Law of Crimes Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

The UGC NET Exam covers a broad range of topics within the Law of Crimes, assessing candidates on key legal principles, case laws, and legislative frameworks. Each exam cycle includes questions from this subject area, making it a crucial part of the syllabus for law aspirants. This article compiles questions from previous UGC NET Law exams (2019-2023) focused on the Law of Crimes to serve as a valuable resource for candidates.

The official syllabus of UGC NET (Law) for Law of Crimes includes the following:

1. General principles of criminal liability – Actus reus and mens rea, individual and

group liability and constructive liability

2. Stages of crime and inchoate crimes - Abetment, criminal conspiracy and attempt

3. General exceptions

4. Offences against human body

5. Offences against state and terrorism

6. Offences against property

7. Offences against women and children

8. Drug trafficking and counterfeiting

9. Offences against public tranquility

10. Theories and kinds of punishments, compensation to the victims of crime

Law of Crimes Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam |

UGC NET (Law) #Special

UGC NET December 2023

1. Mens rea does not include:

1) Intention

2) Knowledge

3) Reason to believe

4) Motive

Correct Option: 4

2. The right of private defence extends to causing death under which provision of IPC:

1) Section 100 only

2) Sections 100 and 103 only

3) Section 103 only

4) Section 100, 103, 105

Correct Option: 2

3. A1 and A2 plan to commit robbery. Mere agreement to commit this offence is punishable under which provision of IPC?

1) 120 B

2) 107(2)

3) 120 B and 107(2)

4) Without actus reus it is not possible at all

Correct Option: 1

4. A is lawfully arrested by Z who is a police officer. A loses his self control by grave and sudden provocation due to arrest and kills Z. A shall be punished under:

1) Section 304 of IPC

2) Section 302 of IPC

3) Section 304 or 302 of IPC

4) Section 301 read with Section 302 of IPC

Correct Option: 2

5. What amongst the following are necessary to constitute false imprisonment.

A. Total restrain on liberty of a person

B. Detention may be actual or constructive

C. It should be for a period of 2 years at least

D. Detection or restrain should be unlawful

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C) Only

2) (B), (C), (D) Only

3) (A), (B), (D) Only

4) (A), (C), (D) Only

Correct Option: 3

6. Which among the following makes a distinction between common intention and similar intention:

A. Mahabub Shah v. Emperor (1945)

B. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor (1925)

C. Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP (1973)

D. Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab (1995)

E. Badri v. State of Rajasthan (1995)

Choose the correct answer form the options given below:

1) (A), (B) Only

2) (A) Only

3) (B) Only

4) (B), (C), (D), (E) Only

Correct Option: 2

7. Consider the following statements relating to death penalty:

A. Death sentence follows deterrence theory

B. The Parliament of India wants to remove death sentence

C. Recent amendments in IPC and other proposals have added new offences with death sentence

D. The Parliament wants harsh punishment for heinous offences through capital punishment

E. After rarest of the rare doctrine the number of capital punishment is reduced

Choose the correct answer form the options given below:

1) (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

2) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

3) (A), (B), (C), (D) Only

4) (B), (D), (E) Only

Correct Option: 1

8. Match List – I with List – II

Choose the correct answer form the options given below:

1) (A) - (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) - (I)

Correct Option: 4

9. Match List – I with List – II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) - (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) - (III)

Correct Option: 3

10. Arrange in chronological order the insertion of the following provisions in the Indian Penal Code:

A. Section 124A

B. Section 153A

C. Section 120A

D. Section 304B

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

3) (A), (D), (B), (C)

4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Correct Option: 1

UGC NET December 2021 & June 2022 (Merged Cycles)

1. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means, whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, to know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under:

1) Section 35, IPC

2) Section 36, IPC

3) Section 39, IPC

4) Section 40, IPC

Correct Option: 3

2. Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest)

A. National Legal Service Authority v. U.O.I

B. Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT

C. Navtej Singh Johar v. U.O.I

D. Suresh Kaushal v. Naz Foundation

E. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) C, E, B, D

2) D, B, A, C

3) B, D, A, C

4) E, D, A, B

Correct Option: 3

3. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence.

Reason R: Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3) A is true but R is false

4) A is false but R is true

Correct Option: 2

4. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A – IV, B- II, C- I, D- III

2) A – III, B – II, C- IV, D- I

3) A – II, B-III, C- I , D- IV

4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV

Correct Option:1

5. In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary

A. Dishonest intention to take the property

B. The property can be movable or immovable

C. Property should be taken without the consent of the person

D. There must be some removal of the property

E. The property must be movable property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, D and C only

2) B, C, D and E only

3) A, C, D and E only

4) A, B, C and E only

Correct Option: 3

UGC NET November 2021

1. The distinctive features of ‘Rioting’ are an activity which is accompanied by:-

1) Use of force and violence

2) Causing alarm

3) Violence for a common purpose

4) Use of abusive language

Correct Option :1

2. Which among the following is the most serious offence, and thus severely punishable?

1) Unlawful Assembly

2) Rioting

3) Affray

4) Assault

Correct Option: 2

3. ‘Stalking’ (following a woman despite her disinterest, spying, etc) is an offence under:-

1) Section 354(1)(ii) IPC

2) Section 354 B IPC

3) Section 354A (1)(iii)

4) Section 354D IPC

Correct Option: 4

4. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed, “There is a thin line between the preparation for and an attempt to commit an offence”?

1) State of Maharashtra v. Mohd. Yakul

2) Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar

3) Malkiat Singh v State of Punjab

4) Om Prakash v State of Punjab

Correct Option: 2

5. Which of the following statement/ statements is/ are correct?

A. The offence of abetment is defined under Section 107 of IPC

B. The essential ingredient of “the offence of conspiracy is the agreement to commit an offence

C. The punishment of criminal conspiracy is given under Section 120 IPC

D. State of Tamil Nadu through Superintendent of Police, CBI/ SIT v. Nalini is a case related to offence of abetment

E. Abetment in India of offences committed outside of India is punishable under Section 180A IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

2) (B), (D), (E) only

3) (A), (B), (E) only

4) (B), (C) only

Correct Option: 3

6. Which of the following statement/ statements are correct?

A. ‘Theft’ is defined under Section 378 IPC, as the dishonest removal of movable property out of the possession of any person without his consent

B. In the offence of extortion punishment is up to 3 years under Section 384 IPC

C. The offence of ‘Robbery’ is defined under Section 391 IPC

D. Dacoity is Robbery committed by five or more persons

E. The punishment for ‘Dacoity’ is prescribed under Section 392 IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

2) (A), (B), (D) only

3) (D), (E) only

4) (A), (B) only

Correct Option: 2

7. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are correct?

A. The offence of ‘sedition’ is defined under Section 124A of IPC

B. The supreme court in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar held that section 124A IPC is not unconstitutional

C. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu Afsan Guru is a case related to Sedition

D. Mohd. Arif V State of NCT of Delhi is also known as Mumbai Terror Attack case

E. Waging or attempt to wage war or abetting waging of war against the Government of India is an offence under Section 121 IPC.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A), (B), (C), (D)only

2) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

3) (A), (B), (E) only

4) (D), (E) only

Correct Option: 3

8. Match List I with List II:

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

2) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)

4) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

Correct Option: 1

9. Match List I with List II:

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

3) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

Correct Option: 3

10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): the right of private defence of body extends to causing of death to the Assailant in case of assault of throwing or administering acid or an attempt to throw or administer acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequence of such Act.

Reason (R): this provision was inserted under Clause (7) of section 100 IPC by Act 13 of 2013 in view of increasing cases of acid throwing on the girls and women in India

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Option: 1

UGC NET September 2020

1. ‘A’ an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest ‘Y’, and after due enquiry, believing ‘Z’ to be ‘Y’, arrests ‘Z’. ‘A’ has committed:

1) An offence of wrongful confinement

2) An offence of wrongful restraint

3) An offence of criminal trespass

4) No offence

Correct Option: 4

2. Section 102 of the Indian Penal Code deals with the provision relating to:

1) When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death

2) Right of private defence against deadly assault when there is a risk of harm to an innocent person

3) Commencement and continuance of a right of private defence of the body

4) When the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death

Correct Option: 3

3. The provision regarding ‘selling minors for purposes of prostitution etc’ is given in Indian Penal Code under:

1) Section 372

2) Section 373

3) Section 370 A

4) Section 371

Correct Option: 1

4. Section 376 DB of Indian Penal Code provides for the

1) Punishment for gang rape of a woman under sixteen years of age

2) Punishment for rape of a woman under twelve years of age

3) Punishment for gang rape of a woman under twelve years of age

4) Punishment for causing death or resulting in a persistent vegetative state of the victim

Correct Option: 3

5. The maxim “Salus Populi Suprema Lex” means

1) Welfare of people is supreme law

2) Increasing population is the supreme cause of concern

3) No man is above law

4) Whatever the public collectively say, is the law

Correct Option:1

6. “Threatening to commit certain acts forbidden by Indian Penal Code” to induce a person to enter into a contract is associated with:

1) Undue influence

2) Coercion

3) Criminal Intimidation

4) Threat

Correct Option: 2

7. The provision regarding the offences against the public tranquillity are as follows:

A. Whoever, being aware of facts which render any assembly, an unlawful assembly, intentionally joins that assembly, or continues in it, is said to be a member of unlawful assembly

B. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to ‘commit an affray’

C. Whoever is a member of an unlawful assembly, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year

D. Whoever commits an affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one hundred rupees, or with both.

E. Whoever is guilty of rioting shall be punished with fine only

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and C only

2) C and D only

3) A, B and D only

4) A and C only

Correct Option: 3

8. The quantum of punishments given under the Indian penal code are:

A. Whoever commits extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years or with fine or with both

B. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished for a term which may extend to seven years

C. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with fine or with both

D. Whoever makes any preparation for committing dacoity shall be punished with fine only

E. If at the time of attempting to commit robbery or dacoity the offender is armed with deadly weapons, shall be punished for two years

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) B and C only

2) B and D only

3) A, D and E only

4) A and C only

Correct Option: 4

9. Under section 361 of Indian Penal Code, the “Kidnapping from Lawful Guardianship” is:

A. When someone takes or entices any minor without the consent of the guardian

B. When someone takes or entices any person of unsound mind out of the keeping of lawful guardian without the consent of the guardian

C. When someone entices or takes away any minor under 16 years of age if male and 18 years of age if female without consent of the guardian

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1) A and B only

2) A, B and C all

3) A and C only

4) B and C only

Correct Option: 4

10. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

2) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Correct Option: 2

11. Arrange the provisions of Indian Penal Code in chronological order:

A. House Trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life

B. House trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with death

C. Lurking House Trespass or house breaking in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment

D. House trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment

E. Lurking house trespass or house breaking by night in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) E, A, C, B, D

2) D, A, E, C, B

3) A, B, C, D, E

4) B, A, D, C, E

Correct Option: 4

12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Whoever assaults or uses criminal force on any person, in attempting to commit theft on any property which that person is then wearing or carrying, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both

Reason (R): Section 356 of Indian Penal Code provides for the punishment of imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both if a person assaults or uses criminal force on any person in attempting to commit theft or any property which that person is then wearing or carrying.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) Both (A) a]: 1

UGC NET June 2019

1. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the cardinal principle, ‘Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’?

1) Mens rea is an essential element of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea

2) Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea

3) To constitute a crime there must be actus reus and mens rea

4) Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime

Correct Option: 3

2. X with the intention to steal ornaments opened Y’s box and found it empty. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of theft was impossible

2) X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards commission of theft

3) X is not guilty of attempt to commit theft as the ornaments were not in the box

4) X is guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an act toward its commission

Correct Option: 4

3. The accused at the time of committing the act because of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing

a) The nature of the act

b) That the act is wrong or contrary to law

c) That the act is unethical and wrong

d) That the act is morally wrong but not contrary to law

To claim the benefit of Sec. 84 of IPC which of the above needs to be proved? Give the correct answer:

1) (a) and (d)

2) (a) and (b)

3) (b) and (c)

4) (c) and (d)

Correct Option: 2

4. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India strike down Section 303 of IPC as unconstitutional?

1) Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab

2) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

3) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

4) Mithu Kaur v. State of Punjab

Correct Option: 4

5. Sedition means

1) Expressing disapprobation of the measure of the government with a view to obtain their alteration

2) Advocacy of boycott of foreign goods as a means of helping Indian industries

3) Exciting or attempting to excite hatred towards the government through a writing which remains with the author unpublished

4) Brining or attempting to bring the government into hatred through words, signs or visible representation

Correct Option: 4

6. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorised by him. The servant retained the money because it was due to him as wages. He commits

1) Criminal breach of trust

2) Theft

3) No offence

4) Criminal misappropriation

Correct Option: 1

7. X, with the intention to cause miscarriage administered a drug to a pregnant lady, Y. the child in the womb died. X is guilty of

1) Murder

2) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

3) No offence

4) Causing miscarriage

Correct Option: 4

8. Whoever counterfeits, or knowingly performs, any part of the process of counterfeiting Indian coin under Section 232 by Indian Penal Code shall be punished with

1) Imprisonment which may extend to ten years and fine

2) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine

3) Imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine

4) Imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine

Correct Option: 1

9. Match list I with list II:

Choose the correct option from those given below:

1) (a) – (iii); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iv); (d) – (i)

2) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (ii)

3) (a) – (iv); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)

4) (a) – (i); (b) – (iv); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii)

Correct Option: 2

10. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with solitary confinement?

1) Section 73 of IPC

2) Section 72 of IPC

3) Section 71 of IPC

4) Section 70 of IPC

Correct Option: 1