M.P. Judiciary Prelims Examination 2021 Solved Paper | Madhya Pradesh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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1. Constitution of India – case related to “protection against handcuffing”

1. Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration

2. Beena Seth vs. State of Bihar

3. Prem Shanker vs. Delhi Administration

4. Sher Singh vs. State of Punjab

Answer: 3

2. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country-

1. Article 43

2. Article 43-A

3. Article 48

4. Article 48-A

Answer: 4

3. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” are inserted in the Preamble of Constitution of India-

1. 15th Amendment of the Constitution

2. 39th Amendment of the Constitution

3. 42nd Amendment of the constitution

4. 44th Amendment of the Constitution

Answer: 3

5. By which Amendment in the Constitution of India, Article 21-A that The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the state may, by law, determine was inserted-

1. 84th Amendment, 2001

2. 85th Amendment, 2002

3. 86th Amendment, 2002

4. 87th Amendment, 2003

Answer: 3

6. Constitution of India, the number of categories of freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 is?

1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 9

Answer: 1

7. Writ under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is

1. Subject to the Limitation Act

2. Not subject to any of the acts in India

3. Time limit is fixed as per the direction of the court

4. None of these

Answer: 2

8. Constitution of India – “Hicklin Test” under Article 19(2) is related to –

1. Decency and morality

2. Defamation

3. Integrity to India

4. None of these

Answer: 1

9. Constitution of India – the subject of “Preventive Detention” is mentioned in which list?

1. The Union List

2. The Concurrent List

3. The State List

4. None of these

Answer: 2

10. Constitution of India- The dissenting judgement in the case pertaining to the scope of application of the Aadhar Bill was given by-

1. Justice Deepak Mishra

2. Justice Rohinton Nariman

3. Justice A.M Khanwilkar

4. Justice D.Y Chandrachud

Answer: 4

11. Civil procedure Code – Which of the following order of CPC is related to “written statement”, “set off” and “counter-claims” –

1. Order VI

2. Order VIII

3. Order VII

4. Order IX

Answer: 2

12. Civil Procedure Code – “Guardian at litem” used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means

1. A local commissioner

2. A court

3. A person defending a suit on behalf of a insane person

4. A person appointed by court to defend a suit on behalf of minor

Answer: 4

13. “Decree” under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in –

1. Section 2(b)

2. Section 2(a)

3. Section 2(2)

4. Section 2(1)

Answer: 3

14. Direction of the court to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution is provided in-

1. Order 10 rule 1-A CPC

2. Order 10 rule 1-B of CPC

3. Order 10 rule 1-C of CPC

4. Order 10 rule 1-D of CPC

Answer:1

15. Under which section of CPC- Clerical or Arithmetical mistakes in judgments. decrees or orders or errors arising therein from any accidental slip or omission may at any time be corrected by the Court either of its own motion or on the application of any of the parties.

1. Section 151

2. Section 152

3. Section 153

4. Section 144

Answer: 2

16. Civil Procedure Code- In which one of the following case it is held that "inherent power has not been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court"?

1. Manohar Lal Chopra vs. Rai Bahadur Rao Raja Seth Hiralal

2. Cotton Corporation of India vs. United Industrial Bank

3. Satyabrath Viswas vs. Kalyan Kumar Kisku

4. Rajani Devi vs. Kamla Devi

Answer: 1

17. Civil Procedure Code- The doctrine of “res judicata” as contained in S 11, is based on which maxim?

1. None of these

2. Interest republicate sit finis litium

3. Lex non cogit ad impossibilia

4. Executio juris non habet injuriam

Answer: 2

18. Where any party dies after the conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncing judgment?

1. The suit shall abate

2. The suit shall not abate

3. None of these

4. It depends on the discretion of the court whether it shall abate or not

Answer: 2

19. The Judgment debtor in execution proceedings raised objection that the trial court had no jurisdiction over the subject matter

1. He cannot raise such objection unless he raised the same objection before the trial court

2. He has to challenge the same objection only by way of filing the appeal

3. He can raise the said objection for the first time in executing court

4. None of these

Answer: 1

20. A “next friend” or guardian, on behalf of minor under order XXXII Rule 7 of CPC

1. Can enter into an agreement without leave of the court but cannot compromise a suit

2. Can neither enter into an agreement nor compromise the suit without leave of the court

3. Can not enter into an agreement without leave of the court but enter into a compromise

4. Can enter into an agreement and also compromise in a suit without leave of the court

Answer: 2

21. In which of the following section of the Civil Procedure Code the arrest or detention of women in execution of decree for money is prohibited

1. Section 55

2. Section 56

3. Section 57

4. Section 58

Answer: 2

22. In which case Supreme Court held that “Possession follows title”

1. Nazir Mohamed vs. J Kamla and others

2. Sudhir Kumar alias S Baliyan vs. Vinay Kumar GB

3. Deepika Shukla vs. Ashish Shukla

4. Radheshyam vs. Kamla Devi and others

Answer: 1

23. A B C D and E are jointly and severally liable for Rs 1.000 under a decree obtained by 'F' 'A' obtains a decree for Rs 1000 against 'F' singly and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint decree is being executed Which is true under 0.21 R 18-

1. ‘F’ may treat his joint decree as a cross-decree

2. ‘F; cannot treat his joint decree as a cross decree

3. ‘F’ may treat his joint decree as a cross decree with the permission of the Court

4. ‘F’ may treat his joint decree as a cross decree with the written consent of other judgment debtors

Answer: 1

24. Which of the following orders is not appealable?

1. An order u/s 35A

2. An order under section 95

3. An order under section 91 or 92

4. An order under Rule 9 of Order 26

Answer: 4

25. Under Section 37 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 in relation to the execution of decrees, the expression "Court which passed a decree" be deemed to include-

1. The court which passed the decree

2. The Court of first instance where decree has been passed in the exercise of Appellate jurisdiction

3. Appellate Court, where decree has been passed in the exercise of Appellate jurisdiction

1. 1 and 2 both

2. 1 and 3 both

3. All 1,2 and 3

4. Only 1

Answer: 1

26. Under section 19 of Transfer of Property Act, “vested interest” is-

1. Defeated by the death of transferee before he obtains possession

2. Not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession

3. Always defeated by the death of the transferee

4. None of these

Answer: 2

27. 'A' transfers Rs 500 to 'B' on condition that he shall execute a certain lease within three months after 'A's' death, and, if he should neglect to do so, to 'C' 'B' dies in 'A's lifetime:

1. The disposition in favour of ‘C’ takes effect

2. The disposition shall not take effect in favour of ‘C’

3. The disposition requires further agreement

4. None of these

Answer: 1

28. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument –

1. Must bear the burden

2. Must not bear the burden

3. Burden is not the subject matter of election

4. None of these

Answer: 1

29. The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgage property accrues -

1. At any time after the mortgage

2. At any time after the mortgage money has become due

3. At any time when the mortgagor wants

4. At any time mortgagee demands the money

Answer: 2

30. 'A' transfers property of which he is the owner to 'B' in trust for 'A' and his intended wife successively for their lives, and after the death of the survivor for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for 'A's second son. The interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son-

1. Takes effect on the death of “A”

2. Takes effect on the death of “B”

3. Takes effect on the death of both “A” and “B”

4. Does not take effect

Answer: 4

31. The case of Jayadayal Poddar vs. Bibi Hazra is related to –

1. Doctrine of election

2. Doctrine of part performance

3. Transfer by unauthorized person

4. Ostensible owner

Answer: 4

32. Where the mortgagor ostensibly sells the mortgaged property on condition that on default of payment of the mortgage- money on a certain date the sale shall become absolute, is called:

1. Anomalous mortgage

2. English Mortgage

3. Usufructuary mortgage

4. Mortgage by conditional sale

Answer: 4

33. The contract of life insurance is

1. Contract of indemnity

2. Contract of guarantee

3. Contract of agency

4. None of these

Answer: 1

34. Every agreement to restrain marriage of any person other than minor is

1. Voidable

2. Unlawful

3. Void

4. Lawful

Answer: 3

35. Where no application is made and no time is specified for performance of promise then the agreement be performed within –

1. One year

2. Reasonable time

3. Two years

4. Three years

Answer: 2

36. A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, has been defined –

1. Under section 123 of Indian Contract Act

2. Under section 124 of Indian Contract Act

3. Under section 125 of Indian Contract Act

4. Under section 126 of Indian Contract Act

Answer: 2

37. An agency is terminated-

1. by the agent renouncing the business of the agency

2. by the principal being adjudicated an insolvent

3. by revoking of authority by principal

1. 1 and 2

2. 2 and 3

3. 1 and 3

4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: 4

38. In the case of a general offer, there is no need to communicate the acceptance, if not required by the proposer This has been decided in which one of the following cases

1. Bhagwan Das vs. Girdhari Lal

2. Weeks vs. Tybald

3. Ramji Dayawala & Sons vs. Investment Import

4. Carlill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co

Answer: 4

39. In case of acceptance by post, at what point the acceptance is complete as against the proposer?

1. When the letter of acceptance is put in the course of transmission so as to be out of power of the acceptor

2. When the letter of acceptance has been written

3. When the letter of acceptance has been received

4. When the letter of acceptance has been read by the proposer

Answer: 1

40. Mark the correct answer in respect of Contract of Guarantee

1. It may be in writing only

2. It may be oral only

3. It may be either oral or written

4. It will be written and oral, both

Answer: 3

41. No substituted performance of contract under sub-section (1) of section 20 shall be undertaken unless the party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing, of not less than days, to the party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract within such time as specified in the notice

1. 60 days

2. 45 days

3. 30 days

4. 15 days

Answer: 3

42. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked –

1. When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff

2. When compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed

3. When the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff

4. When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff. When compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed and when the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff.

Answer: 4

43. Following is not the essential condition for the applicability of Sec 8 of Specific Relief Act

1. The defendant must be the owner of the property

2. The article must be movable property

3. The plaintiff must be entitled to immediate possession of the article

4. The article must be in possession or control of the defendant

Answer: 1

44. U/s 37 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a temporary injunction can be granted –

1. After settlement of issues

2. Before the conclusion of platintiffs evidence

3. Before the conclusion o defendant’s evidence

4. At any stage of the suit

Answer: 4

45. According to Section 20C- Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Civil Procedure, A suit filed under the provisions of this Act shall be disposed of by the court within a period of ______ from the date of service of summons to the defendant.

1. Three months

2. Six months

3. Twelve months

4. Twenty-Four months

Answer: 3

46. Which new remedy inserted by Specific Relief (Amendment) Act 2018

1. Injunction

2. Substituted performance

3. Recoverable of specific movable property

4. None of these

Answer: 2

47. Which section of Limitation Act 1963 is based on the principle of “lex non cogit ad impossibilia”

1. Section 4

2. Section 5

3. Section 14

4. Section 15

Answer: 1

48. Under Section 21 of the Limitation Act when the suit shall be deemed to have been instituted as against the newly impleaded defendant

1. From the date of filing of suit

2. From the date of filing of application to implead him as defendant

3. The date on which he was impleaded

4. None of these

Answer: 3

49. In which case Supreme Court has held that: Where a plaintiff serves notice under Section 80, CPC on the defendant on the last day of limitation and files suit before the expiry of two months, which is entertained by the court in view of the provisions of Section 80(2) CPC, the plaintiff would be entitled to get that period excluded under this section?

1. Pallav Seth v. Custodian

2. State of Goa v. Western Builders

3. Rabindra Nath Samuel Dawson v. Sivakami

4. Union of India v. West Coast Paper Mills Ltd.

Answer: 4

50. As per the provision of Section 4 of the Limitation Act, 1963:

1. The court should be closed for the whole working day

2. The court if not closed for the whole working day, but closed for half day

3. Shall be deemed to be closed on a day within the meaning of this section if during any part of its normal working hours it remains closed on that day

4. None of these

Answer: 3

51. MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961- under S 12(1)(a) of the MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961 a ground for eviction arises on the date on which notice of demand of rent has been served on tenant by the landlord in the prescribed manner and

1. Tenant has within one month neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

2. Tenant has within three months neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

3. Tenant has within two months neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

4. Tenant has within 15 days neither paid nor tendered the whole of the arrears of the rent legally recoverable from him

Answer: 3

52. MP Accommodation Control Act- B is a tenant in a shop of landlord A situated in the city of Ujjain for the last 11 years. Court has passed a decree of eviction. What compensation shall be paid by the landlord?

1. Not liable to pay any compensation

2. Equal to double the amount of the annual standard rent

3. Equal to the amount of standard rent

4. Lump Sum amount Rs 3000

Answer: 2

53. Under MP Accommodation Control Act, essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of accommodation let to him is cut off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?

1. Collector

2. Civil court

3. Rent controlling authority

4. Municipal corporation or municipality as the case may be

Answer: 3

54. Presumption under Section 23-D(3) MP Accommodation Act 1961 is in the favour of

1. Tenant

2. Landlord of tenant as the case may be

3. Landlord

4. None of these

Answer: 3

55. The word “Tenant” as defined in section 2 of the Accommodation Control Act, does not include

1. Whose behalf the rent of any accommodation is payable

2. Any person occupying the accommodation as a sub tenant

3. Any person continuing in possession after the termination of his tenancy

4. Member of the family of tenant

Answer: 4

56. The limitation for filing appeal before the Collector against the order passed by the revenue officer is

1. 30 days

2. 45 days

3. 60 days

4. 90 days

Answer: 2

57. The record made by Sub Divisional Officer, ascertaining the customs in each village in any land or water not belonging to or controlled or managed by the state government or a local authority is called

1. Record of right

2. Nistar Patrak

3. Wajib-ul-arz

4. Dakhil Khariz Panji

Answer: 3

58. Patwari shall not enter into any building or upon any enclosed court or garden attached to a dwelling house for the purpose of performing work related to his duties under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code without the consent of

1. Collector

2. Tehsildar

3. The occupier thereof

4. The real owner thereof

Answer: 3

59. Any person aggrieved by any entry made in Wajib-ul-arz may institute a suit in civil court to have such entry cancelled or modified

1. Within 90 days of the publication of record

2. Within one year of the publication of record

3. Within two years of the publication of record

4. Within three years of the publication of record

Answer: 2

60. When did MP Land revenue code 1959 came into force?

1. 01-10-1959

2. 01-11-1959

3. 02-10-1959

4. 02-11-1959

Answer: 3

61. The principle of section 44 of the Indian Evident Act cannot be extended to which of the following?

1. Misrepresentation or undue influence

2. Fraud

3. Collusion

4. All of these

Answer: 1

62. The case of Sawal Das v. State of Bihar (1974) 4 SCC 193 is related to

1. Rule of res judicata

2. Rule of estoppel

3. Plea of alibi

4. Rule of res gestae

Answer: 4

63. An accused charged under sections 302 and 304-B of the Penal Code is acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Penal Code. The presumption under section 113-B of the Evidence Act is

1. Automatically refuted

2. Not refuted

3. Not relevant

4. None of these

Answer: 2

64. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not relate with the criminal matters:

1. Section 23

2. Section 27

3. Section 53

4. Section 133

Answer: 1

65. Under section 45 of the Evidence Act, the opinion of expert are relevant facts as to:

1. Identity of handwriting

2. Identity of finger impressions

3. Identity of handwriting and identity of finger impressions both

4. Neither identity of handwriting nor identity of finger impressions

Answer: 3

66. Which of the following statement is not correct in relation to words & expressions used in Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act?

1. “Fact” includes not only state of things but also mental condition

2. “Court” include arbitrators

3. An inscription on a stone is a document

4. A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved

Answer: 2

67. In which of the following cases the evidence given by the witness will not be relevant under section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?

1. When the witness is staying abroad

2. When the witness is dead

3. When witness cannot be found

4. When the witness is incapable of giving evidence

Answer: 1

68. Under Section 90A of Indian Evidence Act presumption to electronic records ---- years old is provided

1. 20

2. 15

3. 10

4. 5

Answer: 4

69. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?

1. Probate

2. Matrimonial

3. Insolvency

4. Revenue

Answer: 4

70. The “Document: means

1. A map and an inscription on a stone

2. A caricature

3. Words printed lithographed or photographed

4. All of these

Answer: 4

71. Public document under Indian Evidence Act can be proved by

1. Oral evidence

2. Certified copy

3. By oral evidence who is given certify copy

4. None of these

Answer: 2

72. A witness, who is unable to speak gives his evidence by writing in open court, evidence so given shall be deemed to be –

1. Primary evidence

2. Documentary evidence

3. Oral evidence

4. Secondary evidence

Answer: 3

73. A dying declaration recorded by the police officer in the form of FIR before the death of the author without obtaining a certificate as to his mental illness?

1. Cannot be treated as dying declaration

2. Cannot be read in evidence

3. Can be treated as dying declaration

4. Cannot be used in evidence for any purpose

Answer: 3

74. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 is founded upon the doctrine laid down in “Pickard v. Sears”?

1. Section 6

2. Section 32

3. Section 115

4. Section 167

Answer: 3

75. Under sub-section (5)(c) of section 65B of Indian Evidence Act, a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer. In these statements which one is complete?

1. Whether it was produced by it directly

2. Whether it was produced by means of any appropriate equipment

3. Whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment

4. Whether it was produced by it directly or by means of any appropriate equipment

Answer: 3

76. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, “X” captures the image in mobile. What offence has been committed by “X”?

1. Sexual assault

2. Insult the modesty of a woman

3. Voyeurism

4. Stalking

Answer: 3

77. Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, the term for which the court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of payment of a fine shall not exceed

1. Equal of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

2. One-half of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

3. One-third of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

4. One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence

Answer: 4

78. According to the Indian Penal Code, which of the following conclusions would be correct?

1. “A” hits “Z” fifty times with a stick. If the punishment for a strike is 1 year, then “A” will be punished with 50 years of imprisonment

2. When “A” is hitting “Z’, ‘Y’ intervenes and ‘A’ deliberately kills ‘Y’ as well. ‘A’ is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt to ‘Z’ and another punishment for killing ‘Y’

1. Both 1 and 2

2. Only 1

3. Only 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: 3

79. Which one is not an exception of defamation under section 499 of the Indian penal code?

1. Public conduct of public servant

2. Malicious statements

3. Conduct of any person touching any public question

4. Publication of reports or proceedings of court

Answer: 2

80. The right of private defence of body does not extend to voluntary causing of death in which of the following offences-

1. Rape

2. Kidnapping

3. Gratifying un-natural lust

4. Causing miscarriage

Answer: 4

81. The time of solitary confinement is a time not exceeding ____ months if the term of imprisonment shall exceed 1 year.

1. 1 month

2. 2 month

3. 3 month

4. 6 months

Answer: 3

82. “Common intention” and “similar intention” were distinguished in the famous case of

1. Barendra K Ghosh vs. King 1925 PC 1

2. Mehboob Shah vs. Emperor 1943 PC 118

3. Kripal Singh vs. State of UP 1954 SC 706

4. Rishidev Pandey vs. State of UP 1955 S.C 331

Answer: 2

83. How many types of kidnapping are there in the Indian Penal Code?

1. One

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Answer: 4

84. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is the non-treatment of victims by public or private hospitals punishable?

1. Section 165A

2. Section 376 D

3. Section 166 B

4. Section 288 D

Answer: 3

85. Consent given by a child below ___ years of age is not deemed as consent under section 90 of Indian Penal Code.

1. 7 years

2. 5 years

3. 12 years

4. 10 years

Answer: 3

86. Disclosure of the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of Indian Penal Code, 1860

1. Section 354 D

2. Section 376 E

3. Section 229

4. Section 228 A

Answer: 4

87. In which section of the Indian penal code, the word “court of justice: is defined

1. Section 17

2. Section 19

3. Section 18

4. Section 20

Answer: 4

88. The punishment provided for the offence of sedition under section 124-A of IPC is

1. Imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 2 years to which fine may be added or with fine

2. Imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 3 years to which fine may be added or with fine

3. Imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 1 year to which fine may be added or with fine

4. Imprisonment for life to which fine may be added or with imprisonment which may extended to 5 years to which fine may be added or with fine

Answer: 2

89. “Coin” is defined in which section

1. 45

2. 229

3. 230

4. 231

Answer: 3

90. “A finds a watch on the floor of state transport bus while he was leaving it as last passenger. He picked it up and put it in his pocket instead of returning it to the state transport authorities. Next day, he sold it. “A” is liable for?

1. Theft

2. Extortion

3. Criminal misappropriation

4. Criminal breach of trust

Answer: 3

91. Proceedings under section 258 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be stopped-

1. In a summons case instituted upon a complaint

2. In a summons case instituted otherwise than upon a complainant

3. In a warrant case instituted upon a complainant

4. In a cognizable warrant case instituted otherwise than upon a complainant

Answer: 2

92. A declaration of forfeiture under section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be set aside by

1. Magistrate issuing the search warrant

2. Chief judicial magistrate/ chief metropolitan magistrate

3. Court of sessions

4. High court

Answer: 4

93. Power conferred under section 311 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to summon the material witnesses may be utilized by court at which stage

1. Any time before closing of prosecution evidence

2. Any time before closing of defense evidence

3. Any time before hearing of final argument

4. Any time before the pronouncement of judgement

Answer: 4

94. During inquiry or trial, under section 309 of the Code of Criminal Procedure Magistrate can remand an accused to custody

1. For a maximum of one month at a time

2. For a maximum of 15 days at a time

3. For a maximum of 14 days at a time

4. For a period till next date irrespective of days

Answer: 2

95. Under section 200 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the magistrate need not examine the complainant and the witnesses

1. If the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainant

2. If the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties

3. If the complainant is senior citizen

4. All of them

Answer: 2

96. In which case has the Supreme Court held that section 125 of CrPC is applicable to all irrespective of their religion?

1. Mohd Umar Khan vs. Gulshan Begum

2. Mohd Ahmed Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum

3. Mst Zohara Khatoon vs. Mohd Ibrahim

4. Noor Saba Khatoon vs. Mohd Qasim

Answer: 2

97. Which Section of Cr.PC provides that the Public Prosecutor in charge of a case may, with the consent of the Court at any time before the judgment is pronounced, withdraw from the Prosecution of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried.

1. Section 320 (4)

2. Section 320 (1)

3. Section 321

4. Section 313

Answer: 3

98. For authorising detention of accused in custody of the police the accused must be produced before the Magistrate.

1. In person

2. Through an advocate

3. By producing an application signed by accused

4. Through near relative

Answer: 1

99. Under Section 468 CrPC the limitation for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding three years is

1. One year

2. Two years

3. Three years

4. Four years

Answer: 3

100. Under section 357 A (2) criminal procedure code which of the authority is authorised to decide quantum of compensation?

1. State legal service authority or district legal service authority

2. Sessions Judge

3. Chief judicial magistrate

4. District magistrate

Answer: 1

101. Evidence rendered in Court is the substantive evidence, It would be impermissible to convict the accused on the basis of the statement made u/s 164 CrPC, it was held by the Supreme Court in the case

1. Arun vs. State of MP

2. Rajesh @ Sarkari and another vs. State of Haryana

3. Somasandaram @ Somu vs. State Rep by the Deputy Commissioner of Police

4. Devkaran vs. State of MP

Answer: 3

102. For the application of section 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is incorrect

1. That there must have been a previous trial of the accused for the same offence

2. For the accused to be acquitted in the previous trial for the same offence

3. For the previous proceedings to have been for the same offence

4. It is not necessary that the court who conducted the trial was competent or not to try the case

Answer: 4

103. In which case the Supreme Court held that No Second FIR can be of same incident, in such case first FIR shall be treated Main FIR and other will be treated as statement under section 162 CrPC

1. Kuldeep Choudhary @ Kuldeep Yadav vs. State of MP

2. Amish Devgan vs. Union of India and others

3. Rajesh Dhiman vs. State of Himachal Pradesh

4. Kaushik Chatterjee vs. State of Haryana and others

Answer: 2

104. Sec 293 CrPC. does not apply to which Government Scientific Expert

1. Any chemical examiner or assistant chemical examiner to the government

2. The chief controller of explosives

3. The director of the fingerprint bureau

4. State examiner for the questioned documents

Answer: 4

105. To whom the Court may appoint as Administrator for management of properties seized or forfeited under Chapter 7A of the Criminal Procedure Code

1. District Magistrate or officer nominated by District Magistrate

2. Tehsildar

3. Commissioner

4. Station house officer

Answer: 1

106. Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 - the interim compensation under section 143A(4) shall be paid within ___ days from the date of the order or within such further period not exceeding thirty days as may be directed by the Court on sufficient cause being shown by the complainant

1. 30 days

2. 45 days

3. 60 days

4. 90 days

Answer: 3

107. Which defence may not be allowed in the proceedings u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881

1. He had not put his signature on the cheque

2. The complainant is not the payee or the holder of cheque in due course

3. He had no reason to believe when cheque was issued that the same may be dishonoured

4. He had issued cheque in connection with the liability was not legally enforceable

Answer: 3

108. In appeal against conviction, the appellate Court may order the appellant to deposit fine or compensation awarded by the trial Court

1. Minimum five percent

2. Minimum ten percent

3. Minimum fifteen percent

4. Minimum twenty percent

Answer: 4

109. Which of the following presumption is prescribed u/s. 118 Negotiable Instrument Act?

1. Of consideration

2. As to date

3. As to time of acceptance

4. All of these

Answer: 4

110. In which case Supreme Court held Two private individuals are not included in the term "other association of individuals", thus Section 141 of Negotiable Instruments Act is not applicable to the individuals

1. Surendra signh Deshwal vs. Virendra Gandhi and others

2. Iqbal singh Marwah vs. Meenakshi Marwah

3. BN Patil vs. Niranjan Kumar and others

4. Alka Khandu Avhad vs. Amar Syam Prasad Mishra and others

Answer: 4

111. Who won the final of 2021 Wimbledon?

1. Noval Djokovic

2. Moteyo Beretni

3. Rafael Nadal

4. Roger Faderer

Answer: 1

112. One religion, one cast, one God for mankind. These words were spoken by

1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Guru Nanak

3. Shri Narayan Guru

4. Shri Aurobindo Ghosh

Answer: 3

113. Who received the Padma Shri Award 2022 for contribution in field of yoga?

1. B K S Iyanger

2. Swami Sivananda

3. Guru Vishnu Devanand Saraswati

4. Tulasi Gowda

Answer: 2

114. With which aspect of commerce is the term Bull & Bear associated?

1. Stock market

2. Bank

3. Insurance

4. None of these

Answer: 1

115. Black revolution is related to

1. Coal production

2. Black hole

3. Petroleum production

4. Leather production

Answer: 3 ‘

116. Which Greek Ambassador came in India during the ruling of Chandra Gupta Morya?

1. Hensnag

2. Megasthenes

3. Iban Batuta

4. Fahyan

Answer: 2

117. Where the Mahatma Gandhi Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya is located?

1. Gwalior

2. Bhopal

3. Chitrakoot

4. Jabalpur

Answer: 3

118. The National Education Policy 2020 was prepared under the chairmanship of

1. Ramesh Pokhriyal

2. Dr K Kasturirangan

3. Arvind Pangadia

4. Prof Yashpal

Answer: 2

119. Who made the observation “Jurisprudence is lawyer’s extraversion”

1. Jhon Austin

2. Julius Stone

3. Cicero

4. C K Allen

Answer: 2

120. The headquarter of World Bank is situated at

1. Geneva

2. New York

3. Paris

4. Washington DC

Answer: 4

121. Which of the following is the softest metal?

1. Caesium

2. Lead

3. Gold

4. Silver

Answer: 1

122. Which of the following is known as Golden Quadrilaterals?

1. Rail lines joining metropolitan cities

2. National highway projects

3. Air routes

4. Gold trading ways

Answer: 2

123. Which sultan had established a separate department (Deewan E Amir Kohi) for the supervision of agriculture

1. Khijra Khan

2. Tugri beg

3. Jalal- Ud- Deen Khilji

4. Muhammad Bin Tuglak

Answer: 4

124. First one-day international double century was scored by “Sachin Tendulakar” on which ground of Madhya Pradesh

1. Captain Roop Singh Stadium

2. Nehru Stadium

3. Holkar Cricket stadium

4. Gwalior International Cricket Stadium

Answer:1

125. Asirgarh Fort is situated in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

1. Gwalior

2. Bhopal

3. Burhanpur

4. Shahdol

Answer: 3

126. Which is the State animal of Madhya Pradesh?

1. Lion

2. Swampdeer

3. Tiger

4. Bear

Answer: 2

127. What is the name of the initiative launched by India to bring back Indians stranded in Ukraine

1. Operation Ganga

2. Operation Kiev

3. Operation Moscow

4. Operation Bharat

Answer: 1

128. “Pingali Venkaya” is related to which of the following?

1. Indian Army

2. India’s National flag

3. India’s National Anthem

4. India’s constitution

Answer: 2

129. In which Indian state “Khangchendzonga” National Park is situated?

1. West Bengal

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Sikkim

4. Tripura

Answer: 3

130. The DOGE-1 mission to the moon will be launched by which company in 2022?

1. Space X

2. ISRO

3. NASA

4. Roscosmos

Answer: 1

131. A collection of records on a particular topic in a database is stored as-

1. File

2. Record

3. Folder

4. Field

Answer: 1

132. Ctrl, Shift, and Alt are ____ keys

1. Modifier

2. Function

3. Alphanumeric

4. Adjustment

Answer: 1

133. To insert the header and footer click on which menu>

1. File

2. Format

3. Edit

4. Insert

Answer: 4

134. Undo and Redo buttons are in the following toolbar.

1. Standard toolbar

2. Format toolbar

3. Drawing toolbar

4. Status toolbar

Answer: 1

135. Which one of the following short keys is used to paste a file?

1. Ctrl + C

2. Ctrl + V

3. Ctrl + P

4. Ctrl + X

Answer: 2

136. Virtual memory is

1. Memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as extended RAM

2. In RAM

3. Only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer

4. A backup device for floppy disks

Answer: 1

137. The term bit is short for

1. Megabyte

2. Binary language

3. Binary digit

4. Binary number

Answer: 3

138. Shortcut of displaying the full page as they are printed

1. Ctrl + F1

2. Ctrl + F2

3. Shift + F1

4. Shift + F2

Answer: 2

139. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?

1. KB

2. TB

3. MB

4. GB

Answer: 2

140. “http” stands for

1. Hyper text transfer protocol

2. Hyper transfer topology protocol

3. Higher text transfer protocol

4. High triple topology phase

Answer: 1

141. Choose the correct spelling

1. Commensurate

2. Commensurate

3. Commensurate

4. Commensurate

Answer: 2

142. Appropriate synonym for FOSTERING is

1. Safeguarding

2. Neglecting

3. Ignoring

4. Nurturing

Answer: 4

143. One who hates women is called

1. Philanthropist

2. Ascetic

3. Misogynist

4. Misogamist

Answer: 3

144. One-word substitution for

A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain salvation

1. Sceptic

2. Ascetic

3. Devotee

4. Antiquarian

Answer: 2

145. Sentence correction

The Moscow State orchestra “had been performing” in Cheltenhem for the next 3 weeks.

1. Is performing

2. Are performing

3. Will be performing

4. Have performing

Answer: 3

146. Antonym of word Arraignment is

1. Incriminate

2. Exonerate

3. Inculpate

4. Indict

Answer: 2

147. "Procrastination" means

1. Action of delaying

2. Action of Whispering

3. Emancipation

4. Advancement

Answer: 1

148. Modus operandi' means?

1. the mode of behaving

2. way of counselling

3. manner of working

4. mode of travelling

Answer: 3

149. One who walks in sleep is?

1. Hypocrite

2. Imposter

3. Somnambulist

4. Sarcastic

Answer: 3

150. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase “A moot point”?

1. All too clear point

2. A fixed belief point

3. none of these

4. A debatable point

Answer: 4