UGC NET Paper-II June 2024 (Law) Re-exam Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET Paper-II June 2024 (Law) Solved Paper | Re-Examination

UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

2. K. S. Puttaswamy v. UOI

3. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

4. E. P. Royappa v. State of T.N

2. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

3. Which of the following terms are defined under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, D, E only

2. A, B, C, D only

3. A and D only

4. A, C, D, E only

4. Which of the following are offences against public tranquility as per Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D only

2. A, B, D only

3. B, D, E only

4. A, C, E only

5. Arrange the following Conventions in the chronological order of their adoption.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, B, D
2. C, A, D, B
3. A, B, C, D
4. D, B, A, C

6. What does "Ratio Decidendi" generally imply?

1. Reason for decision alone

2. Principles laid down in the case alone

3. Both (1) and (2)

4. Observations and opinions

7. Which of the following is NOT part of 'International Bill of Rights'?

A. Magna Carta, 1215

B. Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948

C. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966

D. Convention on Rights of the Child, 1989

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A and D only

8. Which section of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 mandates approval of National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) before applying for any Intellectual Property Right in a foreign country?

1. Section 7

2. Section 19

3. Section 6

4. Section 8

9. Match the List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

10. Independent Director may be paid remuneration by way of:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C only

2. B, D only

3. C, D only

4. A, B only

11. Arrange the following reasonable restrictions provided for Freedom of Speech and Expression in Article 19(2) of the Constitution in their chronological order.

A. Contempt of court

B. Incitement to an offence

C. Public order

D. Security of the State

E. Friendly relations with Foreign States

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, E, B, C, D

2. D, E, C, A, B

3. D, A, B, C, E

4. D, C, B, E, A

12. Digital Signature Certificate issued by the Certifying Authority can be revoked:

1. Depending upon the type of certificate issued

2. On the request of the subscriber

3. Under no circumstances

4. On the basis of dispute between the partners of the firm

13. According to Section 20 of the Green Tribunal Act, 2010 what are the principles that should be applied by the NGT while passing orders and decisions?

A. Principle of sustainable development

B. Precautionary principle

C. Polluter pays principle

D. Principle of absolute liability

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and D only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, C and D only

14. Arrange the following as per the procedure of Constitutional amendment in the United States of America.

A. Proposal by Congress or Convention of States

B. Governor of State submitting proposed amendment to state's legislature for consideration.C. Ratification by State

D. Governor intimating Congress about State decision

E. Getting ratification by 2/3rd states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E

2. A, B, C, E, D

3. B, C, D, E, A

4. B, C, E, D, A

15. As per Article 324 of the Constitution of India, any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the:

1. President

2. Chief Justice of India

3. Prime Minister

4. Chief Election Commissioner

16. Inland Instrument means:

A. Instrument drawn or made in India

B. Instrument made payable in India

C. Instrument drawn upon any person resident in India. Instrument that is passed by Indian Parliament

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only

2. B, C, D only

3. A, C, D only

4. B, A, D only

17. Which of the following is not a condition for determining the capacity of a male Hindu to adopt?

1. Consent of wife under certain circumstances

2. Majority

3. Soundness of mind

4. Must be necessarily married

18. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

19. Arrange the following legislations in the chronological order of their enactment.

A. Indian Divorce Act

B. Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act

C. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act

D. Special Marriage Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, D, C

2. A, B, C, D

3. C, B, D, A

4. A, D, B, C

20. Match the List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

21. Constitution of India confers original and exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in cases where there is a dispute:

A. Between two or more states

B. Dispute arising out any treaty entered into or executed before the commencement of the Constitution

C. Between Union Govt and one or more states

D. Between Union Govt and any states on one side and one or more states on the other.

E. Dispute arising out of substantial question of law of general importance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only

2. C, D, E only

3. B, C, D, E only

4. A, C, D only

22. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

23. Nuisance is the interference with the person's right related to:

1. Possession

2. Leave and License

3. Use and enjoyment of land

4. Ownership

24. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

25. Arrange the following steps as per the law-making process of UK parliament.

A. First and second reading

B. Royal Assent

C. Consideration of Amendments

D. Committee Stage

E. Report Stage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, E, D, C, B

2. A, D, C, E, B

3. A, D, E, C, B

4. D, A, E, C, B

26. A person can be punished for an offence under Section 369 of IPC, for kidnapping or abducting a child with intent to steal from the person. For the application of S. 369 of IPC, the child must be:

1. Under the age of 12 years

2. Under the age of 15 years

3. Under the age of 10 years

4. Under the age of 14 years

27. Arrange the following legislations in the chronological order of their enactment.

A. Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act

B. Right of Persons with Disabilities Act

C. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act

D. Forest Rights Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, A, C, B

2. C, D, B, A

3. C, D, A, B

4. B, C, D, A

28. Arrange in chronological order the following Fundamental Duties as appearing in the Constitution of India.

A. To Safeguard public property and to abjure violence

B. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

D. To defend the country and render national service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, A, B, C

2. A, C, D, B

3. D, C, B, A

4. D, B, C, A

29. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

30. How many independent judges compose the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

1. 25

2. 20

3. 30

4. 15

31. Marriage of Hindu man with biological sister of his adopted sister is:

1. Void

2. Valid

3. Voidable

4. Illegal

32. In which year Limited Liability Partnership Rules of Third Amendment come up?

1. 2023

2. 2021

3. 1930

4. 2008

33. In which year "WIPO Treaty on Intellectual Property, Genetic Resources and Associated Traditional knowledge" has been adopted?

1. 2023

2. 2020

3. 2024

4. 2022

34. Which of the following judicial decisions are related to Environment Impact Assessment and Environmental Clearance?

A. Sterile Industries (India) Ltd v. Union of India

B. Balram Singh v. U. O. I

C. Deepak Kumal v. State of Haryana and Ors.

D. Orissa Mining Corporation Ltd. v. MOEF

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D only

2. A, B, D only

3. A, B and C only

4. B, C and D only

35. According to Section 6 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which of the following authority has power to make rules to regulate environmental pollution?

1. National Green Tribunal

2. The Central Government

3. The State Government

4. The Pollution Control Board

36. Which of the following is undefined in the International Convention on the "Protection of the Rights of all Migrant Workers and Members of their Family, 1990"?

1. Migrant worker

2. Unorganised worker

3. Seasonal worker

4. Frontier worker

37. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

38. Contributory negligence is a/an:

1. Obligation

2. Crime

3. Defence

4. Right

39. Which one of the following offence is punishable in all the four stages of crime?

1. Rape

2. Murder

3. Dacoity

4. Kidnapping

40. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court has held that Section 309 of IPC is not unconstitutional and is not violative of Articles 21 and 14 of the Constitution of India?

1. P. Rathinam v. Union Of India

2. Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India

3. M.S Dubal v. State of Maharashtra

4. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

41. Which of the following refers to "a clear and formal expression of recognition by a state through official communication or diplomatic statement"?

1. Implicit recognition

2. Collective recognition

3. Explicit recognition

4. Conditional recognition

42. Gap between two consecutive Board meetings of a company should not be more than:

1. 90 days

2. 120 days

3. 150 days

4. 180 days

43. If a Muslim husband swears that he will not have sexual intercourse with wife for four months or more, it amounts to a form of Divorce known as:

1. I'la

2. Zihar

3. Tafweez

4. Mubarat

44. Which of the following kind of IPR is regarded as community property?

1. Industrial Designs

2. Copyright

3. Patents

4. Geographical Indications

45. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

46. Muta marriage is:

A. A temporary marriage

B. Recognised under Shia Law

C. Recognised under Sunni Law

D. A marriage for a fixed period: a day, month, year

E. One in which dower need not be specified

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, D only

2. A, B, E only

3. A, C, D only

4. A, C, D, E only

47. Which of the following statements are correct according to National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

A. It repealed National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995

B. It repealed National Environment Appellate Authorities Act, 1997

C. The Act does mention about judicial pronouncements construing right to healthy environment as a part of right to life under Art. 21 of the Constitution

D. The Act does not define environment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C and D only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, C and D only

48. Which actions are covered under the offence of violation of privacy under section 66E of Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. Non-consensual capture, publication, and transmission of intimate images

2. Knowingly transmission and publication of intimate images only

3. Non-consensual publication of intimate images only

4. Non-consensual and consensual capture, publication, and transmission of intimate images

49. Which of the following is not correct about Savigny:

1. Savigny was against Natural Law

2. Volksgeist theory of Savigny made it impossible for a Comparative study of law

3. Savigny did not recognize legislation as a potent source of law

4. Savigny was in favor of codification of law

50. Convention on Biodiversity was signed at which International Conference / Summit?

1. Paris Climate Conference

2. Stockholm Conference

3. Rio Earth Summit

4. Hague Conference

51. An independent director shall be eligible for reappointment on:

1. Passing Ordinary Resolution
2. Passing Special Resolution
3. Approval of Board of Director
4. Approval of Central Government

52. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

53. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. A child in the mother's womb is a legal person
2. A dead person has right to regulate his property according to his wishes when he is not living
3. Animals are subjects of rights and duties just like human beings
4. A partnership firm is not a legal person therefore it cannot sue or be sued in its name

54. Which of the following is not a source of International Law as per Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice?

1. Judicial decisions (subject to Art 59 of Statute of ICJ)
2. Writing of most highly qualified Publicists (subject to Art 59 of Statute of ICJ)
3. Community customary laws
4. General principles of law recognised by civilised nations

55. Which of the following led setting aside of practice of Triple Talaq as evident in the case of Shayara Bano v. UOI (2017) SCC 1

B. Section 2 of Shariat Application Act, 1937 is pre-constitutional legislation within the meaning of Art 13 (1) of Constitution and violative of Art. 14

C. Section 2 of Shariat Application Act, 1937 is pre constitutional legislation within meaning of Art 13 (1) of Constitution and violative of Art. 15 of Constitution of India

D. Triple Talaq can be injuncted by Supreme Court to severe matrimonial relationship

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. A only

2. A, C only

3. B, D only

4. C, D only

56. Which of the following Judgments are associated with the Legislative Supremacy of Parliament in UK.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. B, C, D only
2. A, B, C only
3. A, B, D, E only
4. A, B, C, E only

57. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

58. Arrange the following cases in the chronologically order of their year of verdict.

A. Vineet Narain v. Union of India

B. Kesavanada Bharti v. State of Kerala

C. Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India

D. D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, C, A, D

3. D, A, B, C

4. B, C, D, A

59. M. K Ranjit Singh v. UOI (2024) deals with which of the following issue?

1. Preservation of biodiversity and climate change
2. Immigrants and Refugees
3. Offence against children
4. Cyber crimes

60. According to Section 4 of Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act 1939, Apostasy from Islam of a Muslim wife:

1. Will dissolve her marriage ipso facto
2. Will not dissolve her marriage ipso facto
3. Dissolves her marriage and she loses her claim to dower
4. Dissolves her marriage and she does not lose her claim to dower

61. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

62. After declaration of financial emergency what is the maximum period of its operation without approval of Parliament?

1. One month
2. Two months
3. Six months
4. One year

63. The Maxim "De Minimis Non Curat Lex" relates to:

1. Affray
2. Annoyance
3. Cheating
4. Slight harm

64. Which kind of Intellectual Property protection is available for trademark?

1. Statutory protection alone
2. Common law protection alone
3. Both Statutory and Common law protection
4. Protection under Trade and Merchandise Act, 1958

65. In which of the important circumstances Parliament can legislate with respect to matters in the state list?

A. To make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax imposed by such state

B. In matters of National Interest

C. If a proclamation of Emergency is in operation

D. By consent of states

E. For Giving effect to International Agreements

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only
2. B, C, D only
3. A, C, D, E only
4. B, C, D, E only

66. Arrange the following in chronological order (section-wise) as stated in Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

A. Procedure and Power of Claim Tribunal

B. Award of Claim Tribunal

C. Claim Tribunals

D. Application for compensation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. C, D, B, A
4. C, B, A, D

67. Identify the Common Law maxims concerning the Double Jeopardy.

A. Nemo bis punitur pro eodem delicto

B. Ex turpi Causa non oritur actio

C. Nemo bis vexari debet pro eadem causa

D. Novus actus interveniens

E. Nemo debet bis puniri pro uno delicto

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D only
2. A, C, E only
3. B, D, E only
4. A, B, C, D only

68. Which of following cases are related to personal bias according to the Principle of Natural Justice?

A. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India

B. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab

C. Mohd Yunus Khan v. State of U.P

D. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. State of A.P

E. Manak Lal v. Prem Chand Singhvi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D only
2. A, C, E only
3. B, C, D only
4. B, D only

69. Which Articles were added to the Constitution of India to facilitate the establishment of specific Tribunals to meet the needs of Administrative Justice?

1. Article 124 A
2. Article 233 A
3. Articles 323 A and 323 B
4. Articles 338 A and 338 B

70. Which of the following is correct as per the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

A. Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 deals with the principle of No Fault Liability

B. United Indian Insurance Ltd v. Karamchand (2011) deals with third parties

C. Doctrine of pay and recover is covered under Section 149 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988D. As per Section 173 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, an appeal to High Court from the award of Motor Accident Claim Tribunal to be preferred within 60 days from the date of the award.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B and D only

71. Which of the following statements are correct in case of Vicarious Liability.

A. Relationship of Master Servant

B. No control of master over the manner of doing work

C. Tort committed in course of employment

D. Control of master on the manner of doing work

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only
2. B, C, D only
3. A, C, D only
4. A, B, D only

72. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Asylum?

A. Article 14 of UDHR grants a right to asylum from persecution

B. Asylum also includes transfer of person wanted by an arrest warrant to the prosecution country

C. Granting of Asylum per se excludes any possibility of extradition

D. Extradition and Asylum are mutually exclusive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. A and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, C and D only

73. Which of the following are functions of Controller of Certifying Authorities under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

A. Exercising supervision over the activities of the Certifying Authorities

B. Certifying public keys of the Certifying Authorities

C. Laying down standards to be maintained by Certifying Authorities

D. Summon and enforcing attendance of any subscriber and examining him on oath

E. Facilitation of the establishment of any electronic system by a certifying authority

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D, E only
2. A, B, C only
3. A, B, C, D only
4. A, B, C, E only

74. Arrange the following General Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code in the chronological order of their appearance in IPC.

A. Act done in good faith for the benefit of child by the consent of guardian

B. Act done in good faith for the benefit of person without consent

C. Communication made in good faith

D. Act to which a person is compelled by threats

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D
2. C, D, B, A
3. A, B, D, C
4. C, D, A, B

75. Indicate the correct sequence of the following sources of Muslim Law:

A. The Quran

B. The Ijma

C. The Hadis

D. The Kiyas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. D, C, B, A
4. A, D, C, B

76. Arrange the following provisions in the chronological order of arrangement in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

A. District Consumer Protection Council

B. Central Consumer Protection Council

C. Central Consumer Protection Authorities

D. Investigation Wing

E. Consumer Mediation cell

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, C, D, E
2. C, B, D, E, A
3. E, C, B, A, D
4. D, B, A, E, C

77. Arrange the following International Treaties / Conventions in the chronological order of their adoption.

A. Budapest Treaty on International Recognition of the Deposit of micro-organism

B. Hague Agreement concerning the International Registration of Industrial Design

C. WIPO Copyright Treaty

D. Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, B, D
2. D, B, A. C
3. B, A, D, C
4. D, A, B, C

78. Which of the following statements are correct as per International Court of justice (ICJ)?

A. The judgement is final and without appeal

B. No application for revision may be made at all

C. The Court shall deliver its advisory opinion in open court

D. The members of ICJ are elected for 10 years

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C and D only
2. B and D only
3. A and B only
4. A and C only

79. The contents of an electronic record may be proved under which of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

1. Section 65 A
2. Section 65 B
3. Section 66
4. Sections 61 and 53

80. Arrange the following International Humanitarian Law Treaties and Conventions in the chronological order of their adoption.

A. Chemical Weapons Convention

B. Arms Trade Treaty

C. International Convention for the Protection of the All Persons from Enforced Disappearance

D. Geneva Convention

E. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D, A, E

2. D, B, C, E, A

3. A, E, D, C, B

4. D, A, C, B, E

81. Transfer of property between buyer and seller is explained in chapter III of Sale of Goods Act,1930.

Arrange the following provisions in the sequence of their appearance in the Act.

A. Property in goods passes when they are ascertained

B. Property in goods passes when the buyer and seller intend it to pass

C. In case of specified goods in deliverable state, property in goods passes when contract ismade

D. Risk prima facie passes with property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D.

2. A, C, B. D

3. D, B, C, A

4. B, A, C, D

82. Which of the following is not a feature of French Administrative legal system?

1. Dual system of courts separating administrative and ordinary courts

2. Conseil d'Etat as the Supreme administrative court

3. Principle of Judicial Independence

4. Use of Stare decisis in administrative decisions

83. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

84. Under Section 24 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, if only a part of consideration or object is unlawful, the contract shall be: -

1. Valid

2. Voidable

3. Void

4. Illegal

85. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Q.86. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q.87. Who coined the English phrase "International Law" for the first time?

1. Plato

2. Cisero

3. Aristotle

4. Jeremy Bentham

Q.88. What includes "deliverable state" as per the definition of section 2 (3) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

1. State of goods in which buyer is bound to take delivery

2. Identified goods

3. Ascertained goods

4. Goods out for delivery

Q.89. Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution is important in defining the powers reserved to the States?

1. Ist Amendment

2. IXth Amendment

3. Xth Amendment

4. Vth Amendment

Q.90. In which of the following Judgement, the Supreme Court has held that the Exception 2 to Section 375 IPC is violative of the right of girl child below 18 years?

1. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

2. Prahlad v. State of Haryana

3. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar

4. Independent Thought v. Union of India

Q91. Comprehension

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.

The Shriram Gas leak case pitted the Supreme Court against one of India's largest corporations. CJ Bhagwati presided over the Supreme Court bench and was deeply concerned for safety of citizens. He was anxious to improve plant safety, a task which the statutory agencies seemed incapable of performing. The Honourable Chief Justice saw in the Oleum case a way of influencing the far more important Bhopal gas leak case. The Shriram case has also raised some important questions concerning the true scope and ambit of Articles 21 and 32 of the Constitution. The case also dealt with Principles and Norms of determining the liability of large enterprises engaged in manufacturing and sale of hazardous products. It also decided the basis on which damage should be quantified and whether the corporation should be allowed to function from thickly populated areas and if they are allowed what measures should be taken for minimising hazards to workmen. This led the Parliament to enact law & articulate new standard of absolute liability in 1991.

Sub Question 91: The Judgement in Shriram Gas Leak case influenced the decision of:-

1. Shrimp case

2. Goel Ganga case

3. Bhopal Gas leak case

4. Clean Narmada case

Sub Question 92: As an effect of Shriram Gas Leak case, the Law enacted by Parliament in 1991 dealt with:-

1. Private liability

2. Storage of hazardous substances

3. Absolute liability

4. Safety of plants and animals

Sub Question No 93: In the Shriram Gas Leak case, the Chief Justice was mainly concerned with which of the following?

1. Safety of citizen

2. Profit of companies

3. Disaster in community

4. Aftermath of gas leak

Sub Question No 94: The Shriram Gas Leak case did not focus on which of the following issue?

1. Scope of Arts. 21 and 32 of Constitution

2. Norms of determining liability of large corporation

3. Basis of quantifying damages

4. Measures of increasing profit of company

Sub Question No: 95: Statutory agencies seem incapable of performing which of the following task?

1. Safety of citizen

2. Plant safety

3. Safety of Community

4. Prevention of disaster

Q146. Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.

From the second half of the nineteenth century to the present, the Geneva Convention 1864,(revised in 1906, 1929, and 1949) and Hague Convention 1899 (revised in 1907) comprised one of the most extensive bodies of positive international law outlining constraints on state behavior. The Geneva and Hague Conventions are noteworthy not only for their content, but also for their widespread ratification. Accepting the Conventions was a prestigious symbol of membership in the exclusive "international society of civilized states," and most states ratified them sooner or later. The Conventions gave combatant victims of war-wounded soldiers and POWs-international rights to medical care and humane conditions of incarceration. The Hague Convention was built on a fundamental distinction between combatants and noncombatants, designed to ensure that Noncombatants did not become victims of war. Noncombatants were not considered legitimate military targets, and military occupation authorities were prohibited from exploiting civilian populations under their control.

Sub Question No 96: What do Hague Convention 1899 and Geneva Convention 1864 primarily outline?

1. Human conditions of incarceration

2. Constraints on State Behaviour

3. Rights of victims of war

4. Rights of wounded soldiers

Sub Question No: 97: What motivated the States to ratify the Geneva and Hague Conventions?

1. The Conventions being prestigious symbol of membership in the international society of civilized states

2. The Conventions being the most extensive body of positive international law

3. As the Conventions enlist constraints on state behaviour

4. As the Conventions prescribe international rights of medical care

Sub Question No: 98: Which International Instrument predominantly ensures that noncombatants did not become victims of war?

1. Positive international law

2. The Geneva Convention

3. The Hague Convention

4. International Humanitarian law

Sub Question No: 99: What makes Geneva Convention (1864) noteworthy?

1. It's content alone

2. It's widespread ratification alone

3. It's content and its wide spread ratification

4. The new international rights created by the Geneva Convention

Sub Question No 100: What was the fundamental distinction on which the Hague Convention was built?

1. Distinction between military occupation and civil population

2. Distinction between positive international law and laws of the war

3. Distinction between combatants and non-combatants

4. Distinction between military targets and military authorities

Answer Key - UGC NET Law June 2024 | Re-Exam

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