UGC NET Paper-II June 2023 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

QUESTION NO. 1

Section 28 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 provides for

1. Protected Areas

2. Reserved Forest

3. Village Forests

4. Power of Forest Settlement Officer

QUESTION NO. 2

In the light of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted:

1. Article 249

2. Article 250

3. Article 252

4. Article 253

QUESTION NO. 3

Match List I with List II

LIST I		LIST II
A	Equal justice and free legal aid	I	Article 39A
B	Promotion of Cooperative Society	II	Article 43
C	Living wages etc. for workers	III	Article 43B
D	Uniform Civil Code for citizens	IV	Article 44

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2. A-III, B-1, C-II, D-IV

3. A-1. B-III, C-II. D-IV

4. A-1, B-II, C-II, D-IV

QUESTION NO. 4

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Assertion A: Rights to pollution free air and clean water are attributes of the right of a dignified life.

Reason R: These rights are the basic elements that sustain the life.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

QUESTION NO. 5

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The polluter pays principle says that the absolute liability for the harm to environment extends not only to compensate the victims of pollution but also to the cost of restoring the environment degradation.

Reason R: The case M.C Mehta v Kamal Nath and other has decided so.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

QUESTION NO. 6

Resale share right in original copies under section 53 A of the Copyright Act, 1957 is not applicable to:

1. Original copy of painting

2. Original copy of sculpture

3. Original manuscript of a literary or dramatic work

4. Cinematograph film

QUESTION NO. 7

'Voyeurism' for a second or subsequent conviction attracts a punishment of:

1. Imprisonment of not less than 1 year but which may extend to 3 years and fine.

2. Imprisonment of not less than 2 years but which may extend to 4 years and fine

3. Imprisonment of not less than 3 years but which may extend to 7 years and fine

4. Imprisonment of not less than 5 years but which may extend to 9 years and fine

QUESTION NO. 8

With respect to 'Muta marriage amongst Muslims, which of the following is/are correct:

1. Spouses have no right of mutual inheritance even if one of the spouses dies when if Muta is subsisting.

2. The husband has no right of 'talaq' though the parties are free to terminate it by mutual consent

3. The children of Muta marriage are illegitimate

4. Both (1) and (2)

QUESTION NO. 9

Match List I with List II

Provision		Section
A	Restitution of conjugal rights	I	Section 10, Hindu Marriage Act,1955
B	Judicial separation	II	Section 12, Hindu Marriage Act,1955
C	No petition for divorce within one year of marriage	III	Section 9, Hindu Marriage Act,1955
D	Voidable marriage	IV	Section 14, Hindu Marriage Act,1955

Choose correct answer:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2. A-III, B-I. C-IV. D-II

3. A-II, B-1, C-III, D-IV

4. A-II. B-II. C-IV. D.I

QUESTION NO. 10

Which of the following Schedules of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act provides for the heads of the compensation:

1. Schedule IV

2. Schedule II

3. Schedule III

4. Schedule I

QUESTION NO. 11

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Multilateral treaties which declare the established customary international law may bind even non parties

Reason R: Art 38 of the Vienna Convention makes an exception to Article 34 or 37 of the Vienna Convention.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

QUESTION NO. 12

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: From a functional point of view ' an administrative tribunal is neither exclusively a judicial body nor exclusively an administrative body but is somewhere between the two

Reason R: An administrative tribunal is not bound by strict rules of evidence and procedure

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

QUESTION NO. 13

Under article S1 of the Constitution of India the state is directed to endeavor to:

A. Promote international peace and security

B. Maintain just and honorable relations between nations

C. Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations

D. Protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests

E. Encourage settlement of international disputes through arbitration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B. C and D only

2. A, B. C and E only

3. B, C. D and E only

4. A. C, B and D only

QUESTION NO. 14

In case of "tort of trespass", which of the following defence shall not apply?

1. Statutory authority

2. Contributory negligence

3. Private defence

4. Mesne profits

QUESTION NO. 15

Arrange the correct sequence in which an application for grant of Patent will be considered:

A. Opposition under section 25(2) of the Patents Act, 1970

B. Publication of application

C. Filling of claims

D. Request for examination

E. Grant of patents

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. D, C, A. E

2. B. A, C, D, E

3. C, B, D, E. A

4. C. A. B. D. E

QUESTION NO. 16

The following is known as to "SAFETY NET" of International Humanitarian Law

1. LEVEE EN MASSE

2. HORS DE COMBAT

3. HENRY DUNANTS CLAUSE

4. MARTENS CLAUSE

QUESTION NO. 17

The "ESTRADA DOCTRINE" was propounded by ESTRADA, who was:

1. The Foreign Minister of Spain

2. The Foreign Minister of France

3. The Foreign Minister of Mexico

4. The Foreign Minister of Malta

QUESTION NO. 18

Under which of the following principles is the "Polluter Pays Principle" is envisaged?

1. Principle 15, Earth Summit, 1992

2. Principle 1 & 2, Stockholm Declaration, 1972

3. Principle 16, Rio Declaration, 1992

4. Principle 5, Rio declaration. 1992

1.Option 1

2.Option 2

3.Option 3

4.Option 4

QUESTION NO. 19

A. The preamble of the UN Charter says: "We the peoples, of the United Nations"

B. The preamble of the UN Charter says: "We the people of the United Nations"

C. Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the Security Council

D. Maintenance of International Peace and Security is the primary responsibility of the General Assembly

E. Maintenance of International Peace and Security is the primary responsibility of the International Court of justice.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only

2. A and C only

3. A and D only

4. B and E only

QUESTION NO. 20

The following fall under chapter IV (General Exceptions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

A. Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself to be bound, by law

B. Act of judge when acting judicially

C. Omission to assist public servant when bound by law to give assistance

D. International resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension

E. Accident in doing a lawful act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and E only

2. A and B only

3. B only

4. A, B and E only

QUESTION NO. 21

Arrange the expiry of the term of copyright in an ascending order in following cases:

A. A writes a book on 1.10.2000 and dies on 2.10. 2001

B. A book is written by an anonymous author and published on 1.10.2000. The identity of the author is disclosed on 2.11.2000, Author dies on 3.12.2000

C. A government work is published on 3.12.2000

D. Author dies on 3.12.2002 and his work published on 2.1.2003

E. A cinematograph film was published on 5.1.1999

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

2. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

3. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

4. 5, 3, 1, 2. 4

QUESTION NO. 22

Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, heirs of a Hindu Male tall under following heads

A. Class I heirs

B. Class II heirs

C. Sharers

D. Agnates

E. Cognates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C. D and E only

2. A and E only

3. A. B D and E only

4. A. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 23

Who made the following statement?

"Large part, and as many would add the best part of law of England is judge made law, that is to say, consists of rules to be col the judgements of the courts."

1. Dicey

2. Lord Denning

3. Bacon

4. Bentham

QUESTION NO. 24

Given below are two statements:

To constitute a tort:

Statement I: There must be some act or omission on the part of the defendant.

Statement II: The act or omission should result in legal damage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement I are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement IL are false

3, Statement I is true but Statement Il is false

4, Statement I is false but Statement II is true

QUESTION NO. 25

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Mr X hands over a machine to Y, a common carrier, to deliver without any delay to the mill of Mr. X. Y unreasonably delays the delivery of the machine despite being informed that the mill is locked due to lack of machine. As a consequence, Mr. X lost a government contract. He is entitled to receive compensation that includes the average amount of profit which he would have made during the time for which the delivery was delayed but not the loss sustained through the loss of the Government contract.

Reason R: Compensation for the loss or damage caused by breach of contract is not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained due to such breach

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

QUESTION NO. 26

Which of the following are fundamental rights?

A. Right not to remain employed

B. Right not to remain uneducated

C. Right not to remain unmarried

D. Right not to be killed without trial

E. Right not to change religion

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B. D and E only

2. A. C and D only

3. A. D and E only

4. B. C and E only

QUESTION NO. 27

With respect to valid conditions for Hindu Marriage, w/s 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following are true: -

A. Neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage

B. Mental capacity

C. Ceremonies of marriage

D. Parties are not within prohibited degree

E. No impotency

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C and D only

2. A. B and D only

3. B. C and E only

4. A. B and E only

QUESTION NO. 28

Match List I with List II

LIST I		LIST II
A	Eastern Book Co. Vs. DB Modak (2006)	I	Idea Expression Dichotomy
B	Bayer Corporation vs Union of India	II	Minimum of Creativity Test
C	R.G. Anand Vs Deluxe Films(1978) SC	III	Prior use test
D	N.R. Dongre Vs Whirlpool Corp. (1995)	IV	Compulsory license of patents

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-IV, C-I. D-III

3. A-IV, B-1, C-II. D-III

4. A-III. B-I. C-II. D-IV

QUESTION NO. 29

A. International Law recognises general duty of state in respect of extradition.

B. International Law does not recognise general duty of state in respect of extradition.

C. Extradition depends on the provision, of existing Extradition Treaties

D. Countries may grant extradition without a Treaty

E. Customary International Law governs extradition

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B. D and E only

2. A.C, D and E only

3. B. C and E only

4. B, C and D only

QUESTION NO. 30

Asha, a journalist employed, writes a story in the newspaper. Deepak makes a film based on the story. Raghu and Rekha plays the lead role in the film. The dance in the film is choreographed by Ajay.

A. Asha is the author of literary work.

B. Proprietor of the newspaper has copyright on the story, in the absence of a contract regarding copyright.

C. Proprietor of the newspaper has only the Publication rights

D. Raghu and Rekha have performer's right.

E. Ajay is the author of musical work.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. D, and E only

2. A, C and D only

3. B and only

4. A. C. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 31

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: "Laws may be unjust though being opposed to the divine good; such laws are the laws of tyrants laws of this kind must no wise be observed

Reason R: Externment order is of no effect and its violation is no offence

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

QUESTION NO. 32

The strict adherence to the 'rule of Locus stand' was diluted first in:

1. D.C Wadhwa v. State of Bihar

2. Parmanand Katara v. Union of India

3. Ratlam Municipal Council v. Vardhichand

4. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

QUESTION NO. 33

"International Law or the Law of the Nations is the name of the body of rules which according to the usual definition regulate the conduct of states in their intercourse with one another," who said it?

1. oppenheim

2. Lauterpacht

3. Brierly

4. Kelsen

QUESTION NO. 34

Who wrote the book 'Concept of Law?

1. Paton

2. Korkunor

3. Salmond

4. H.L.A Hart

QUESTION NO. 35

Which of the following is true with regards to Iddat period?

A. Iddat of widowhood is 4 months and 10 days

B. the period of Iddat begins from the date when she comes to know of divorce and not from the date when divorce is pronounced

C. If the marriage is irregular and is consummated, the wife is under obligation to observe Iddat

D. If the wife observes Iddat husband is bound to maintain the wife during the period on Iddat

E. In case the wife is pregnant, period of Iddat extends till the delivery of the child.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, D and E only

2. A, C, D and E only

3. B, C, D and E only

4. B and D only

QUESTION NO. 36

Which of the following case is popularly known as 'Taj Trapezium' case?

1. M.C Mehta v. Union of India & Ors (1997) 2 SCC 353

2. Vineet Kumar Mathur v. Union of India (1996) 7 SCC 714

3. Okhla Bird Sanctuary v. Anand Arya (2011) 7 SCC 74

4. M.C Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)

QUESTION NO. 37

A. Recognition de jure is final and once given cannot be withdrawn

B. Recognition de jure is not final

C. de facto recognition may be withdrawn

D. Withdrawal of recognition by a state because that state has ceased to be the State

E. Retroactive recognition of a new government does not invalidate the acts of the previous de jure government.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C and E only

2. B. C, D and E only

3. A. B. D and E only

4. A. C. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 38

Which one of the following is not covered by the schools of Jurisprudence?

1. The Historical school

2. The Realist school

3. The Sociological school

4. The Critical school

QUESTION NO. 39

The Motor Vehicle Act, 2019 has amended the following Act:

1. The Motor Vehicle Act 1988

2. The Motor Vehicle Act 1978

3. The Motor Vehicle Act 1980

4. The Motor Vehicle Act 1990

QUESTION NO. 40

Indicate the chronological order of the following

A. Treaty of Westphalia

B. Kellogg Brand port

C. Brussels conference

D. Convention of the statutes of Refugees

E. Montevideo Convention

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C. E, D

2. A, E, B, C. D

3. A. C. E. B. D

4. A. C. B. E. D

QUESTION NO. 41

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Role of Specialty	I	Importance of the works of jurist
B	Paquete Habana	II	Extradition
C	Barcelona Traction Case	III	Sources of International Law are not hierarchical
D	Nicaragua Vs. USA	IV	Equity and Justice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II. B-1. C-IV. D-III

2. A-ILI. B-II, C-I. D-IV

3. A-II. B-III, C-IV, D-I

4. A-II., B-IV, C-III, D-I

QUESTION NO. 42

Which is the correct chronological order (old to new) of the following judgements on appointment and transfer of

A. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

B. Sankalchand Seth v. Union of India

C. Special Reference No 1 of 1998

D. Supreme court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C. B. D

2. B. A. D. C

3. D. B. C. A

4. A. B. C. D

QUESTION NO. 43

Matters covered under List I of the Schedule VII of the Constitution:

A. Foreign Loan

B. Public health

C. Atomic energy

D. Public order

E. Insurance

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A. B and C only

2. A. C and E only

3. C. D and E only

4. B. C and D only

QUESTION NO. 44

The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee of a Company carries out the following functions:

A. To appoint an individual or a firm as an auditor

B. To recommend a CSR Policy

C. To recommend the amount of expenditure for the indicated activities

D. To inspect the books of accounts during business hours

E. To monitor the CSR policy of the company from time to time.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B and C only

2. B and D only

3. B. C and E only

4. B.C. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 45

Indicate the chronological order in which the following cases were decided:

A. Fisheries jurisdiction (merit) case

B. Island of palmas Arbitration case

C. Numberg judgement

D. Right of pange on Indian Testing case

E. SS Lotus case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. E. C. D, A

2. B. C. D. E. A

3. E. B. C, D. A

4. E. C. D. B, A

QUESTION NO. 46

Which of the following legal maxims is not related to tort

1. Ubi jus ibi remedium

2. Volenti non fit injuria

3. Res ipsa Loquitur

4. Pari delicto

QUESTION NO. 47

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Art. 38 (2) of the Statute of the I.C.J states, that "Provision in Art 38 (1) shall not prejudice the power, of the court a case EX AEQUO ET BONO if parties agree thereto."

Reason R: EX AEQUO ET BONO enable the court to decide upon considerations of fair dealing and good faith. Which in independent or even contrary to law.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

QUESTION NO. 48

In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be:

A. Absolute

B. Unqualified

C. Conditional

D. Random

E. Expressed in some usual and reasonable manner

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. A. B and E only

4. B, C and D only

QUESTION NO. 49

The owner of the Copyright of the sound recording has which one of following right, under sec 14 (e) of the Copyright Act, 1957.

1. to encrypt the sound recording

2. to make any adaptation of the sound recording

3. to communicate the sound recording to the public

4. to make any translation of the work recorded in the sound recording

QUESTION NO. 50

The 'bailment of the goods,' as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise, is called:

1. Indemnity

2. Guarantee

3. Mortgage

4. Pledge

QUESTION NO. 51

A. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is also called the World Bank.

B. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is also called the International Monetary Fund

C. The Dunkel Draft Act embodies the results of the Tokyo Round

D. The WTO provides for a Secretariat headed by a Director General

E. The WTO provides for a Secretariat headed by Secretary General

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A. C and E only

2. A and E only

3. A. C and D only

4. A and D only

QUESTION NO. 52

According to article 80 of the Constitution of India, the representatives of each state in the Council of States are elected by:

1. elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State by majority vote through secret ballot.

2. all the members of the Legislative Assembly of the state by majority vote through secret ballot.

3. elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with system of proportional representation by mea single transferable vote.

4. all the members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with system of proportional representation by mean single transferable vote

QUESTION NO. 53

Under Article 15 of the Constitution of India, special provisions can be made about:

A. Women and Children

B. Scheduled Tribes

C. Economically weaker sections

D. Socially backward classes

E. Linguistic minorities

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A.C. B and E only

2. B. C. D and E only

3. A. B. C and D only

4. A. B. C and E only

QUESTION NO. 54

Which of the following can be registered as Trade Mark under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

A. RASOI for hydrogenated oil

B. JHOOMRITALAIA for pens

C. BANK for banking service

D. Square shape for tyres

E. Obscene matters (things)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B only

2. A. B and D only

3. B and D only

4. C and E only

QUESTION NO. 55

In which case the 'principle of Prospective Overruling' was laid down?

1. S.P Gupta v. Union of India

2. I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

3. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

4. M.C Mehta v. Union of India

QUESTION NO. 56

Indicate the chronological order in which the following cases were decided

A. ELCAMANN's case

B. Anglo Norwegian fisheries case

C. Anglo Iranian Oil Company case

D. Chorzow Factory case

E. Western Sahara Case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D. C, A. B. E

2. D. B. C. A. E

3. D. A, C. B. E

4. D. A. B. C. E

QUESTION NO. 57

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Natural guardians of a Hindu minor	I	Section 8, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
B	Powers of Natural Guardian	II	Section 9, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
C	Testamentary guardians and their powers	III	Section 6, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
D	Welfare of minor to be paramount consideration.	IV	Section 13, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-1, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2. A-II, B-1, C-II, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-II, C-I. D-III

QUESTION NO. 58

The theory of 'Separation of powers is credited to:

1. Aristotle

2. Locke

3. Montesquieu

4. Kelsen

QUESTION NO. 59

Following essentials are to be fulfilled for death to be called "Dowry death" under section 304 B of the Indian Penal Code.

A. Death of a women within 10 years of her marriage

B. fact of cruelty or harassment by her husband for or in connection with any demand for dowry

C. Fact of cruelty or harassment by any relative of her husband for or in connection with any demand for dowry

D. death of a women within 7 years of her marriage

E. "Dowry shall have the same meaning as in section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and D only

2. B. C. D and E only

3. A. B and E only

4. B. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 60

Which of the following theories of punishment provides that 'crime is a disease' and the object should be to 'cure disease?

1. Deterrent theory

2. Reformative theory

3. Expiatory theory

4. Retributive theory

QUESTION NO. 61

Which of the following is correct?

1. "The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty" is Duguit's Theory

2. 'Social solidarity' a natural principle is given by Jurist Gierke

3. Pound, legal philosophy is 'Utilitarianism'

4. Austin said " Law is Social Engineering"

QUESTION NO. 62

'The Grand function of the Law of Nature was discharged in giving birth to modern International Law', who said it?

1. Oppenheim

2. Henry Maine

3. Holland

4. H.L.A. Hart

QUESTION NO. 63

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Asymmetric crypto-system	I	Neighboring rights
B	Rome Convention	II	Industrial Property
C	Paris Convention, 1883	III	Trademark
D	Madrid Protocol	IV	Digital Signature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

2. A-IV. B-II. C-1. D-III

3. A-IV. B-I. C-II, D-III

4. A-I, B-III. C-II. D-IV

QUESTION NO. 64

Who made the following statement "Life of law is not logic, it is experience"

1. Roscoe Pound

2. H. Kelsen

3. O.W Holmes (Jr)

4. John Austin

QUESTION NO. 65

Which Jurist gave the classification of the sources of law as (a) binding and (b) persuasive:

1. Keeton

2. Salmond

3. Allen

4. Rosco Pound

QUESTION NO. 66

A. Extraordinary remedies under Article 32 ad 226

B. Appeals to Supreme Court under Article 132 to 135

C. Appeals to High Court under Article 139 to 139 A

D. Transfer of cases to Supreme Court under Article 139 B

E. Advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C and D only

2. A. B and E only

3. B. C and D only

4. C. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 67

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	State of Rajasthan Vs. G. Chanda	I	Pith and substance
B	K.T. Moopil Nair vs State of Kerala	II	Colourable Legislation
C	O.N. Mahindroo Vs. Bar Council of Maharashtra & Goa	III	Repugnancy
D	M Karunanidhi Vs. Union of India	IV	Harmonious Construction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-1. C-IV. D-ILI

3. A-IV. B-III. C-I, D-II

4. A-1, B-II, C-IV, D-III

QUESTION NO. 68

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The Supreme Court in Dev Dutta v Union of India (2008) emphasised that now transparency and good governance have been added as a new dimension to natural justice which includes the duty to give reason

Reason R: Reason reassure that discretion has been exercised by the decision maker on relevant grounds and by disregarding extraneous considerations

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

QUESTION NO. 69

As per Salmond, there are 4 distinct kinds of rights:

A. Liberties

B. Rights

C. Power

D. Immunities

E. Kindness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A.B. C and D only

3. C.D and E only

4. A. B. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 70

Which one of the following is incorrect?

1. Patents are granted to encourage inventions

2. Protection and enforcement of patents contribute to technological innovation

3. Patented invention shall be available at reasonable affordable price.

4. The invention shall be published before applying for patent.

QUESTION NO. 71

Which of the following 'select combination' of words, from the Preamble of the Constitution of India, is in correct order?

1. "Fraternity assuring the integrity"

2. "Fraternity assuring the dignity"

3. "Fraternity assuring the unity"

4. "Fraternity assuring the unity and integrity"

QUESTION NO. 72

Who made the statement that "Jurisprudence is the study and systematic arrangement of the general principles of law"?

1. R.W.M Dias

2. Julius stone

3. Keeton C.G

4. E.W Patterson

QUESTION NO. 73

The principle of JUS COGENS is incorporated in which Article of the Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties, 1969?

1. Article 25

2. Article 37

3. Article 53

4. Article 63

QUESTION NO. 74

About Administrative Tribunals, Supreme Court recommended in 2010 Madras Bar Association Case:

A. The Tribunal should not become post- retirement heaven for civil servants.

B. Members of the Tribunals should be independent person and not serving Civil servants.

C. Members of Tribunal should retain lien in any government department.

D. The Tribunal should resemble more the Courts and not bureaucratic boards.

E. The Tribunals must depend on government for infrastructure facilities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B and C only

2. A. C and D only

3. C. D and E only

4. A. B and D only

QUESTION NO. 75

With regards to cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the following holds true

A. It is very difficult to define cruelty which can fit in all circumstances.

B. Cruelty can be physical and mental

C. Intention plays an important role in cases on cruelty

D. Cruelty should be aimed at the petitioner

E. The act complained of must be that of the respondent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and E only

2. A and B only

3. A, B and D only

4. B, C and D only

QUESTION NO. 76

I promise to pay Rs.5000 and to deliver to him my black horse on 1st January next. This is an illustration for which of the following?

1. A valid promissory note

2. An invalid promissory note

3. A valid bill of exchange

4. An invalid bill of exchange

QUESTION NO. 77

The Berne Convention, 1886 deals with:

1. Copyright Law

2. Trade Mark: Law

3. Designs Law

4. Geographical Indications Law

QUESTION NO. 78

which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that the noise pollution cannot be tolerated even if such noise was direct results of and was connected with religious activities?

1. K.M Chinnappa v. Union of India

2. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V Naidu

3. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association

4. Common Cause v. Union of India

QUESTION NO. 79

A. Uniting for peace Resolution was passed in 1950

B. Uniting for peace Resolution was passed by the General Assembly

C. Uniting for peace Resolution was passed by the Security Council

D. Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the Security Council

E. Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the General Assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B and D only

2. A. B, C and D only

3. A. B. D and E only

4. A. B and E only

QUESTION NO. 80

By which writ, the decision of the highest tribunal of a State can be revised?

1. Mandamus

2. Prohibition

3. Certiorari

4. Quo Warranto

QUESTION NO. 81

Match the following,

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Soundness of Mind	I	Sec 14
B	Fraud	II	Sec 12
C	Free Consent	III	Sec 11
D	Competency to Contract	IV	Sec 17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A-1, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-IV. C-I. D-III

3. A-II, B-ILI. C-I. D-IV

4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

QUESTION NO. 82

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Kyoto Treaty on Climate Change	I	1995
B	International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of all Migrant Workers and members of the Families.	II	1997
C	SAARC Accord on Extradition	III	1990
D	WTO came into force in the year	IV	1987

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

2. A-IV. B-III, C-II. D-I

3. A-III. B-IV, C-II, D-I

4. A-II, B-1. C-IV, D-III

QUESTION NO. 83

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013 was a result of the public outrage

Reason R: Society forces the law to accept the change

In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

QUESTION NO. 84

Match List I with List II

LIST-I		LIST-II
A	Rule of Strict Liability	I	Slander
B	Publication of a defamatory statement	II	Ryland Vs. Fletcher
C	Defamatory representation made in some permanent form.	III	Act of God
D	Vis Major	IV	Libel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-1, C-II, D-III

2. A-1, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-II. B-IV, C-I, D-III

QUESTION NO. 85

With respect to' Daughters' under class I heirs in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one the following holds true?

1. "Daughters" means natural born daughters and not adopted daughters

2. Step daughter is included

3. Daughter includes posthumous daughter

4. Unchastity of daughter is a bar to inheritance

QUESTION NO. 86

One of the heirs is not included in 'class I heirs' under the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act.2005?

1. Daughter of a predeceased daughter of a pre-deceased daughter

2. Daughter of a pre-deceased son of a pre-deceased daughter

3. Son of a pre-deceased son of a pre-deceased daughter

4. Son of a pre-deceased daughter of a pre-deceased daughter

QUESTION NO. 87

A. Treaties may be terminated

B. Treaties cannot be terminated

C. Treaties may be terminated by (i) operation of law and (ii) by act of state parties

D. Importing of performance of a treaty is also a ground for the termination of treaty and the provisions is contained Art 5.

Vienna Convention of Law of Treaties, 1969

E. Importing of performance of a treaty is also a ground for the termination of treaty and the provisions is contained Art 5

Vienna Convention of Law of Treaties, 1969.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and E only

2. B, C and D only

3. B, C and E only

4. B and C only

QUESTION NO. 88

A. For State Legislature, Constitutional provisions for special address of the Governor, is in Article 176.

B. For State Legislature the Constitutional provisions for Oath or affirmation by members is in 109.

C. For State Legislature the special procedure in respect of Money Bill is covered by article 198.

D. For State Legislature provisions as to introduction and passing of bills is given in article 196.

E. For State Legislature provision for disqualifications for membership are given in article 190.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B and C only

2. B. C and D only

3. A, D and E only

4. A, C and D only

QUESTION NO. 89

Indicate the chronological order of the following.

A. Genocide Convention

B. Warsaw Pact

C. Montreal Convention of Hijacking

D. UN Convention on The Rights of the Child

E. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C. B. E. D

2. A. E. B. C. D

3. A. B. E, C. D

4. A. B. C. E. D

QUESTION NO. 90

A. Art. 2(4) of the UN Charter contains the proposition of the unilateral use of force or threat theory by states in their international relations.

B. There are no exception to the above

- C. UN Charter makes an exception to Art. 2(4) in individual and collective self-defense as in Art. 51.

D. States may use or encourage the use of economic and political measures to coerce another state.

E. States have a duty to refrain from propaganda for wars of aggression

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A. B. D and E only

2. A. C, D and E only

3. A. C and E only

4. B, C. D and E only

QUESTION NO. 91

One is that power should not be exercised arbitrarily. This has meant that it should be exercised for the purpose for which it has been conferred. It also means that power should be exercised within the statutory ambit; and purported exercise of it would not just be ultra vires, but in true sense of the term arbitrary. Simple negation of arbitrariness is, however, not enough to preserve the Rule of Law values.

Indian courts have gone further to insist on specific positive content of the Rule of Law obligations. These include the rules of nature justice which have to be followed not just in quasi-judicial action but often also in purely administrative action. The scope and content of the requirements of natural justice have varied from time to time according to the judicial interpretation, but the board insistence remains.

In addition, access to information as to the grounds of decision has remained an important preoccupation of the Indian judiciary, as any impediments to it have the tendency of obstructing judicial review of administrative action.

This means that the courts have from time to time insisted that exercise of administrative power be accompanied by reasons, although the exact status of the obligation to give reason is as yet indeterminate. The Rule of Law notion has been in addition consistently extended to secure for the individual fair dealing by the state in its economic activities.

Rule of law is:

1. Negation of arbitrariness

2. Oppsomal of arbitrariness

3. Simple negation of arbitrariness

4. Violation of natural justice

QUESTION NO. 92

Rule of Law notion is extended to secure

1. fair dealing by State in limited activities

2. fair dealing by State in all its activities

3. fair dealing by State only in the economic activities

4. State has no concern

QUESTION NO. 93

Under what circumstances powers should be exercised arbitrarily?

1. Under limited circumstances

2. Under unlimited circumstances

3. Under no circumstances

4. As per the policy of the government

QUESTION NO. 94

Rule of Law implies

1. No one is above law

2. Some people are above law

3. Everybody is above law

4. Only Government is above law

QUESTION NO. 95

Specific positive content of the rule of law is

1. Must be complied with

2. may not be complied with

3. Complied in limited content

4. Complied under modified circumstances

QUESTION NO. 96

Where a legal wrong or legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of person by reason of violation of any Constitutional or Legal right and such person or determinate class of persons is by reason of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of the public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction or order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 or in case of breach of any Fundamental Right to this court under Article 32.

Where the weaker section of the community are concerned such as undertrial prisoners languishing in jails without a trial, inmates of the protective Home in Agra, or Harijan workers engaged in road construction in the District of Ajmer, who are living in poverty and desolation. who are barely eking out a miserable existence with their sweat and toil, who are helpless victims of an exploitative society and who do not have easy access to justice, the Supreme Court will not insist on a regular writ petition to be filed by the public spirited individual espousing their cause and seeking relief for them.

The Supreme court will readily respond to the letter addressed by such individual acting pro bono publico. It is true that there are rules made by the Supreme Court prescribing the procedure for moving it for relief under Article 32 and they require various formalities to be gone through by a person seeking to approach it. But it must not be forgotten that procedure is but a handmaid of justice and the cause of justice may never be allowed to be wasted by any procedural technicalities. The Court will therefore unhesitatingly cast aside the technical rules of procedure in the exercise of its dispensing power and treat the letter of the public minded individual as a writ-petition and act upon it.

In PIL cases the Supreme Court on a regular writ petition has insisted that it should be filed by a public spirited individual e cause. Choose the correct option

1. Supreme Court will insists always

2. Supreme Court may waive this

3. Supreme Court can not insist

4. Person filing the petition should be related to the aggrieved party

QUESTION NO. 97

Under which Article of the constitution of India, one can maintain an application to the Supreme Court for an appropriate remedy in PIL cases:

1. Article 226

2. Article 21

3. Article 19

4. Article 32

QUESTION NO. 98

Article 32 requires various procedural formalities to be gone through by a person seeking to approach the Supreme Court.

A. It is necessary to follow all technical formalities even in PIL cases

B. It is not necessary to follow the technical formalities in such cases

C. The Supreme Court may even treat a letter addressed to it as writ petition in PIL

D. Rule of locus stand is not relaxed in such cases

Choose the correct option(s)

1. Only B is correct

2. Only B and C are correct

3. Only C is correct

4. Only A and B are correct

QUESTION NO. 99

PIL cases are:

1. Private Interest cases

2. Personal Interest cases

3. Public Interest cases

4. Permanent Interest cases

QUESTION NO. 100

Choose the first case in which the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was invoked:

1. Sheela Barse v. UOI

2. Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. UOI

3. P.U.D.R v. UOI

4. Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai

Answer Keys

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