b. Sec. 480

c. Sec. 481

d. Sec. 482

102. In Criminal Procedure Code 1973 for "PLEA BARGAINING" which new chapter is added:

a. Chapter XXIA

b. Chapter XXIIA

c. Chapter XXIIIA

d. Chapter XXIVA

103. What is right about section 127 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973?

a. The Magistrate can increase the monthly allowance for the maintenance.

b. The Magistrate can decrease the monthly allowance for the maintenance

c. The Magistrate can cancel the order of maintenance.

d. All options are correct.

104. How many Rupees can be ordered as maximum amount for monthly payment for maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973?

a. 3000/-

b. 5000/-

c. 10000/-

d. No limits set

105. In Madhya Pradesh offence under section 435 of IPC is triable by which Court?

a. Any Judicial Magistrate

b. Court of Session

c. Chief judicial magistrate

d. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class

Negotiable Instrument Act,1881 (Total - 5 Questions)

106. An offence under section 138 Negotiable Instrument Act is Compoundable -

a. If the cheque amount is upto one lakh rupees.

b. If the cheque amount is upto five lakhs rupees.

c. If the cheque amount is upto ten lakhs rupees.

d. Cheque of any amount.

107. A Court can take cognizance of an offence U/s 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act upon?

a. Upon Police Report.

b. Upon Complaint.

c. Upon Self-Knowledge of Magistrate.

d. Upon Other's Knowledge.

108. Whether director is liable if the cheque issued on behalf of company is dishonoured?

a. Yes, he is liable, if he was in charge of and was responsible for the conduct of business of the company.

b. No, only company is liable.

c. No, director is not liable.

d. None of the above.

109. Cheque is a -

a. promissory note.

b. bill of exchange.

c. both (a & b).

d. None of the above.

110. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 Maximum punishment of Imprisonment and fine is

a. 1 Year and amount of cheque.

b. 2 Year and amount Of cheque.

c. 1 year and twice the amount of cheque.

d. 2 year and twice the amount of cheque.

General Knowledge (Total - 20 Questions)

111. Who was Indian Women Cricket Captain in I.C.C. Women's World Cup 2017?

a. Mithali Raj

b. Harmanpreet Kaur

c. Deepti Sharma

d. Jhulan Goswami

112. G.S.T. Stands For

a. Goods and Services Tax

b. Goods and Services Transport

c. Goods sales Tax

d. Goods Surcharge Tax

113. River Chambal originates from-

a. Multai

b.Amarkantak

c. Janapao Hills (Mhow)

d. Near Raisen

114. Which of the following places is famous for Sun Temple?

a. Amarkantak

b. Konark

c. Mandu

d. Somnath

115. How many states touch the boundary of Madhya Pradesh?

a. 2

b.3

c. 5

d. 7

116. India's first Bullet Train proposed project connects?

a. Mumbai- Ahmedabad

b. Mumbai - Pune

c. Delhi - Ahmedabad

d. Delhi - Bangalore

117. The Last Mughal Emperor was -

a. Shah Jahan

b. Mir Kasim

c. Sirajuddaulah

d. Bahadur shah zafar

118. Attorney General of India is appointed by?

a. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

b. President

c. Law Minister

d. Prime Minister

119. Diabetes is caused by-

a. Liver Malfunction

b. Kidney Disorder

c. Pancreas Disorder

d. Intestinal parasites

120. In Indian Polity which one is supreme-

a. Supreme Court of India

b. Parliament of India

c. Constitution of India

d. President of India

121. Boundary line drawn on map between India & China is known as :

a. Mc Mahon Line

b. Red Cliff Line

c. Durand Line

d. Red Line

122. "Antyoday" programme is associated with?

a. Liberation of bonded labourers

b. Liberation of Child labourers

c. Upliftment of poorest of the poor

d. Upliftment of textile labourers

123. Chairperson of "Niti Ayog" is?

1. President

2. Vice President

3. Prime Minister

4. Minister of Finance

124. Name of Parliament of Israel is -

a. House of Lords

b. House of Representative

c. Mossad

d. Knesset

125. Ice hockey is the National Game of –

a. New Zealand

b. Canada

c. Japan

d. Scotland

126. Where is the First Open-Jail in Madhya Pradesh?

a. Anuppur

b. Khandwa

c. Hoshangabad

d. Jhabua

127. "Badhai" is the Folk Dance of -

a. Bundelkhand

b. Malwa

c. Mahakausal

d. Jhabua

128. When National Law Day is celebrated in India?

a. 26 January

b. 8 October

c. 26 November

d. 9 December

129. The Newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote Nationalism was……..

a. Jugantar Patrika

b. Kesari

c. Anand Bazar Patrika

d. Hindu

130. Hon'ble Justice Mr Deepak Mishra is the Chief Justice of India -

a. 44th

b. 45th

c. 46th

d. 47th

Computer Knowledge (Total - 10 Questions)

131. Which is correct in the following statements -

a. 1 KB = 1000 bytes

b. 1 KB = 1024 bytes

c. 1 KB = 1000 MB

d. 1 KB = 1024 Bits

132. Which one of these stores more data than a D.V.D.?

a. Blu-Ray Disc

b. Compact Disc

c. Floppy

d. None of the above

133. Brain of any computer system is -

a. Memory

b. C.P.U.

c. A.L.U.

d. Control Unit

134. In Windows OS Which of the following Shortcuts is used to close the currently active application window?

a. SPACE + F4

b. CTRL + F4

c.SHIFT + F4

d. ALT + F4

135. "http" stands for:-

a. hyper text transfer protocol

b. hyper transfer topology protocol

c. higher text transfer protocol

d. high triple topology phase

136. Full form of GUI is:-

a. Google usual Internet

b. Guide

c. Graphical user interface

d. Global user Internet

137. To insert header and footer click on which menu-

a. Insert

b. File

c. Format

d. Edit

138. Amongst these, which is the largest unit of storage?

a.GB

b. TB

c. KB

d. PB

139. Which of the following devices cannot be shared on a computer network?

a. Hard Drive

b. Keyboard

c. CD Drive

d. Printer

140. Computer "Monitor" is also known as -

a. U.V.D.

b. V.D.U.

c. D.U.V.

d. C.C.T.V.

English Knowledge (Total - 10 Questions)

141. Find out the correct Synonym for the word "Sporadic".

a. Harmless

b. Unruly

c. Suggestive

d. Random

142. Find out the correct Antonym for the word "Fragile"

a. Tall

b. Strong

c. Broad

d. Heavy

143. Please place the book ....... the desk.

a. upon

b. on

c. in

d. over

144. Person who does not believe in existence of God, is called-

a. Fanatic

b. Heretic

c. Atheist

d. Static

145. ..........you apologize, I shall punish you.

a. Till

b. Untill

c. Unless

d. Otherwise

146. A disease which spreads by contact is called?

a. Infectious

b. Contagious

c. Fatal

d. Incurable

147. Find the correctly spelt word -

a. Abeyence

b. Abayance

c. Abeyance

d. Abiyance

148. "Procrastination" means -

a. Action of delaying

b. Action of whispering

c. Emancipation

d. Advancement

149. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase - "A blessing in disguise”.

a. An apparent misfortune that eventually has good.

b. Blessing from bad people

c. Good luck follows bad result

d. A curse in disguise

150. “Modus Operandi" stands for:-

a. working with wrong object

b. way of working

c. manner of non acting

d. projection of future plan.

Answer Keys

1. a

2. b

3. c

4. b

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. b

10. b

11. d

12. d

13. b

14. d

15. c

16. d

17. a

18. c

19. d

20. a

21. b

22. d

23. b

24. d

25. b

26. b

27. a

28. a

29. b

30. 2

31. a

32. b

33. b

34. a

35. c

36. c

37. d

38. c

39. a

40. c

41. b

42. a

43. a

44. d

45. b

46. d

47. c

48. b

49. a

50. c

51. b

52. c

53. b

54. d

55. b

56. b

57. b

58. c

59. c

60. a

61. d

62. a

63. d

64. c

65. d

66. c

67. c

68. d

69. d

70. b

71. b

72. a

73. d

74. a

75. d

76. c

77. c

78. c

79. d

80. d

81. b

82. c

83. d

84. d

85. c

86. b

87. c

88. b

89. b

90. c

91. c

92. b

93. a

94. d

95. d

96. b

97. c

98. d

99. d

100. a

101. d

102. a

103. d

104. d

105. b

106. d

107. b

108. a

109. b

110. d

111. a

112. a

113. c

114. b

115. c

116. a

117. d

118. b

119. c

120. c

121. a

122. c

123. c

124. d

125. b

126. c

127. a

128. c

129. b

130. b

131. b

132. a

133. b

134. d

135. a

136. c

137. a

138. d

139. b

140. b

141. d

142. b

143. b

144. c

145. c

146. b

147. c

148. a

149. a

150. b

Important Links

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Law Aspirants: Ultimate Test Prep Destination