Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2016 Solved Papers | Download PDF

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Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2016 | Click Here to Download PDF

COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT UG) 2016

Duration of Test: 2 Hours (120 minutes)

Maximum Marks: 200

Section I – English including Comprehension

Direction for Questions 1-10: Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option:

1. The method and practice of teaching is called ………….

1. training
2. paediatrics
3. pedagogy
4. philately.

Answer: (c)

2. There isn’t …………. water in the overhead tank.

1. some
2. little
3. any
4. lot of.

Answer: (c)

3. Professor Ahmed …………. teaching us …………. August, 2012.

1. had been, since
2. has been, for
3. has been, since
4. was, for.

Answer: (c)

4. It’s unfortunate that he died …………. cancer.

1. with
2. of
3. from
4. by.

Answer: (b)

5. A fire broke …………. in the neighbourhood.

1. from
2. away
3. off
4. out.

Answer: (d)

6. I like reading journals …………. novels.

1. most than
2. more than
3. the best
4. the less than.

Answer: (b)

7. There is a lot of work …………. hand. Let’s cancel …………. picnic.

1. in, a
2. in, the
3. upon, the
4. on, a.

Answer: (b)

8. If you promise …………. angry with me, I’ll tell you what I broke.

1. get not
2. not get
3. not to get
4. no getting.

Answer: (c)

9. They always give the available seats to …………. comes first.

1. whoever
2. whom
3. whichever
4. whomever.

Answer: (a)

10. A thief does not …………. the door.

1. knock to
2. knock on
3. knock at
4. knock.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 11-15: Choose the correct spellings in questions given below:

11. Choose the correct spellings

1. deceive
2. decieve
3. deceeve
4. diecieve.

Answer: (a)

12. Choose the correct spellings

1. integerity
2. integrity
3. intigerity
4. integerety.

Answer: (b)

13. Choose the correct spellings

1. berister
2. barisster
3. berrister
4. barrister.

Answer: (d)

14. Choose the correct spellings

1. collaborrate
2. colaborate
3. collaborate
4. collaborat.

Answer: (c)

15. Choose the correct spellings

1. sacribegous
2. saereligious
3. sacrilegious
4. sacrilegiuos.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 16-20: Complete the sentences with the correct options:

16. Her parents have arrived …….. the airport.

1. at
2. to
3. on
4. in.

Answer: (a)

17. They returned home …….. a taxi.

1. from
2. on
3. with
4. in.

Answer: (d)

18. I can’t bear …….. late.

1. to
2. being
3. been
4. be.

Answer: (b)

19. I have never come …….. any one as rude as him.

1. around
2. at
3. to
4. accross.

Answer: (d)

20. Mani, along with his friends, …….. for basketball practice every morning.

1. goes
2. go
3. are going
4. were going.

Answer: (a)

Direction for Questions 21-24: Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

21. “Ab initio” means:

1. in continuation with
2. from the beginning
3. in connection with the future
4. in defence of a comment.

Answer: (b)

22. “Amicus curiae” means:

1. One among the parties to the dispute
2. One among the expert witnesses in a case
3. One of the judges of the court
4. A friend of the court.

Answer: (d)

23. “Faux pas” means:

1. false
2. expected to happen
3. social blunder
4. fake identity.

Answer: (c)

24. “To bury the hatchet” means:

1. to end a feud with an enemy
2. to plant grass in the field
3. to cremate carcass of an animal
4. to hide some treasure.

Answer: (a)

Direction for Questions 25-28: Choose the correct option for each of the following questions:

25. Choose the correct option

1. Your grammar is very good but you need to work on correcting your pronunciation
2. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on managing your pronunciation
3. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on repairing your pronunciation
4. Your grammar is very good, but you need to work on modifying your pronunciation.

Answer: (a)

26. Choose the correct option

1. Please stop interfering with my romantic life
2. Please stop interfering in my romantic life
3. Please stop interfering into my romantic life
4. Please stop interfering for my romantic life.

Answer: (b)

27. Choose the correct option

1. The Film Star climbed off the car and smiled at the people
2. The Film Star got out of the car and smiled at the people
3. The Film Star got off the car and smiled at the people
4. The Film Star come out of the car and smiled at the people.

Answer: (b)

28. Choose the correct option

1. The Titanic did not reach her destination
2. The Titanic did not reach their destination
3. The Titanic did not reach his destination
4. The Titanic did not reach its destination.

Answer: (a)

Direction for Questions 29 and 30: Complete the proverb, in the following questions:

29. …………. waters run ………….

1. Stagnant, leisurely
2. Hot, fast
3. Still, deep
4. Muddy, slow.

Answer: (c)

30. When …………. is bliss, it is …………. to be wise.

1. ignorance, folly
2. knowledge, better
3. bachelorhood, single
4. romance, boring.

Answer: (a)

Direction for Questions 31-40: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions from 31-40.

1. Often, we passionately pursue matters that in the future appear to be contradictory to our real intention or nature; and triumph is followed by remorse or regret. There are numerous examples of such a trend in the annals of history and contemporary life.
2. Alfred Nobel was the son of Immanuel Nobel, an inventor who experimented extensively with explosives. Alfred too carried out research and experiments with a large range of chemicals; he found new methods to blast rocks for the construction of roads and bridges; he was engaged in the development of technology and different weapons; his life revolved around rockets and cannons and gun powder. The ingenuity of the scientist brought him enough wealth to buy the Bofors armament plant in Sweden.
3. Paradoxically, Nobel’s life was a busy one yet he was lonely; and as he grew older, he began suffering from guilt of having invented the dynamite that was being used for destructive purposes. He set aside a huge part of his wealth to institute Nobel Prizes. Besides honouring men and women for their extraordinary achievements in physics, chemistry, medicine and literature, he wished to honour people who worked for the promotion of peace.
4. It’s strange that the very man whose name was closely connected with explosives and inventions that helped in waging wars willed a large part of his earnings for the people who work for the promotion of peace and the benefit of mankind. The Nobel Peace Prize is intended for a person who has accomplished the best work for fraternity among nations, for abolition or reduction of war and for promotion of peace.
5. Another example that comes to one’s mind is that of Albert Einstein. In 1939, fearing that the Nazis would win the race to build the world’s first atomic bomb, Einstein urged President Franklin D Roosevelt to launch an American programme on nuclear research. The matter was considered and a project called the Manhattan Project was initiated. The project involved intense nuclear research the construction of the world’s first atomic bomb. All this while, Einstein had the impression that the bomb would be used to protect the world from the Nazi s. But in 1945, when Hiroshima was bombed to end World War II, Einstein was deeply grieved and he regretted his endorsement of the need for nuclear research.
6. He also stated that had he known that the Germans would be unsuccessful in making the atomic bomb, he would have probably never recommended making one. In 1947, Einstein began working for the cause of disarmament. But, Einstein’s name still continues to be linked with the bomb. Man’s fluctuating thoughts, changing opinions, varying opportunities keep the mind in a state of flux. Hence, the paradox of life: it’s certain that nothing is certain in life.

31. The passage is ………………………..

1. an argumentative essay
2. a descriptive essay
3. an expository essay
4. a process essay.

Answer: (b)

32. Immanuel’s interest in dynamites influenced Alfred’s inclination for working ………………………..

1. with explosives
2. for humanity
3. for the Nobel Peace Prize
4. with contradiction.

Answer: (a)

33. Working with arms and ammunition helped Alfred to amass ………………………..

1. intelligence
2. wealth
3. popularity
4. enemies.

Answer: (b)

34. One of the paradoxes in Alfred’s life was that he was ……………………..

1. intelligent yet lonely
2. occupied yet lonely
3. hard working but a failure
4. lonely yet rich.

Answer: (b)

35. Alfred established the Nobel Prizes to…

1. honour only those people who are intelligent
2. use his wealth for hard working people
3. ease his guilt and promote work for the betterment of mankind
4. remind people of his achievements.

Answer: (c)

36. The Manhattan Project was initiated ………………………..

1. to bomb Hiroshima
2. to protect the Nazis
3. in honour of Einstein
4. to carry out nuclear research.

Answer: (d)

37. Einstein had the impression that the Germans would…

1. be unsuccessful in making the atomic bomb
2. be successful in making the world’s first atomic bomb
3. bomb Hiroshima
4. work for humanity.

Answer: (b)

38. The paradox, ‘it’s certain that nothing is certain in life’, indicates the writer’s
    ……………………..

1. persuasive nature
2. hatred for scientists
3. scientific mind
4. analytical mind.

Answer: (d)

39. In paragraph 4, the word ‘accomplished’ means ………………………..

1. worked hard
2. completed successfully
3. made an effort to do something
4. won awards.

Answer: (b)

40. In the fifth paragraph, the word ‘endorsement’ means ………………………..

1. expressing one’s regret
2. expressing one’s approval or support
3. making a promise to do something
4. expressing one’s opposition.

Answer: (b)

Section II – General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Direction for Questions 41-90: Choose the most appropriate option:

41. The “Paris Agreement” was adopted in the twenty first session of Conference of Parties in the month of:

1. November, 2015
2. December, 2015
3. January, 2016
4. February, 2016.

Answer: (b)

42. Which State of India was declared in January, 2016 as the “first organic farming State of India”?

1. Punjab
2. Haryana
3. Kerala
4. Sikkim.

Answer: (d)

43. Which day is celebrated as “World Consumer Rights Day”?

1. 15th March
2. 5th June
3. 15th July
4. 5th September.

Answer: (a)

44. Prime Minister, Mr. Narendra Modi, in March, 2016, launched an ambitious programme “Setu Bharatam”. The programme is aimed at:

1. Providing travel concession to women and children throughout India
2. Providing travel concession to senior citizens throughout India
3. Making all National Highways railway level crossing free by 2019
4. Linking all major cities and towns by rail, air and road by 2019.

Answer: (c)

45. In which of the following States / Union Territories, the Election Commission has decided to hold election in a single phase on May 16, 2016?

1. Assam, Kerala and Pondicherry
2. West Bengal, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
3. West Bengal, Kerala and Assam
4. Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry.

Answer: (d)

46. The Parliament of which country became first Parliament in the world to run entirely on Solar Power?

1. Pakistan
2. India
3. UK
4. Japan.

Answer: (a)

47. Who is the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission?

1. Justice B.S. Chauhan
2. Justice H.L. Dattu
3. Justice Balakrishnan
4. Justice D.K. Jain.

Answer: (b)

48. Punjabi has become the ………. most common language in the Parliament of Canada.

1. second
2. third
3. fourth
4. fifth.

Answer: (b)

49. In January, 2016, at the first stage, the Union Ministry of Urban Development unveiled the list of …….. cities for smart cities mission out of 98 shortlisted cities.

1. 15
2. 20
3. 25
4. 30.

Answer: (b)

50. Under the Constitution of India the official language of the Union is:

1. English
2. Hindi
3. Hindi in Devanagari Script
4. English and Hindi.

Answer: (c)

51. Power to summon the Houses of the Parliament is vested with:

1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Speaker and Vice-President.

Answer: (a)

52. Which State has become the first State to introduce compulsory gender education at the graduate level?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Kerala
4. Punjab.

Answer: (b)

53. Name the Indian Gymnast who has become the first female Indian Gymnast to qualify for the Olympics.

1. Dipa Karmakar
2. Anjubala
3. Rupinder Kaur
4. Bisweshwari Nandi.

Answer: (a)

54. In April 2016, The Duke and Duchess of Cambridge visited India. Their names are:

1. Prince Charles and Cathy
2. Prince Robert and Kateler
3. Prince William and Kate Middleton
4. Prince Hillery and Victoria.

Answer: (c)

55. Who was crowned as the winner of Femina Miss India 2016 and who will represent India at the Miss World pageant?

1. Pankhuri Gidwani
2. Priyadarshini Chatterjee
3. Sushruthi Krishna
4. Sushobita Kapoor.

Answer: (b)

56. In 2015, Prime Minister Mr. Narendra Modi launched a new campaign,” Start up India, Stand up India”. The campaign is aimed at:

1. Promoting Swachh Bharat
2. Making India Digital
3. Promoting bank financing for startups and offer incentives to boost entrepreneurship and job creation
4. Promoting free education to all children below the age of 14 years and assuring them jobs after obtaining higher education.

Answer: (c)

57. Who is the President of Sri Lanka?

1. Maithripala Sirisena
2. Ranil Wickramasinghe
3. Sripavan
4. Jayavardane.

Answer: (a)

58. India signed the “Paris Agreement on Climate Change” in April, 2016 at:

1. Paris
2. New Delhi
3. New York
4. Geneva.

Answer: (c)

59. The direction to hold floor test to prove majority in the Legislative Assembly of Uttarakhand, to be held on 10th May, 2016 has been given on 6th May, 2016, by:

1. The Supreme Court of India
2. The High Court of Uttarakhand
3. The President of India
4. The Governor of Uttarakhand.

Answer: (a)

60. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in framing the Indian Constitution?

1. Sir B.N. Rau
2. B.R. Ambedkar
3. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Rajendra Prasad.

Answer: (a)

61. Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

1. Narendra Modi
2. Arun Jaitely
3. Sushma Swaraj
4. Sushmita Mahajan.

Answer: (a)

62. The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 was enacted to give effect to:

1. the acquiring of territories by India from Bangladesh
2. transfer of certain territories by India to Bangladesh
3. the transfer of certain territories by India to Bangladesh and transfer of certain territories from Bangladesh to India
4. National Judicial Appointment Commission.

Answer: (c)

63. A Japanese maglev, which is the fastest passenger train in the world, has broken its own record in 2015. The train reached …….. kmph in the test run.

1. 453
2. 503
3. 403
4. 603.

Answer: (d)

64. In case the President of India wants to resign, he shall address his resignation to the:

1. Prime Minister
2. Vice-President
3. Chief Election Commissioner
4. Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (b)

65. Who has written the book “Indomitable Spirit”?

1. Narendra Modi
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
3. Justice Krishna Iyer
4. Arundhati Roy.

Answer: (b)

66. “Beyond the Lines – An Autobiography” is authored by:

1. Kuldip Nayar
2. Arun Shourie
3. Justice Krishna Iyer
4. Soli Sarab Ji.

Answer: (a)

67. Parliament of India consists of:

1. House of the People
2. House of the People and Council of States
3. Council of States
4. President, House of the People and Council of States.

Answer: (d)

68. The maximum number of ‘Smokeless Villages’ are found in the State of:

1. Telangana
2. Rajasthan
3. Punjab
4. Karnataka.

Answer: (d)

69. How many Indian Universities/Institutes figure among the top 200 in BRICS rankings?

1. 6
2. 16
3. 20
4. 26.

Answer: (b)

70. Who lit the torch from the sun’s rays reflected in a parabolic mirror during the Olympic flame lighting ceremony for the Rio 2016 Olympic Games at the site of ancient Olympia in Greece on 22nd April, 2016?

1. Katerina Kaif
2. Katerina Lehou
3. Joanie Laureh aka Chyna
4. Ronaldo.

Answer: (b)

71. Which country is the first developed nation to default on debt of IMF?

1. Greece
2. Japan
3. USA
4. UK.

Answer: (a)

72. Who is the Chairman of National Green Tribunal?

1. Justice Balakrishna Reddy
2. Justice R.C. Lahoti
3. Justice Bhandhari
4. Justice Swatanter Kumar.

Answer: (d)

73. Which State has the largest number of foreign students in India?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Haryana
4. Karnataka.

Answer: (d)

74. Country’s first ‘visually-challenged friendly’ railway station is in:

1. Varanasi
2. Tirupathi
3. Mysuru
4. New Delhi.

Answer: (c)

75. In case of death of both the President and Vice-President of India, who shall act as the President of India?

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Justice of India
3. The Parliament will nominate from among its Members
4. Attorney General of India.

Answer: (b)

76. Which organization has the motto ‘Be Prepared’?

1. National Disaster Management Authority
2. National Cadet Corps
3. Boys’ Scout
4. National Service Scheme.

Answer: (c)

77. The highest peace time gallantry award Ashok Chakra was awarded posthumously during 2016 to:

1. Mohan Nath Goswami
2. Jagdish Chand
3. Mahendra Singh
4. Rajesh Atra.

Answer: (a)

78. The country which cloned a buffalo calf first is:

1. Sweden
2. Denmark
3. India
4. S.A.

Answer: (c)

79. The largest diaspora in the world is from:

1. Mexico
2. China
3. India
4. South Africa.

Answer: (c)

80. Name the country that has six Deputy Prime Ministers.

1. Maldives
2. Nigeria
3. Nicaragua
4. Nepal.

Answer: (d)

81. Who has scored the fastest century in a Test Cricket match?

1. Vivian Richards, West Indies
2. Brendon McCullum, New Zealand
3. Misbah Ul Haq, Pakistan
4. AB de Villiers, South Africa.

Answer: (b)

82. Mars is also known as the:

1. Blue Planet
2. Red Planet
3. Brown Planet
4. Green Planet.

Answer: (b)

83. Who was conferred the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award during August, 2015?

1. Sania Mirza
2. Saina Nehwal
3. Virat Kohli
4. Dhoni.

Answer: (a)

84. The Rajya Sabha in April, 2016 passed two Bills, which had already been passed by the Lok Sabha earlier, repealing certain outdated/old laws. The Bills intended to repeal:

1. 153 laws
2. 513 laws
3. 315 laws
4. 1053 laws.

Answer: (d)

85. At the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships held at Doha in February, 2016, who among women won the gold medal in Long Jump?

1. Mayooka Johny of India
2. Olga Rypakova of Khazakhstan
3. Irina Ektova of Khazakhstan
4. Prajusha of India.

Answer: (a)

86. …………….. is the fastest planet to revolve around the Sun.

1. Venus
2. Mars
3. Mercury
4. Jupiter.

Answer: (c)

87. Who is the Union Finance Minister of India?

1. Sushma Swaraj
2. Rajnath Singh
3. D.V. Sadananda Gowda
4. Arun Jaitely.

Answer: (d)

88. In an attempt to curb black money, the Government has made PAN mandatory for all financial transactions exceeding Rupees:

1. 1 lakhs
2. 2 lakhs
3. 3 lakhs
4. 4 lakhs.

Answer: (b)

89. Who is the author of “Crime & Punishment”?

1. Karl Marx
2. Geoffrey Chaucer
3. Harold Joseph Laski
4. Fyodor Dostoevsky.

Answer: (d)

90. The Currency of Thailand is:

1. Peseta
2. Rupee
3. Baht
4. Ringgit.

Answer: (c)

Section III – Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)

Direction for Questions 91-110: Choose the most appropriate option:

91. What is the sum of all the natural numbers from 1 to 100?

1. 5000
2. 6000
3. 5050
4. 5052.

Answer: (c)

92. A patient in a hospital is given soup daily in a cylindrical bowl of diameter 7 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to a height of 4 cm, how much soup the hospital has to prepare daily to serve 250 patients?

1. 5 liters
2. 5 liters
3. 40 liters
4. 38 liters.

Answer: (a)

93. The traffic lights at three different signal points change after every 45 seconds, 75 seconds and 90 seconds respectively. If all change simultaneously at 7:20:15 hours, then they will change again simultaneously at:

1. 7:27:30 hours
2. 7:27:50 hours
3. 7:28:00 hours
4. 7:27:45 hours.

Answer: (d)

94. A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man expects to have an interest of 12% on his money. The market value of each share is:

1. 21
2. 18
3. 12
4. 15.

Answer: (d)

95. The value of a machine depreciates every year at the rate of 10% on its value at the beginning of that year. If the present value of the machine is Rs. 729, its worth three years ago was:

1. 1,000
2. 947.70
3. 750.87
4. 800.

Answer: (a)

96. 60 kg of an alloy X is mixed with 100 kg of an alloy Y. If alloy X has lead and tin in the ratio of 3:2 and alloy Y has tin and copper in the ratio of 1:4, then the amount of tin in the new alloy is:

1. 36 kgs
2. 44 kgs
3. 53 kgs
4. 80 kgs.

Answer: (b)

97. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. What is the average number of visitors per day in the month of June beginning with a Sunday?

1. 285
2. 280
3. 276
4. 250.

Answer: (a)

98. The angles between the hands of a clock when the time is 4:25 am is:

1. 12 ½ degrees
2. 13 ½ degrees
3. 14 ½ degrees
4. 17 ½ degrees.

Answer: (d)

99. A shop gives 15% discount on the purchase of a T.V. If paid for in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the marked price is Rs. 15,000, what is the price of the T.V if cash purchase is made?

1. 12,750
2. 11,475
3. 11,220
4. 10,950.

Answer: (c)

100. 12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.

1. 10/12
2. 11/12
3. 7/12
4. 9/12.

Answer: (b)

101. If the product of zeroes of the polynomial ax² – 6x – 6 is 4, find the value of ‘a’.

1. -1/2
2. 1/2
3. -3/2
4. 3/2.

Answer: (c)

102. A part of monthly hostel charges is fixed and the remaining depends on the number of days one has taken food in the mess. When a student A takes food for 20 days, she has to pay Rs. 1,000 as hostel charge s whereas a student B, who takes food for 26 days, pays Rs. 1, 180 as hostel charges. Find the fixed charges and the cost of food per day.

1. 300, Rs. 30
2. 400, Rs. 30
3. 200, Rs. 20
4. 400, Rs. 40.

Answer: (b)

103. A man earns Rs. 20 on the first day and spends Rs. 15 on the next day. He again earns Rs. 20 on the third day and spends Rs. 15 on the fourth day. If he continues to save in this way, how soon will he have Rs. 60 in hand?

1. on 24th day
2. on 12th day
3. on 27th day
4. on 17th day.

Answer: (d)

104. A train which is moving at an average speed of 40 kmph, reaches its destination on time. When its average speed reduces to 35 kmph, the n it reaches its destination 15 minutes late. The distance travelled by the train is:

1. 30 kms
2. 40 kms
3. 70 kms
4. 80 kms.

Answer: (c)

105. The mean of 72 items was found to be 63. If two of the items were mis-recorded as 27 and 9 instead of 72 and 90 respectively, find the correct mean.

1. 25
2. 75
3. 75
4. 25.

Answer: (c)

106. A circular park, 42 m in diameter, has a path 3.5 m wide running around it on the outside. Find the cost of gravelling the path at Rs. 4 per m².

1. 1, 652
2. 2, 002
3. 2, 048
4. 1, 672.

Answer: (b)

107. Two consecutive even positive integers, sum of the squares of which is 1,060 are:

1. 12 and 14
2. 20 and 22
3. 22 and 24
4. 16 and 18.

Answer: (c)

108. The number of ‘three digit numbers’ which are multiples of 9 are:

1. 98
2. 99
3. 100
4. 101.

Answer: (c)

109. The angle subtended by the Minor segment of a circle at the center is …………… the angle subtended by the Major segment at the center of the circle.

1. lesser than
2. greater than
3. equal to
4. not related to.

Answer: (a)

110. If a boy is standing at the top of the tower and another boy is at the ground at some distance from the foot of the tower, then the angle of elevation and depression between the boys when both look at each other will be:

1. Equal
2. Angle of elevation will be greater
3. Angle of depression will be greater
4. Cannot be predicted for relation.

Answer: (a)

Section IV – Legal Aptitude

Direction for Questions 111-145: This section consists of Fifty (50) questions. Follow the instructions carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

The question numbers 111 -145 in this section consist of legal proposition(s)/ principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this Section. In other words, in answering the following questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the “most reasonable conclusion” arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason.

To answer a question, the given principle is to be applied to the given facts so as to arrive at most reasonable conclusion. Only one of the options, i.e., (A), (B), (C), or (D) is the most reasonable conclusion.

111. Principle: Acceptance of proposal must be the exact mirror image of the proposal.

Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to ‘B’ to sell a chair for Rs. 500. ‘B’ expressed his desire to buy the said chair for Rs. 400.

1. ‘B’ has accepted the proposal of ‘A’
2. ‘B’ has not accepted the proposal of ‘A’
3. It is not clear whether ‘B’ has accepted the proposal of ‘A’ or not
4. It is not clear whether A made a proposal to ‘B’.

Answer: (b)

112. Principle: Sale of liquor is illegal. All agreements relating to prohibited items do not exist in the eyes of law.

Facts: ‘A’ entered into an agreement with ‘B’ for the sale of liquor. ‘A’ failed to supply the agreed quantity of liquor to ‘B’.

1. ‘B’ can bring a legal action against ‘B’
2. ‘B’ cannot bring any legal action against ‘A’
3. ‘A’ can bring a legal action against ‘B’
4. ‘A’ and ‘B’ can initiate appropriate legal proceeding against each other.

Answer: (b)

113. Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud.

Facts: ‘A’ sells to ‘B’ (A’s daughter who is minor) a horse which ‘A’ knows to be unsound. ‘A’ says nothing to ‘B’ about the unsoundness of the horse.

1. ‘A’ has committed fraud
2. ‘A’ has not committed fraud
3. There cannot be a contract between a father and daughter
4. ‘B’ can take plea of fraud because she is minor.

Answer: (b)

114. Principle: Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so or to provide gratuitously, and such other person takes the benefit of that; the latter is bound to compensate the former for something done or thing provided, or to restore, the thing so delivered.

Facts: Trader ‘A’ delivers certain eatables at B’s house by mistake. ‘B’ consumed the eatables without asking anything. Which of the following derivations is correct?

1. ‘B’ is bound to pay ‘A’ for the eatables
2. ‘B’ is not bound to pay ‘A’ for the eatables
3. ‘B’ can be made liable to pay for the eatables, only if ‘A’ establishes an express contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’
4. It is the discretion of ‘B’ to make payment to ‘A’.

Answer: (a)

115. Principle: The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Facts: ‘A’ sent a letter making a proposal to ‘B’ to purchase the house of ‘B’.

1. The communication of proposal is complete when A sent the letter
2. The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife received it
3. The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife handed over the letter to ‘B’
4. The communication of proposal is complete when ‘B’ reads the letter.

Answer: (d)

116. Principle: An agreement without free consent can be enforced only at the option of the party whose consent was not free.

Facts: A obtains the consent of ‘B’ to enter into an agreement by putting a gun on the head of B’s girlfriend.

1. ‘B’ can enforce the agreement
2. ‘B’ cannot enforce the agreement
3. ‘A’ can enforce the agreement
4. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ can enforce the agreement.

Answer: (a)

117. Principle: A person, who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally normal, may make a contract when he is not of unsound mind.

Facts: ‘A’ generally remains in the state of unsound mind and rarely becomes capable of understanding the things.

1. ’A’ can make a contract when normal
2. ‘A’ can never make a contract
3. ‘A’ can make a contract at any time whenever he pleases
4. ‘A’ can make a contract only for his own benefit.

Answer: (a)

118. Principle: Law never enforces an impossible promise.

Facts: ‘A’ made a promise to ‘B’ to discover treasure by magic.

1. Law will enforce the promise
2. Law will not enforce the promise
3. Law will enforce the promise only at the option of ‘A’
4. Law will enforce the promise only at the option of ‘B’.

Answer: (b)

119. Principle: An agreement may be entered into orally or in writing, or by conduct.

Facts: ‘A’ went to the shop of ‘B’ and picked a toothbrush and gave a cheque of Rupees twenty to ‘B’ and left the shop.

1. There was an agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’
2. ‘A’ did not enter into an agreement with ‘B’
3. Payment of toothbrush cannot be made through a cheque
4. ‘A’ should have carried a currency note of rupees twenty to make the payment.

Answer: (a)

120. Principles:

• Wagering agreements are void.
• Collateral agreements to wagering contracts are valid.

Facts: XYZ Bank lends Rs. 40, 000 to Sabu in order to enable him to a ward as prize to Randeep who is the winner of horse race. Later Sabu refuses to pay the prize stating that horse racing is wagering agreement. Can XYZ Bank recover money from Sabu?

1. No, as it is a wagering contract
2. Yes, as it is only a collateral agreement to horse racing and therefore the bank can recover the money from Sabu
3. Horse racing is illegal and therefore XYZ Bank cannot recover anything from Sabu
4. Bank can recover money from Sabu so that payment of prize money can be made to Randeep.

Answer: (b)

121. Principle: Whoever takes away any moveable thing from the land of any person without that person’s consent, he is said to have committed theft.

Facts: During his visit to the house of ‘C’, ‘A’ asked ‘B’, the son of ‘C’, to accompany ‘A’ to the forest. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ informed ‘C’ in this regard. ‘B’ accompanied ‘A’ to the forest.

1. ‘A’ has committed theft
2. ‘A’ has not committed theft
3. ‘A’ has committed theft as soon as he entered the house of ‘C’
4. ‘A’ has not committed theft till ‘B’ did not accompany him.

Answer: (b)

122. Principle: Whoever does not arrest the killer and report the matter to the concerned authorities commits an offence.

Facts: ‘A’, a woman, sees ‘B’, another woman, killing a third woman ‘C’. ‘A’ neither attempted to arrest ‘B’ nor informed the concerned authorities.

1. ‘A’ has committed an offence
2. ‘A’ has not committed an offence
3. ‘B’ has committed an offence
4. ‘B’ has not committed an offence.

Answer: (a)

123. Principle: Causing of an effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is an offence.

Facts: ‘A’ confined her daughter ‘D’ in a room. ‘A’ also did not provide any food to her daughter ‘D’. Consequently, ‘D’ died of starvation.

1. ‘A’ committed the offence of not providing food to ‘D’
2. ‘A’ committed the offence of confining ‘D’
3. ‘A’ committed the offence of causing death of ‘D’
4. ‘A’ committed no offence.

Answer: (c)

124. Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by accident or misfortune, and without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Facts: ‘A’ takes up a gun, not knowing whether it is loaded or not, points it playfully at ‘B’ and pulls the trigger. Consequently, ‘B’ falls dead.

1. B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ did not have the knowledge that the gun is loaded
2. B’s death is not accidental, as there was want of proper care and caution on the part of ‘A’
3. B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ was just pointing the gun playfully at ’B’
4. B’s death is accidental, as ‘A’ had no intention to kill ‘B’.

Answer: (b)

125. Principle: Whoever by words or writing conveys to others any imputation concerning any person’s reputation is said to defame that person.

Facts: During a marriage ceremony, ‘A’ circulated a pamphlet saying that ‘S’, sister of the bride, is a thief, she has stolen the shoes of the bridegroom.

1. ‘A’ has defamed ‘S’
2. ‘A’ did not defame ‘S’ as he never intended it
3. ’A’ has defamed the bridegroom
4. ‘A’ defamed the bride.

Answer: (a)

126. Principle: One who dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use or sells any movable property belonging to another, is guilty of the offence of misappropriation.

Facts: ‘A’ takes property belonging to ‘Z’ out of Z’s possession, in good faith, believing when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself. Subsequently, ‘A’, on discovering his mistake, without disclosing the actual facts, dishonestly sells the property to a stranger.

1. ‘A’ is guilty of an offence of misappropriation
2. ‘A’ is not guilty because when he took the property, he believed in good faith that it belonged to him
3. ‘A’ may be guilty of theft but not for misappropriation
4. ‘A’ is not guilty as the property can be recovered from the stranger.

Answer: (a)

127. Principle: Law does not penalise for wrongs which are of trivial nature.

Facts: In the course of a discussion, ‘A’ threw a file of papers at the table which touched the hands of ‘B’.

1. ‘A’ is liable for his act, as it assaulted ‘B’
2. ‘A’ is liable for his act, as the file touched ‘B’s hand
3. ‘A’ is not liable for his act, as it was of trivial nature
4. ‘A’ is liable for insulting ‘B’.

Answer: (c)

128. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under twelve years of age, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.

Facts: Himesh, 11 years old boy, picks up a gold ring worth Rs 5, 000/-lying on a table in his friend’s house and immediately sells it for Rs 2, 000/-, and misappropriates the money.

1. Himesh would be protected under the principle stated above because he is below 12 years of age
2. Himesh would be protected under the principle stated above because his acts show that he was not sufficiently mature to understand the nature and consequences of his conduct
3. Himesh would not be protected under the principle stated above because his acts show that he was sufficiently mature to understand the nature and consequences of his conduct
4. Himesh would not be protected under the principle stated above because, irrespective of the age, stealing is an offence.

Answer: (c)

129. Principles:

• A person is said to abet the doing of a thing when he instigates any other person to do that thing.
• Mere acquiescence, however, does not amount to instigation.

Facts: ‘A’ says to ‘B’: I am going to kill ‘C’.” And, ‘B’ replies: “Do as you wish and take the consequences”; where after ‘A’ kills ‘C’.

1. ‘B’ is jointly liable with ‘A’ for killing ‘C’
2. ‘B’ abetted ‘A’ to kill ‘C’
3. ‘B’ has not abetted ‘A’ to kill ‘C’
4. ‘B’ has abetted ‘A’ by conspiracy.

Answer: (c)

130. Principle: Killing is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by intense and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation.

Facts: ‘A’, a man found his girlfriend sleeping, in her own bed room, with another man named ‘B’. ‘A’ did not do anything but went to his home, picked a gun and cartridges, returned to the girlfriend’s bed room with loaded gun but found the place empty. After fifteen days he saw his girlfriend dining in a restaurant. Without waiting for even a second, ‘A’ fired five bullets at his girlfriend who died on the spot.

1. ‘A’ killed his girlfriend under intense and sudden provocation
2. ‘A’ did not kill his girlfriend under intense and sudden provocation
3. ‘A’ could have killed ‘B’ instead of his girlfriend
4. ‘A’ could have killed both ‘B’ and his girlfriend.

Answer: (b)

131. Principle: Intentional application of force to another person is actionable in law.

Facts: ‘P’ and ‘D’ are unknown to each other. When ‘P’ is about to sit on a chair, ‘D’ intentionally pulls it away as a result of which ‘P’ falls on to the floor and is injured.

1. ‘D’ is liable as he intentionally caused injury to P
2. ‘D’ is not liable as the injury is not directly caused
3. ‘D’ is not liable as such jokes are common in the society
4. ‘D’ is not liable as ‘P’ is not seriously injured.

Answer: (a)

132. Principle: There are certain acts which, though harmful, are not wrongful in law; therefore, do not give legal right to bring action in law, to the person who suffers from such acts.

Facts: ‘Prakash’ has a rice mill. His neighbour, Shanti, sets up another rice mill and offers a tough competition to Prakash. As a consequence, Prakash’s profits fall down. He brings a suit against Shanti for damages.

1. Prakash can succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of damage as a result of infringement of his legal right
2. Prakash cannot succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of damage without infringement of any legal right
3. Prakash may succeed in his claim for damages, as it is a case of loss to his business
4. Prakash can succeed in his claim as it is a case of actual damages.

Answer: (b)

133. Principles:

• A servant is one who is employed to do some work for his employer (master). He is engaged under a contract of service. He works directly under the control and directions of his master.
• In general, the master is vicariously liable for those torts (wrongful acts) of his servant which are done by the servant in the course of his employment.

Facts: ‘M’ appointed ‘D’ exclusively for the purpose of driving his tourist vehicle. ‘M’ also appointed ‘C’ exclusively for the purpose of performing the work of a conductor for the tourist vehicle. During one trip, at the end of the journey, ‘C’, while ‘D’ was not on the driver’s seat, and apparently for the purpose of turning the vehicle in the right direction for the next journey, drove it through the street at high speed, and negligently injured ‘P’.

1. ‘M’ could be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as ‘C’ was employed under a contract of service
2. ‘M’ could be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as his (C’s) act of driving the vehicle was within his scope of employment
3. ‘M’ could not be made liable for the act of ‘C’, as his (C’s) act of driving the vehicle was not in the course of his employment
4. ‘M’ is not liable as he was not present at the time of accident.

Answer: (c)

134. Principles:

• An independent contractor is one who is employed to do some work of his employer. He is engaged under a contract for services. He undertakes to produce a given result, and in the actual execution of the work, he is not under the direct control or following directions of his employer. He may use his own discretion in execution of the work assigned.
• In general, an employer is not liable for the torts (wrongful acts) of his independent contractor. But, the employer may be held liable if he directs him to do some careless acts.

Facts: Ramesh hired a taxi-cab to go to Delhi Airport. As he started late from his home, he kept on urging the taxi driver to drive at a high speed and driver followed the directions; and ultimately due to high speed an accident took place causing injuries to a person.

1. Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because Ramesh did not know the consequences of such rash driving
2. Ramesh would be held liable for damages as he exercised the control by giving directions to the driver
3. Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because the driver was an independent contractor and not his servant
4. Ramesh would not be liable as car was not owned by him.

Answer: (b)

135. Principle: Defamation is the publication of a statement which tends to lower reputation of a person in the estimation of other members of the society generally.

Facts: ‘A’ writes a highly offensive and derogatory letter about ‘B’, and sends it directly to ‘B’ in a sealed cover.

1. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive and derogatory
2. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as the letter is highly offensive and derogatory and is directly sent to ‘B’
3. ‘A’ is liable to ‘B’ for defamation, as it has hurt his (B’s) self-esteem
4. ‘A’ is not liable to ‘B’ for defamation, since there is no publication to any other person in whose estimation the reputation of ‘B’ could be brought down.

Answer: (d)

136. Principle: False imprisonment is a tort (wrong) which means the total restraint of a person’s liberty without lawful justification.

Facts: A part of a public road had been closed for spectators of a boat race. ‘P’ wanted to enter but he was prevented by ‘D’ and other policemen because he had not paid the admission fee. ‘P’ was able to enter the enclosure by other means but was unable to go where he wanted to go. The policemen refused access to where he wanted to go but allowed him to remain where he was or to go back. ‘P’ remained within the enclosure and refused to leave. Subsequently, ‘P’ sued ‘D’ for false imprisonment.

1. ‘D’ could not be made liable for false imprisonment as he has not touched him
2. ‘D’ could be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did restrict P’s movements
3. ‘D’ could not be made liable for false imprisonment, as he did not totally restrict P’s movements
4. It was a case of false imprisonment, but ‘D’ could not be made liable for it.

Answer: (c)

137. Principle: Consent is a good defence for civil action in tort. But consent must include both knowledge of risk and assumption of risk, i.e., readiness to bear harm.

Facts: A lady passenger was aware that the driver of the cab, in which she opted to travel was little intoxicated. The cab met with an accident and lady got injured.

1. Lady is not entitled to claim compensation as she had knowledge of the risk
2. Lady is entitled to claim compensation as she only knew about risk and there was no assumption of risk
3. Lady can refuse to pay the fare as she had suffered injuries
4. Driver can take the plea that he was lightly intoxicated.

Answer: (b)

138. Principle: Consent is a good defence in a civil action for tort but the act should be the same for which consent was given.

Facts: ‘B’ was formally invited by ‘A’ to his house. ‘B’ after sitting for some time in drawing room, moved to the bed room of the house. ‘A’ sued ‘B’ for trespass.

1. ‘B’ has committed no trespass as he entered the house with ‘A’s consent
2. ‘B’ has committed trespass as there was no consent of ‘A’ for entry in the Bed room
3. ‘B’ has offended ‘A’ by moving to bed room
4. ‘B’ has interfered with privacy of ‘A’.

Answer: (b)

139. Principle: A person is said to have committed assault when an apprehension is caused in the mind of a person that he is about to use physical force against his body.

Facts: ‘A’ abuses ‘B’ while he was sitting in a moving train, by aggressively shaking his fists when ‘B’ was standing on the railway platform at a distance.

1. ‘A’ has committed assault against ‘B’
2. ‘A’ has caused apprehension of assault in the mind of’ B’
3. ‘A’ has not committed assault against ‘B’
4. ‘A’ has caused fear of assault in the mind of ‘B’.

Answer: (c)

140. Principle: Copyright law protects only work. ‘Work’ means cinematographic film but does not include performance by an actor in a cinematographic film.

Facts: Alia Bhatt acted in a movie.

1. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law as professional work
2. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work
3. The acting of Alia Bhatt can be protected as film producer’s work
4. The acting of Alia Bhatt cannot be protected under copyright law.

Answer: (d)

141. Principle: Letters or words not describing quality of things can be registered as a trade mark.

Facts: Ram made an application for registration of alphabet ‘B’ written in a fancy style as trade mark to be applied on packets and cartons of shoes manufactured by him.

1. The alphabet ‘B’ can be registered as trade mark because it describes the quality of things
2. The alphabet ‘B’ cannot be registered as trade mark because it belongs to humanity
3. The alphabet ‘B’ cannot be registered as trade mark because it is an English letter
4. The alphabet ‘B’ can be registered as trade mark.

Answer: (d)

142. Principle: Import means bringing some consignment into India from a foreign country.

Facts: A consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India. However, this consignment never crossed the Indian custom barrier nor did it enter into the stream of commerce in India.

1. The consignment was not imported into India
2. The consignment will only be imported into India when it crosses the Indian custom barrier
3. The consignment will only be imported into India when it enters into the stream of commerce in India
4. The consignment was imported into India.

Answer: (d)

143. Principle: A condition to a contract can also be complied with after the happening of the event to which such a condition is attached.

Facts: ‘A’ promises to pay Rs. 5, 000 to ‘B’ on the condition that he shall marry with the consent of ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’. ‘B’ marries without the consent of ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’, but obtains their consent after the marriage.

1. ‘B’ has not fulfilled the condition
2. The condition is illegal
3. ‘B’ has fulfilled the condition
4. ‘B’s marriage is not valid.

Answer: (c)

144. Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places.

Facts: ‘A’, a citizen of England, is accused of committing murder of ‘B’ in India by taking part in a conspiracy hatched in England.

1. Only the fact that ‘A’ citizen of England is accused of committing murder of ‘B’ in India is relevant
2. The facts that ‘A’ citizen of England is accused of commission of murder in India and of conspiracy hatched in England are relevant facts
3. Only the fact that ‘A’ is accused conspiracy hatched in England is relevant
4. ‘A’ citizen of England cannot be tried in India.

Answer: (b)

145. Principle: In cases where there is an infringement of legal right even without any actual loss or damage, the person whose right is infringed has a cause of action.

Facts: ‘P’ was wrongfully prevented by the Returning Officer from exercising his vote in an assembly election. However, the candidate for whom he wanted to cast his vote won the election. Still, he (‘P’) brought an action claiming damages. Which of the following derivations is correct?

1. ‘P’ would not succeed in his action, as he did not suffer any loss in that election
2. ‘P’ would not succeed in his action, as the candidate for whom he wanted to give his vote won the election
3. ‘P’ would succeed in his action, as he was wrongfully prevented from exercising his legal right of voting in that election
4. ‘P’ would succeed in his action, as it is mandatory to cast vote.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 146-160: Choose the most appropriate option:

146. ‘alibi’ means a plea by an accused person that he:

1. underwent preventive detention
2. remained in judicial custody
3. was present elsewhere
4. was facing trial.

Answer: (c)

147. ‘obiter dicta’ means:

1. An opinion given by the court not necessary for the decision
2. Judgment of a court in the case before it
3. Basis of judicial decision
4. Direction by a judge.

Answer: (a)

148. ‘audi alteram partem’ means:

1. Following the substantive law
2. Giving opportunity of hearing of the other side
3. A transferee cannot retransfer
4. Not connected to facts.

Answer: (b)

149. ‘lis pendens’ means:

1. A pending suit
2. Decision awaited
3. Awaited information
4. On the basis of evidence.

Answer: (a)

150. ‘persona non grata’ means:

1. Non-person
2. An unacceptable person
3. Non-performance of promise
4. Ungrateful person.

Answer: (b)

151. As per law the minimum age for the marriage of a boy and a girl in India is:

1. 18 years in both cases
2. 18 years and 21 years respectively
3. 21 years in both cases
4. 21 years and 18 years respectively.

Answer: (d)

152. Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion cannot be placed on the ground of:

1. Social justice
2. Health
3. Morality
4. Public order.

Answer: (a)

153. Under the Constitution of India ‘Right to Pollution Free Environment’ has emerged as a fundamental right from the right to:

1. Equality under Article 14
2. Freedom of movement under Article 19
3. Life and personal liberty under Article 21
4. Conserve culture under Article 29.

Answer: (c)

154. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution of India?

1. Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
2. Promotion of International peace and security
3. Promotion of adult education
4. Organisation of village panchayats.

Answer: (c)

155. The object of which one of the following writs is to prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold?

1. Mandamus
2. Prohibition
3. Quo warranto
4. Certiorari.

Answer: (c)

156. The Supreme Court of India has struck down the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional. It is related to:

1. National Judicial Appointment Commission
2. Religious Rights
3. Land Exchange between India and Bangladesh
4. Jallikattu (Bull Fighting).

Answer: (a)

157. Which Indian State has prescribed minimum educational qualification for candidates contesting panchayat polls?

1. Punjab
2. Gujarat
3. Haryana
4. Kerala.

Answer: (c)

158. Which among the following was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution of India”?

1. Freedom of Religion
2. Right to Equality
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Right to move throughout the territory of India.

Answer: (c)

159. Which among the following does not belong to the ‘right to freedom of religion’?

1. Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
2. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
3. Freedom of speech and expression
4. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

Answer: (c)

160. If an authority is holding information about another in a ‘fiduciary capacity’, the information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 may not be obtainable. ‘Fiduciary relationship’ is based on:

1. Authority
2. Contract
3. Law
4. Trust.

Answer: (d)

Section V – Logical Reasoning

Direction for Questions 161–163: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

A and B are good in driving bus and car. C and A are good in driving car and scooter. C, D and E are good in driving scooter and tractor. E and C are good in driving scooter and auto- rickshaw. D and B are good in driving bus and tractor.

161. Who is good in driving scooter, tractor and auto- rickshaw but not good in driving car?

1. E
2. C
3. A
4. D.

Answer: (a)

162. Who is good in driving scooter, tractor and bus?

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A.

Answer: (c)

163. Who is good in driving tractor, scooter, car and auto-rickshaw but not bus?

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B.

Answer: (b)

Direction for Questions 164–166: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In each question, there is a statement and two assumptions numbered as I and II. Read the statement and find which of the given assumptions is implicit:

• If assumption I is implicit.
• If assumption II is implicit.
• If neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.
• If both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

164. Statement: In the State of Zuminisia, people prefer to travel by X airline instead of Y airline, as X airline has advanced German security system and 99% on time operations.

Assumptions:

1. Airline X with advanced German security system and record on time operation is perceived better than airline Y.
2. Had advanced German security system and on time performance record of Y airline been implemented, it would have been preferred over airline X.

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
4. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

Answer: (a)

165. Statement: To attend a convocation ceremony scheduled to be held on Thursday at GM University, Chennai, Mr X left for Chennai on Tuesday by train.

Assumptions:

1. Mr. X may reach home on Saturday.
2. Mr. X may reach the University on Wednesday .

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
4. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

Answer: (b)

166. Statement: The next meeting of the executive board of a company will be held after six months.

Assumptions:

1. Existing executive board will be dissolved before six months.
2. The company will remain in function after six months.

1. Assumption I is implicit
2. Assumption II is implicit
3. Neither assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
4. Both Assumption I and Assumption II are implicit.

Answer: (b)

Direction for Questions 167 and 168: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In a joint family, A, B, C, D, E, and F are the members. B is the son of C. A and C are husband and wife. C is not the mother of B. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A and F is the brother of B.

167. Who is the mother of B?

1. D
2. F
3. E
4. A.

Answer: (d)

168. Which of the following is a pair of females in the family?

1. BD
2. AE
3. AD
4. DF.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 169 and 170: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

In each of the questions, two statements are numbered as I and II. There may be a cause and effect relationship between the two statements. The statements may be the effect of the same cause or an independent cause. The statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements and mark your answer as:

• If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
• If both statements I and II are independent causes.
• If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

169. Statement I: The Government, by legislation has decided to make all public information available to general public.

Statement II: Before passing of legislation, general public did not have access to public information.

1. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
2. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
3. Both statements I and II are independent causes
4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Answer: (b)

170. Statement I: In last two years, there is a considerable reduction in cancellation of flights due to fog in North India.

Statement II: In last two years, there is a considerable improvement in passenger amenities on all airports of North India.

1. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
2. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
3. Both statements I and II are independent causes
4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Answer: (d)

Direction for Questions 171-200: Choose the most appropriate option:

171. Examine the series and identify the missing number: 46, 44, 40, 38, 34, …

1. 32
2. 30
3. 28
4. 26.

Answer: (a)

172. In a bag, there are some diamonds. In another bag, there are one fourth the number more than the number of diamonds in the first bag. If the difference in the number of diamonds in the first and second bag is 3, how many diamonds are there in the first bag?

1. 16
2. 12
3. 10
4. 8.

Answer: (b)

173. If Oceans are Deserts, then Waves are:

1. Powerful
2. Ripples
3. Water
4. Sand Dunes.

Answer: (d)

174. Examine the following numbers and identify the next number: 45, 43, 40, 36, 31, 25, ….

1. 29
2. 23
3. 18
4. 17.

Answer: (c)

175. In certain code MAIL is written as ZNVY then how will FILM be written in that code?

1. SVYZ
2. XLMP
3. NORY
4. MLIF.

Answer: (a)

176. In a class, student X has 8th position from the top and 84th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?

1. 91
2. 88
3. 96
4. 98.

Answer: (a)

177. Geeta is twice the present age of Seema. If age of Seema is 20 years now, how many years ago Geeta was three times Seema’s age?

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 9.

Answer: (b)

178. 178. X, the President of a club arrived in a meeting at 10 minutes to 1230 hrs. Mr. X came earlier by 20 minutes than the other participating members in the meeting, who arrived late by 30 minutes. At what time was the meeting scheduled?

1. 1220 hrs
2. 1210 hrs
3. 1240 hrs
4. 1250 hrs.

Answer: (b)

179. There is some relationship between the figures given in the series. Find out the missing one from the alternatives given below.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Answer: (a)

180. Find the odd one out from the following group.

WINDSHIELD, SPARK PLUG, CLUTCH PEDAL, CAR, ENGINE

1. Engine
2. Car
3. Windshield
4. Spark Plug.

Answer: (b)

181. Which word in the following group DOES NOT belong to the others?

PROSPER, EXCITE, THRIVE, FLOURISH

1. Flourish
2. Excite
3. Thrive
4. Prosper.

Answer: (b)

182. Choose the pair of words from the options that best represents a similar relationship as the one expressed in the following pair of words.

WAITER : RESTAURANT

1. Actor : Acting
2. Teacher : School
3. Driver : Car
4. Author : Book.

Answer: (b)

183. This question consists of a related pair of words, followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship as the one expressed in the given pair of words:

SANDERLING : BIRD

1. Cat : Mare
2. Frog : Toad
3. Mastiff : Dog
4. Water : Fish.

Answer: (c)

184. You are given a 60-inch long ribbon, and you are instructed to cut 601 -inch long strips out of this ribbon. The time taken to cut one strip is one second. So how long will it take to cut 60 strips?

1. 1 minute
2. 59 seconds
3. 30 seconds
4. 1 minute and 1 second.

Answer: (b)

185. Identify the statement which cannot be false.

1. Democracy is the best form of government
2. Water evaporates at 100° C
3. All radii of any given circle are of equal length
4. Myopia is a congenital disorder.

Answer: (c)

186. If it is true that ‘All humans are imperfect’, then which one of the following is necessarily true?

1. No humans are imperfect
2. Some humans are not imperfect
3. All imperfect beings are humans
4. Every human is imperfect.

Answer: (d)

187. If it is false that ‘There is at least one octogenarian in the room’, then which one of the following is probable?

1. No one in the room is an octogenarian
2. All those who are in the room are octogenarians
3. Some people in the room are not octogenarians
4. One person in the room is not an octogenarian.

Answer: (a)

188. If it is false that ‘Animals are seldom aggressive’, then which one of the following statements conveys the same meaning?

1. At least one animal is aggressive
2. Sometimes animals are aggressive
3. All animals are aggressive
4. All animals are always aggressive.

Answer: (b)

189. If it is false that ‘Men always pray to God’, then which one of the following statements is true?

1. All men pray to God
2. Men seldom pray to God
3. Men always pray to God
4. Some men pray to God.

Answer: (b)

190. Identify the statement which cannot be true.

1. Snow is white
2. All bachelors are faithful to their wives
3. Every natural number has a successor
4. Black body radiation is a physical phenomenon.

Answer: (b)

191. From among the given options, identify the statement which means the same as the statement ‘The dual nature of light is an enigma’.

1. Light has distinct properties which makes it unique
2. Two contradictory descriptions of light presuppose a third description
3. The nature of light is an enigma
4. Light is mysterious.

Answer: (c)

192. If it is true that ‘Good governance implies law and order in society’ then identify the statement which has to be accepted along with the given statement?

1. A healthy society is governed by maximum number of laws
2. A strong government uses force to impose laws
3. Law is indispensable for the society
4. An able government very effectively uses laws to promote peace.

Answer: (d)

193. If it is true that ‘Religious fundamentalism is dangerous to the society’, then which one of the following statements can also be true?

1. Religion without reason is dangerous to the society
2. Belief in any religion is dangerous to the society
3. Religious pluralism is dangerous to the society
4. Disrespect for other religions is dangerous to the society.

Answer: (d)

194. Assume that both premises, ‘No innocent person should be punished’ and ‘Socrates is innocent’ are true. Then which one of the following options is necessarily true?

1. Socrates is not punished
2. Socrates may not be punished
3. It is not proper to punish Socrates
4. Socrates should not be punished.

Answer: (d)

195. Identify the argument which cannot be accepted.

1. All equilateral triangles are equiangular. Therefore, all equiangular triangles are equilateral
2. All rainy days are wet days. Therefore, all wet days are rainy days
3. All unmarried women are spinsters. Therefore, all spinsters are women
4. All wives are married. Therefore, all married people are wives.

Answer: (d)

196. Four statements are given below. Group two of them in such a way that one is logically incorrect and the other is verifiable as a matter of fact.

1. The Sun does not rise in the East.
2. A straight line is the shortest distance between any two points.
3. Every circle has a centre.
4. The maximum duration of a total solar eclipse is about 7.5 minute

1. [(I), (ii)]
2. [(iii), (iv)]
3. [(i), (iv)]
4. [(i), (iii)].

Answer: (c)

197. Who among the following is the odd one in the following group of persons?

Chief Justice of India, Attorney General of India, Solicitor General, Advocate General

1. Advocate General
2. Solicitor General
3. Attorney General of India
4. Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (d)

198. A, B, C and D have got some money with them. If A gives 8 rupees to B, B will have as much as C has and A will have 3 rupees less than what C has. Also, if A takes 6 rupees from C, A will have twice as much money as D. If B and D together have 50 rupees, how much money does A and B have respectively?

1. 29, 32
2. 32, 29
3. 27, 40
4. 40, 27.

Answer: (d)

199. A 2100 member team consisting of Team Leaders and Athletes is attending a National Athletic Meet. For every 20 Athletes, there is one Team Leader. How many Team Leaders would be there in the team?

1. 110
2. 105
3. 100
4. 95.

Answer: (c)

200. An old woman decided to divide her gold among her daughter and daughters-in-law. She first kept exactly half of the gold for her daughter then she divided the rest of her gold among her daughters-in-law. The eldest one got 26 grams more than the youngest daughter-in-law. The middle one got twice as the youngest one. If the eldest daughter-in-law got 66 grams of gold, how much was received by the daughter?

1. 172 grams
2. 194 grams
3. 192 grams
4. 186 grams.

Answer: (d)

Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2016 | Click Here to Download PDF

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1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
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