UGC NET Paper-II November 2021 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

(1) The statement of circumstances in which the public force will be brought to bear upon men through courts

(2) A social institution to satisfy social wants

(3) Aggregate of rules set by men as politically superior or sovereign, to men as politically subject

(4) A crystallized common sense of communities

2) Which of the following is not correct in relation to rights in its various forms and its correlatives?

(1) Right (Strict sense)–Duty

(2) Liberty–No right

(3) Power–Liberty

(4) Immunity – Disability

3) The main purpose of corporation sole is: ‐

(1) To protect the property of the Government

(2) To make the property easily transferable

(3) To make the property easily inheritable

(4) To make continuity of an office

4) “Every man has a property in his own person, he has right to preserve his property, that is, his life, liberty and estate” is said by:

(1) Bentham

(2) Henry Main

(3) Locke

(4) Laski

5) Under the special powers of Rajya Sabha which of the following resolutions can originate only in Rajya Sabha.

(A) Resolution seeking removal of Vice President

(B) Any resolution seeking creation of one or more all India service

(C) Any resolution seeking legislation on state subject

(D) Introduction of money bills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (D) and (B) only

(4) (A), (B),(C) only

6) Vice President of India on expiry of his term: ‐

(1) Vacates his office

(2) Gets a mandatory extension of 2 months

(3) Continues to hold office until successor enters upon office

(4) Elects his successor before relinquishing office

7) State Emergency or President Rule under Article 356 can be imposed in a State by the President for a maximum period of: ‐

(1) 3 years

(2) 2 years extendable by 1 year

(3) 6 months

(4) 1 year

8) Besides providing for a functional government and consequential growth in the administrative process, the Constitution has provided elaborate control mechanism so that water may not over‐run beyond banks. This has been ensured in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

(1) Art 32, 226, 227

(2) Art 14, 21 and 41

(3) Art 15,16 and 17

(4) Art 246, 247, 248

9) Which of the following groups of Jurists who consider the law as a command of sovereign enforced by a superior political authority and accordingly subscribe to the view that International Law is not law as ‘properly so called’?

(1) Starke, Salmond, Holland

(2) Hart, Starke, Oppenheim

(3) Holland, Oppenheim, Hart

(4) Hobbes, Pufendorf, Austin

10) Which one of the following Geneva conventions has the provisions on, “The protection of the victims of maritime warfare”?

(1) The Second Geneva Convention, 1949

(2) The Third Geneva Convention, 1949

(3) The Fourth Geneva Convention, 1949

(4) The First Geneva Convention, 1949

11) The World Court refused to give its Advisory opinion in which of the following case?

(1) The Genocide Convention case

(2) The legality of the use by a State of Nuclear weapons in Armed conflict

(3) Interpretation of Peace Treaties case

(4) Legality of the Threat or use of Nuclear weapons case

12) Which of the following is not the principal organ of the United Nations?

(1) General Assembly

(2) Economic and Social Council

(3) International Court of Justice

(4) International Human Rights Commission

13) The distinctive features of ‘Rioting’ are an activity which is accompanied by :‐

(1) Use of force and violence

(2) Causing alarm

(3) Violence for a common purpose

(4) Use of abusive language

14) Which among the following is the most serious offence, and thus severely punishable?

(1) Unlawful Assembly

(2) Rioting

(3) Affray

(4) Assault

15) ‘Stalking’ (following a woman despite her disinterest, spying, etc) is an offence under:

(1) Section 354 (1)(ii) IPC

(2) Section 354 B IPC

(3) Section 354 A (1) (iii)

(4) Section354 D IPC

16) In which of the following cases the supreme court observed. “There is a thin line between the preparation for and an attempt to commit an offence”?

(1) State of Maharashtra v. Mohd.Yakul

(2) Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar

(3) Malkiat Singh v. State of Punjab

(4) Om Parkesh v. State of Punjab

17) Motor vehicle Amendment Act of 2019 refer to the earlier Motor vehicle Act of 1988 as:‐

(1) Earlier Act

(2) Old Act

(3) Adapted Act

(4) Principal Act

18) “The courts have created new torts by the gradual and sometimes almost imperceptible extension of old tort”, who said the above statement?

(1) Professor Good hart

(2) Sir Frederick Pollock

(3) Clerk and Lindsell

(4) Salmond

19) Mental condition of a wrong doer at the time of wrong doing is:‐

(1) Relevant in all torts

(2) Relevant is torts based on fault

(3) Relevant in tort based on strict liability

(4) Not relevant at all

20) Section 53 of Consumer Protection Act of 2019 provides for establishment of National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. It is to be known as:‐

(1) National Commission

(2) National Council

(3) National Dispute Redressal Commission

(4) National Dispute Redressal Council

21) In a contract of Guarantee under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 there are: ‐

1) Two parties and two contracts

(2) Three parties and three contracts

(3) Three parties and one contract

(4) Two parties and one contract

22) In case of unascertained goods, the property in goods passes: ‐

(1) When goods are ascertained

(2) When the parties intend the property in goods to pass

(3) As soon as the contract of sale is signed

(4) After the payment of goods is received by the seller

23) Where the money received from a third party by the firm, in ordinary course of business, is misapplied by one of the partners to his own use, then: ‐

(1) Defaulting partner alone is liable for the same

(2) Third party has no remedy

(3) Firm is liable for the same

(4) Firm is not liable for the same

24) Who among the following can remove the name of company from Register of Companies on suo moto basis in terms of Section 248(1) of Companies Act, 2013?

(1) Registrar of Companies

(2) Securities and exchange Board of India

(3) National Company Law Tribunal

(4) Ministry of Corporate Affair

25) Which one of the following is ‘NOT’ a primary source of Muslim Law?

(1) Sunnat

(2) Ijma

(3) Urf

(4) Qiyas

26) Originally under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce was based on:‐

(1) Consent Theory

(2) Breakdown Theory

(3) Fault Theory

(4) Will Theory

27) Which of the following judgment does not deal with the need of enactment of ‘Uniform Civil Code’ in India?

(1) Mohd. Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(2) Ashok Hurra v. Rupa

(3) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

(4) John Vallamatton v. Union of India

28) Which of the following judgment do not deal with the matter of Live‐in relationship?

(1) Indra Sarma v. K.V. Sarma

(2) Sharda v. Dharmpal

(3) S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal

(4) Chanmuniya v. Chanmuniya Kumar Singh

29) The Supreme Court of India recognised the significance of Inter‐generational equity and held a government department’s approval to establish forest based Industry to be invalid in one of the following case:‐

(1) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood products

(2) Vellore citizen’s forum v. Union of India

(3) Dr. B.L. Wadehra v. Union of India

(4) M.C, Metha v. Union of India

30) The preamble to both Environment (Protection) Act and Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act were passed to implement the decision reached in one of the following: ‐

(1) San Francisco Conference, 1945

(2) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, 1992

(3) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, 1972

(4) United Nations Conference on Environment, 1982

31) The Government of India’s policy on abatement of pollution adopted certain guiding principles in the year 1992. Which of the following is not covered under the said guiding principles?

(1) Prevention of pollution at source

(2) Adoption of best available technology

(3) Involvement of NGO’s for all purposes

(4) Public participation in decision making

32) Which one of the following is not the functions of Human Rights Council?

(1) To promote Human Rights education and learning as well as advisory services

(2) To decide issues without making any recommendations to the General Assembly

(3) To work in close cooperation with the Government regional organization, National Human rights institutions and civil society

(4) To serve as forum for dialogue on thematic issues on all Human rights

33) ‘Digital signature’ is defined under which section of information technology Act, 2000?

(1) Section 2 (p)

(2) Section 2 (q)

(3) Section 2 (r)

(4) Section 2 (tb)

34) ‘Cyber security’ is defined under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000?

(1) Section 2 (ua)

(2) Section 2 (za)

(3) Section 2 (nb)

(4) Section 2 (tb

35) The term private key refers to: ‐

(1) Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber

(2) Electronic signature certificate issued under section 35

(3) Key pair in an asymmetric cryptosystem

(4) Key of key pair used to create a digital signature

36) The validity of contracts formed through electronic means is contained under which section of the information technology Act, 2000?

(1) Section 3A

(2) Section 6A

(3) Section 7A

(4) Section 10A

37) The right to information Act, 2005 explains the meaning of information under: ‐

(1) Section 2 (e)

(2) Section 2 (f)

(3) Section 2 (g)

(4) Section 2 (h)

38) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013 came into force in:‐

(1) March 2013

(2) February 2013

(3) January 2013

(4) August 2013

39) Which one of the following is related to Amendment of the U.S. constitution?

(1) Article III

(2) Article IV

(3) Article V

(4) Article VI

40) Section 8(1) of the RTI Act provides how many exemptions from the disclosure of information?

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 10

41) According to prof. Lon L Fullar:‐

(A) Law is the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules

(B) The morality of law has two aspects, external and internal

(C) External morality is the morality of aspiration, ideas from which it is possible to derive a procedural version of natural law

(D) Internal morality of law is a ‘substantive version of natural law’

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

42) In which of the following cases the duties are not specifically enforced in respect of the act done?

(A) The liability of a borrower to repay a debt barred by statute of limitation

(B) The liability of a borrower to repay the money borrowed by him

(C) To refrain the wrong doer from publication when a libel has already been published

(D) To refrain the wrong doer to continue the commission of a nuisance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (B) and (D) only

43) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Global justice inquires about what justice among human beings consists of .

(B) Global justice inquiries take individual human beings as of primary concern and seek to give an account of what fairness among such agents involves.

(C) In the domain of global justice, theorists seek primarily to define justice between states or nations.

(D) In international justice the nation or state is taken as the central entity of concern and justice among nations or states is the focus.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

44) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The Preamble contains in nutshell ideals and aspirations of the Constitution

(B) The Preamble is the key to open the minds of the Constitution makers

(C) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is solemnly resolved to secure to its citizens justice and equity

(D) The Preamble is not the part of the Constitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (C) only

(4) (A) and (B) only

45) Which of the following statements are true under the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 61 deals with procedure for impeachment of the President

(B) Art 142 provides that law declared by the supreme court shall be binding on all courts

(C) Article 122 provides that courts shall not inquire into proceedings of Parliament

(D) Art 163 deals with the extent of executive power of State

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (C) only

(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

46) Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) When a State is defeated or conquered, all the citizens acquire the Nationality of the conquering State. This is called ‘cession’ mode of gain of nationality.

(B) When a person gets Nationality of a State in place of the Nationality of another State. This is called ‘substitution’ mode of loss of nationality.

(C) The Public Trustee case is related to statelessness.

(D) The General Assembly decided to convene a conference to conclude, a convention on reduction of statelessness in 1961.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (A), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

47) Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct?

(A) De Jure Recognition is final, whereas De‐facto Recognition is provisional

(B) De‐Facto Recognition can be withdrawn, but De‐Jure Recognition is irrevocable

(C) De‐Facto Recognition has retrospective operation as exactly as, in the case of De‐ Jure recognition

(D) There is no distinction between De‐Jure and de Facto recognition for the purpose of giving effects to the internal acts of the recognized authority

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (A), (B), (C) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

48) Which of the following statements/statements is/are correct?

(A) On 16th June 1987, the foreign secretaries of South Asian Regional Countries entered into an agreement on Extradition

(B) Hongkong Pact on Extradition with India was entered in the middle of June 1980

(C) India and Germany signed an Extradition Treaty on 27 June, 2001

(D) India and France signed an Extradition Treaty on 24 June, 2002

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (A), (C) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

49) Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) The offence of abetment is defined under section 107 of IPC

(B) The essential ingredient of “the offence of conspiracy is the agreement to commit an offence

(C) The punishment of criminal conspiracy is given under section 120 IPC

(D) State of Tamil Nadu through Superintendent of Police, CBI/SIT V. Nalini is a case related to offence of Abetment

(E) Abetment in India of offences committed outside of India is punishable under section 108A IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

(2) (B), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (E) only

(4) (B), (C) only

50) Which of the following statements/statements are correct?

(A) ‘Theft’ is defined under section 378 IPC, as the dishonest removal of movable property out of the possession of any person without his consent

(B) In the offence of extortion punishment is upto 3 years under section 384 IPC

(C) The offence of ‘Robbery’ is defined under section 391 IPC

(D) Dacoity is Robbery committed by five or more persons

(E) The punishment for ‘Dacoity’ is prescribed under section 392 IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (B), (D) only

(3) (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B) only

51) Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) The offence of ‘sedition’ is defined under section 124A of IPC

(B) The supreme court in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar held that section 124A IPC is not unconstitutional

(C) State (N.C.T. of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu Afsan Guru is a case related to sedition

(D) Mohd. Arif v. State of NCT of Delhi is also known as Mumbai Terror Attack case

(E) Waging or attempt to wage war or abetting waging of war against the Government of India is an offence under section 121 IPC.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (E) only

(4) (D), (E) only

52) In determining relevant geographic markets, competition commission shall keep in mind which of the following factors?

(A) Regulatory trade barriers and natural procurement policies

(B) Language and local specification requirement

(C) Consumer preference and regular supply and after sale service

(D) Transport and distribution factors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (A), (B), (D) only

(3) (D), (C), (B) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

53) Consumer, Mediation Cell has to hold which of the following documents?

(A) List of empanelled mediators

(B) List of all cases handled by the cell

(C) Records of all proceedings

(D) Information specified by regulations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

54) Removal of members of Company Law Appellate Tribunal can be carried out in consultation by:‐

(A) Central Government

(B) Chief Justice

(C) Chairperson of Appellate tribunal

(D) Auditor General

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (C) and (B) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

55) Endorsement of Negotiable instrument followed by delivery

(A) Transfers the property in instrument to endorsee

(B) Transfers the right of further negotiation to the endorsee

(C) May exclude or restrict the right of further negotiation by endorsee

(D) May merely constitute the endorsee as an agent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B), (C) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

56) Under Muslim Law, divorce by common consent is known as:‐

(A) Talaq‐e‐Tafwid

(B) Khula

(C) Lian

(D) Mubarat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (B) only

57) Which of the following are fault grounds of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) Desertion

(B) Cruelty

(C) Consent obtained by force or fraud

(D) Conversion to non-Hindu religion

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (C) only

(4) (A), (B) and (D) only

58) Under the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956

(A) Son of a predeceased daughter is class I heir

(B) Widow of a predeceased son of a pre‐deceased son is class II heir

(C) Mother’s mother is class I heir

(D) Mother’s father is class II heir

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A) and (D) only

(3) (B) and (D) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

59) The National Commission for Women shall perform some of the following functions:

(A) Shall fund litigations involving issues affecting a large body of women

(B) Shall provide, financial assistance to all those who are self employed

(C) Shall call for specific studies or investigation in to specific problems

(D) Shall impose punishment to those found involved in discrimination of women

(E) Shall investigate and examine all matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C), (E) only

(2) (B), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B),(D) only

(4) (E), (A), (B) only

60) Examine the relevancy of class action suit and choose the correct answer:‐

(A) A class action would measurably assist in securing redress in Environmental cases

(B) Monetary recoveries from the tort feasors in environmental cases can only be obtained through a suit

(C) The writ procedure appears more suited than the class action procedure

(D) The most obvious use of class action is in the mass disasters of the sort that occurred in Bhopal

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (D) only

(3) (B), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (C) only

61) The geographical indications are distinctive signs or indications which identify any goods as:

(A) Act of unfair competition under Paris convention, 1967

(B) Originating in a specified territory

(C) Stipulate the misleading test guaranteeing a negative right

(D) Specific quality, reputation and characteristics

(E) Essentially attributable to origin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (D), (B) only

(4) (B), (D), (E) only

62) Nothing in TRIPS agreement, 1995 shall derogate from the existing obligations prescribed under:

(A) Paris Convention, 1967

(B) Rome Convention, 1961

(C) Berne Convention, 1971

(D) Biodiversity Convention, 1992

(E) Integrated Circuit Treaty, 1989

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only

(4) (E), (D), (C), (A) only

63) ‘Computer network’ means the interconnection of one or more computers of computer systems or communication devices through:‐

(A) The use of satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wire, wireless or other communication media

(B) A device or collection of devices including input and output support devices

(C) Any electronic, magnetic, optical and other high speed data processing device

(D) All input, out, processing, storage, computer software or communication facilities

(E) Terminal or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication device

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (D) and (C) only

(3) (E) and (B) only

(4) (A) and (E) only

64) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) In Canada, the federation was not a voluntary union but was imposed by an Act

(B) In India, the Act of 1935 created autonomous units and forged them into a federation

(C) The American Union was formed by voluntary agreement among a number of sovereign states

(D) Indian constitution has been framed by the States and not by the people of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: ‐

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

65) Amendment in the American constitution may by proposed by:‐

(A) Congress with a 2/3 majority in both the Houses of Representatives and the Senate

(B) Congress with a 3/4 majority in both the Houses of Representatives and the Senate

(C) Constitutional convention called by two third of State Legislatures

(D) Constitutional convention called by three fourth of State Legislatures

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

66) Match List I with List II:

(1) A –I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-I , B-III ,C-IV ,D-II

(4) A-II , B-III ,C-I ,D-IV

67) Match List I with List II:

LIST I	LIST II
(A) Art 326 of the Constitution (B) Art 324 (3) of the Constitution (C) Art 328 of the Constitution (D) Art 329 of the Constitution	I. Chief Election Commissioner shall act as the chairman of the Election Commission II. Ban to interference by courts in electoral matters III. Elections to be on the basis of adult suffrage IV. Power of State Legislature to make provisions with respect to elections to such Legislature

(1) A –II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3) A-III , B-IV ,C-I ,D-II

(4)A-I , B-II ,C-IV ,D-III

68) Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Conferences of WTO)	LIST II (Where it was held)
(A) Third Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at (B) Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at (C) Fourth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at (D) Seventh Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at	(I) Hong Kong (China) (II) Seattle (US) (III) Geneva (Switzerland) (IV) Doha (Qatar)

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

69) Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Definitions of)	LIST II (Provisions of IPC)
(A) Solitary confinement (B) Act of a child under seven years of age (C) Communication made in good faith (D) Act causing slight harm	(I) Section 95 IPC (II) Section 93 (III) Section 73 IPC (IV) Section 82 IPC

(1) A –III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(3) A-IV , B-II ,C-III,D-I

(4) A-II , B-III ,C-IV ,D-I

70) Match List I with List II:

LIST I	LIST II
(A) Negligence (B) Strict Liability (C) Absolute Liability (D) Nervous Shock	(I) Ryland v. Fletcher (II) MC Mehta v. Union of India (III) Glasgow Corporation v. Muir (IV) Bourhill v. Young

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

71) Match List I with List II:

LIST I	LIST II
(A) Section 162 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 (B) Section 178 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 (C) Section 214 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 (D) Section 150 of Indian Contract Act, 1872	(I) Pledge by Mercantile Agent (II) Bailor’s duty to disclose faults in goods bailed (III) Termination of gratuitous bailment by death (IV) Agent’s duty to communicate with principal

(1) A –I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(4)A-III , B-I ,C-IV ,D-II

72) Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Sections of CPC)	LIST II
(A) Section 13 (B) Section 2(5) (C) Section 2(6) (D) Section 14	(I) Foreign Court (II) Presumption as to Foreign Judgement (III) When Foreign Judgement not conclusive (IV) Judgement of Foreign Court

(1) A –I, B-II , C-IV, D-III

(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-III, B-I ,C-IV,D-II

(4)A-II , B-IV ,C-III ,D-I

73) Match List I with List II:

LIST I	LIST II
(A) National Human Rights Commission (B) National Commission for Backward Class (C) National Commission for Minorities (D) National Commission for Scheduled Caste	(I) Article 338 (II) State to introduce regulatory regime in the National Interest (III) Power to recommend payment of compensation (IV) Article 338-B

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

74) Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Definitions)	LIST II (Provisions of IT Act)
(A) Computer (B) Computer Network (C) Certifying Authority (D) Computer Resource	(I) Section 2(g) (II) Section 2(k) (III) Section 2(j) (IV) Section 2(i)

(1) A –I, B-II , C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-IV, B-III ,C-I,D-II

(4) A-III, B-IV ,C-II ,D-I

75) Match List I with List II:

LIST I	LIST II
(A) Article 5 (B) Article 3 (C) Chapter V (D) Chapter IV	(I) Presidential Election Nov.7, 2012 (II) Congress on the eve of Presidential Election (III) The Judicial power in American Supreme Court (IV) Amendment of the Constitution

(1) A –I, B-II , C-IV, D-III

(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-III ,C-II, D-I

(4) A-II, B-IV ,C-III ,D-I

76) Arrange in chronological order the publication of the books on Jurisprudence:

(A) A Practical Treatise of Architectural Jurisprudence by James Elmes

(B) The Spirit of Common Law by Roscoe Pound

(C) World Poverty and Human Rights by Thomas Pogge

(D) Taking Rights Seriously by Ronald Dworkin

(E) The Growth of the Law by Benjamin N. Cardozo

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)

(2) (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

(3) (A), (B), (E), (D), (C)

(4) (B), (A), (E), (C), (D)

77) Chronologically arrange (Article wise) the following provisions of the Constitution of India:

(A) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim

(B) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Karnataka

(C) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Manipur

(D) Special Provisions with respect to the State of Nagaland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (D), (A), (B)

(2) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(3) (D), (C), (A), (B)

(4) (C), (D), (B), (A)

78) Indicate the correct chronological order of years the following cases they were decided:

(A) Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear

(B) Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)

(C) The Caroline case

(D) R. v. Keyn

(E) Chorzow factory (Indemnity) case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (E), (D), (C), (B), (A)

(3) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)

(4) (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)

79) Indicate the chronological order of the years of the following cases as decided by the Supreme Court:

(A) State of T.N. v. Balkrishna

(B) Mangesh v. State of Maharashtra

(C) Ram Kumar v. State of M.P.

(D) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra

(E) Mahesh Chander v. State of Delhi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (E), (C), (B), (D), (A)

(3) (D), (A), (B), (C), (E)

(4) (C), (D), (A), (B), (C)

80) Arrange the correct sequence in which the liability for tort will arise for the following:‐

(A) Damages

(B) Breach of duty

(C) Duty to take care

(D) Causation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (A), (D)

(3) (C), (B), (D), (A)

(4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

81) Arrange the provisions of the Indian Contract Act 1872 in chronological order (Section wise)

(A) Who are competent to contract

(B) Effect of mistakes as to law

(C) What agreements are contracts

(D) Agreement in restraint of marriage is void

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐

(1) (C), (A), (D), (B)

(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(3) (C), (A), (B), (D)

(4) (A), (C), (D), (B)

82) Arrange in chronological order the following judgments on cruelty as a ground of divorce

(A) A. Jaya Chandra v. Aneel Kaur

(B) Naveen Kohli v. Neelu Kohli

(C) Dastane v. Dastane

(D) Bhagat v. Bhagat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (D), (A)

(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(3) (C), (D), (A), (B)

(4) (D), (C), (A), (B)

83) Arrange the following in chronological order

(A) United Nation Conference on the Human Environment

(B) United Nation Conference on Sustainable Development

(C) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

(D) World Commission on Environment and Development

(E) United Nations Sustainable Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)

(3) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

(4) (E), (D), (B), (C), (A)

84) Prof. William Fisher identified four analytical constructs of theories of intellectual property under which of the following sequence?

(A) Personality Theory

(B) Labour Theory

(C) Social Planning Theory

(D) Utilitarian Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (A), (D), (C)

(2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

3) (D), (B), (A), (C)

(4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

85) The trend towards codification of the British constitution in whole or in part is a movement during the past decade from eminent quarters. Arrange them in chronological order:

(A) Northern Ireland Act

(B) Referendum Act

(C) Scotland Act

(D) European Communities Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(2) (B), (C), (A), (D)

(3) (D), (A), (B), (C)

(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

86) Given below are two statements:

Assertion A: The rule-making power of the Supreme Court for regulating the practice and procedure of the court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India

Reason R: Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the right of individual without fear or favour.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

87) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reasons R.

Assertion A : The right of private defence of body extends to causing of death to the Assailant in case of assault of throwing or administering acid or an attempt to throw or administer acid which may reasonably cause the apprehension that grievous hurt will otherwise be the consequences of such Act.

Reason R : This provision was inserted under clause (7) of section 100 IPC by Act 13 of 2013 in view of increasing cases of acid throwing on the girls and women in India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is correct but R is not correct

(4) A is not correct but R is correct

88) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dominant position means position of strength enjoyed by an enterprise in relevant market in India which enables it to opreate independently of operative forces and affects competitors and consumers in its favour.

Statement II: No enterprise shall abuse its dominant position.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

89) Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reasons R.

Assertion A: Under the companies Act of 2013 Central Government is authorized to implement a facility to file documents in electronic form.

Reason R: Central Government is authorised to make rules to implement this facility and section 398, 401 and 402 have been incorporated in the Act of 2013.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

90) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: No person except the father or mother of a child shall have the capacity to give the child in adoption under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act 1956.

Statement II: Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act 1956, the same child may not be adopted simultaneously by two or more persons.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

91) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably inter-twined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital maters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.

The referred paragraph is taken from the judgement of the Supreme Court in

(1) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. S. Shukla

(2) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

(3) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(4) Justice K.S. Puttaswami (Retd.) and another v. Union of India and others

92) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably inter-twined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is a subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital matters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.

The referred paragraph is a part of the judgement delivered by:

(1) Justice Chelameshwar

(2) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

(3) Justice S.A. Bobde

(4) Justice F.M. Nariman

93) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably inter-twined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital maters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.

In which of the following case it was held that right to privacy is not protected as a fundamental right under the Constitution?

(1) M.P, Sharma V. Satish Chandra, District Magistrate, Delhi

(2) Govind V. State of M.P.

(3) R. Rajagopal V. State of Tamil Nadu

(4) K.S. Puttaswami V. Union of India

94) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably inter-twined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital maters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.

In which of the following case it was held that the procedure established by law means the procedure must be just, fair and reasonable?

(1) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P

(2) A.K. Gopalan v. Union of India

(3) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(4) Govind v. State of M.P.

95) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, human dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseparably inter-twined, each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realisation of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital maters of concern to life. Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it, once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.

Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Right to privacy is expressly provided as a fundamental right under the Constitution

(2) Right to privacy is protected as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the constitution

(3) Right to privacy is not protected as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the constitution

(4) Article 21 of the constitution protects the life and personal liberty only from executive action

96) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

The acceptance of international law as law poses the problem of explaining its binding force, and this in turn raises questions as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law.

But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding, not that they are legally binding. Moreover, many legal rules are morally indifferent; morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be, such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances; and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rule can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristics.

According to Austin, the positive law has following three attributes:

(1) Command, Sovereign, Obedience

(2) Command, Sovereign, Sanction

(3) Command, Obedience, Sanction

(4) Sovereign, Obedience, Sanction

97) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

The acceptance of international law as law poses the problem of explaining its binding force, and this in turn raises questions as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law.

But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding, not that they are legally binding. Moreover, many legal rules are morally indifferent; morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be, such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances; and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rule can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristics.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Starke and Kelsen contend that there is both legislation and law enforcement in international law

(2) According to Starke, legislation being provided by multilateral treaties in international law

(3) According to Kelsen, sanctions are provided by the right of self‐help and war in international law

(4) Treaties and self‐help can qualify as legislation and law‐enforcement in a positivist sense

98) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

The acceptance of international law as law poses the problem of explaining its binding force, and this in turn raises questions as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law.

But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding, not that they are legally binding. Moreover, many legal rules are morally indifferent; morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be, such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances; and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rule can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristics.

Who defines law ‘as a body of rules for human conduct within a community, which by common consent of this community shall be enforced by external power?

(1) Oppenheim

(2) Austin

(3) Bentham

(4) Friedman

99) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

The acceptance of international law as law poses the problem of explaining its binding force, and this in turn raises questions as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law.

But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding, not that they are legally binding. Moreover, many legal rules are morally indifferent; morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be, such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances; and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rule can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristics.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Hart’s analysis of law suggests that international law consists of legal rules forming not a system but a set of rules.

(2) The absence in international law of any basic rules of recognition prevents its being unified into a system

(3) International law remains a mere set of separate rules

(4) Many of the rules of international law rest on treaty, not on custom

100) Read the given Passage and answer the questions as follows:

The acceptance of international law as law poses the problem of explaining its binding force, and this in turn raises questions as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law.

But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding, not that they are legally binding. Moreover, many legal rules are morally indifferent; morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be, such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances; and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rule can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristics.

The view that international law consisted of the precepts dictated to States by natural law was advanced by:

(1) Kelsen

(2) Vattel

(3) HLA Hart

(4) Salmond

Answer
PAPER II(Law)