Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2018 Solved Paper | Download PDF

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Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2018 | Click Here to Download PDF

COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT UG) 2018

Duration of Test: 2 Hours (120 minutes)

Maximum Marks: 200

Section I – English

1. Directions: In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B).

Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

Internationally high rise walls serve as street (A) paintings (B) canvasses. In Delhi and Gurgaon artists have (A) earmarked (B) earmark a district and after civic authority (A) compliance, (B) grant transformed it into a throbbing art district. A walk through the (A) instalment (B) installations for public interaction is (A) instituted (B) envisaged. It is hoped that this will discourage defiling city’s public places.

The correct sequence should be:

1. A B A B B
2. B A B A B
3. B A A B B
4. A B A B A.

Answer: (c)

2. Directions: In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B).

Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

Pie charts are another extremely effective (A) visual (B) graph presentation of data. They show what proportions make up a whole. Each segment should be (A) cleared (B) differentiated by shading, cross –hatching or colour and should be (A) labelled (B) articulated horizontally. (A) Initially (B) Conventionally, the largest slice begins at the 12 O’ clock position then slices are sequenced clockwise in (A) descending (B) clarified positions.

The correct sequence should be:

1. A B A B A
2. B B A B A
3. B A B B A
4. B A A B A.

Answer: (a)

3. Directions: In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of highlighted words (A, B).

Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from the options given select the correct option.

One of the predictable difficulties you can expect to (A) encounter (B) counter when you go to a different country to study or work is language. But difficulties may also result from (A) culture (B) cultural differences, which are often less (A) conscious (B) obvious at first and can be unexpected. A Dutch academic was one of the first persons to propose an (A) influential (B) dire theory of cultural (A) diversity (B) division.

The correct sequence should be:

1. A B A B A
2. A B B A A
3. A A B B A
4. A B A B B.

Answer: (b)

4. Directions: Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

1. It is important to monitor the groups.
2. Check that the instructions are clear, and tell the students to begin.
3. Inefficient bus service are a hazard.
4. Traffic in the city has reached unsustainable levels.

Code:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (c)

5. Directions: Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

1. The college has organized a science fare.
2. This is to notify that a leather wallet has been lost.
3. Shortly blood donation will begin a camp.
4. The agenda of the meeting is available on the website.

Code:

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A.

Answer: (b)

6. Directions: Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.

1. It is vastly reading is significant.
2. Reading for pleasure is linked to parental support at an early age.
3. We can read intensively and extensively.
4. Basic literacy among the prison population is insignificant.

1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A.

Answer: (d)

Directions for Questions 7-12: Fill up the blanks numbered (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) in the passage given below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.

The main objective of art and (A) living is to develop (B) sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides providing a (C) ground for love of labour, (D) social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to be (E) to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind and helping the needy would (F) at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of selfless service.

7. (A) is:

1. profitable
2. promising
3. productive
4. praise.

Answer: (c)

8. (B) is:

1. nature
2. healthy
3. aesthetic
4. genuine.

Answer: (c)

9. (C) is:

1. nurturing
2. fruitful
3. attractive
4. interesting.

Answer: (a)

10. (D) is:

1. clear
2. positive
3. growing
4. negative.

Answer: (b)

11. (E) is:

1. welcome
2. clear
3. receptive
4. illegal.

Answer: (c)

12. (F) is:

1. disappear
2. reveal
3. link
4. germinate.

Answer: (d)

13. Direction: Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Develop Critical Thinking

The way we see the world and relate to others is intrinsically connected to our own set of values that govern the way we decide to live. However, the influence of fashion, consumerism, pop culture, broken homes, social unrest, and the media is all-pervasive. For many people, teachers and students alike, this influence goes unquestioned. Critical thinking, if successfully taught at this level, becomes the antidote for individual and social illiteracy. For the authors, critical thinking should constitute an indivisible part of the overall educational process. Facione (1995) comments: “Critical thinking lies at the root of civilisation. It is a cornerstone in the journey humankind is taking from beastly savagery to global sensitivity. “Supporting the development of these skills involves reflective teaching and learning, which is highly complex and which some students may find difficult, or interpret as weakness on the part of the teacher. But in the long run, with patience on the part of the teacher, it will develop students who can view old or new material, from a variety of sources, through new eyes, using their skills to define their own stance and express it, often better in their second language, with an open-minded confidence.

1. The world view of the human being today is influenced by a lot of things. Critical thinking cannot be taught as it involves reflective teaching and could be misunderstood
2. Critical thinking must be part of an individual’s education but it is a difficult concept because it very often reflects a teacher as a dominating individual
3. Critical thinking is an important aspect of an individual’s literacy level and his social knowhow. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity. Students can look at information in a variety of ways
4. Reflective teaching is another aspect of initial thinking and it could lead to individual and social illiteracy.

Answer: (c)

14. Direction: Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

The construct of democracy rests on informed choice and governance on informed policy. Answers to critical questions are stranded in the arena of claims and counter claims. Measures of progress are simply not known or available. The debate to job creation is a mystery of sorts. The public are not aware that the Center and States spend Crores on education, health and social services. Take education. Barely a few of Class V students can read a Class II text, the poor are switching to private schools and over 33% of million-plus schools do not maintain a feasible pupil teacher ratio.

1. Being informed is an important aspect of any democracy. This information is not available especially in the area of education, health and social services
2. Answers are often given but they need to be deciphered accurately. Job clarity is available but sometimes it is a mystery. There is confusion about information
3. Health and social services is clearly communicated but education remains an area of ignorance. Claims and counter claims create even more confusion
4. Crores are spent on many areas of growth but there is no accountability for information. Parents are switching to private schools as the information on education is available there.

Answer: (a)

15. Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

VENERATE: We venerate aged priests and martyrs.

1. respect
2. revere
3. spurn
4. honor.

Answer: (c)

16. Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

PRUDENCE: Prudence and sacrifice help us in meeting the future.

1. caution
2. reckless
3. foresight
4. judgment.

Answer: (b)

17. Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

OSTENTATION: Ostentation in wealth and living styles can sometimes turn vulgar.

1. pageantry
2. display
3. modesty
4. flourish.

Answer: (c)

18. Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

DOCTRINE: A doctrine is often refined by reasoning.

1. offense
2. dogma
3. precept
4. principle.

Answer: (a)

19. Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.

BENEVOLENCE: Every religion believes in the concept of benevolence.

1. generosity
2. malignity
3. liberality
4. benignity.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Questions 20-21: Answer the question, based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question, is consistent with the information given in the passage below.

A Holistic Viewpoint

It is now recognised by modern science that the universe at the subatomic level does not have solid material objects, but consists of only wavelike patterns which represent probabilities of interconnections between other interconnections, all of which together constitute an inseparable web of inter-relationships constituting the entire universe. Fritj of Capra therefore, views the universe not as “an assemblage of independent parts” but as “a dynamic web of inter-related events” in which each part of the web determines the structure of the whole. Geoffrey Chew views such inter-penetrating and interdependent relationships in the universe in terms of a “bootstrap” theory which implies that all forces in the universe are inseparably linked together, every part affects every other part, and the whole world is held together so to say, by bootstraps. David Bohm refers to a holographic concept which implies not only that every part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the whole. This, according to David Bohm, recognises the “Undivided wholeness” of the entire universe instead of the classical idea of analysability of the world into separately and independently existent parts.

20. Choose the appropriate option.

1. there are many solid material objects in the universe
2. the entire universe has a web of inter-relationships
3. the universe comprises of a number of independent parts
4. these independent parts determine the structure of the web.

Answer: (b)

21. Choose the appropriate option.

1. the holographic theory speaks of the exclusiveness of each part
2. the world can be analysed into separate independent parts
3. the classical idea recognizes the concept of wholeness
4. the boot strap theory speaks of interdependent relationships.

Answer: (d)

22. Direction: In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

The police searched everywhere but they drew a blank.

1. upset
2. did not find any information
3. came to a dead end (changed as: came to an end)
4. drew a line.

Answer: (b)

23. Direction: In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

She was accused of being close-minded and intolerant.

1. did not agree
2. kept to herself
3. not open to new ideas
4. unwilling to discuss.

Answer: (c)

24. Direction: In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative among the four options.

Rehman likes to have a finger in every pie.

1. likes cooking
2. wants to do everything
3. interferes in all matters (changed as: object to everything)
4. cannot take decisions.

Answer: (b)

25. Directions: In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

At one’s wits end

1. cannot say anything funny
2. not able to think logically
3. not able to work
4. clarity of thought.

Answer: (b)

26. Directions: In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

Gift of the gab

1. clever at work
2. flatter someone
3. promise blatantly
4. fluent at speaking.

Answer: (d)

27. Directions: In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

Die in harness

1. die while riding
2. die at the height of one’s success
3. die with help
4. die when the work has been completed.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Questions 28-37: Read the passage given below. Choose the best option for the question.

IOT has had an impact across all fields, be it industries, government, small or large businesses and even for Personal Consumption.

What is IOT (Internet of things) you might ask. It’s been a growing topic of conversation for some time now. Put in the simplest term it means anything that has an on and off button and is connected to the internet for receiving, analyzing, storing or sending data. This could mean anything, from the watch that you wear to airplanes that can be controlled from a remote location. According to the analyst firm Gartner, by the year 2020 we’ll have over 26 billion connected devices. That could mean people to people, people connected to things and things connected to things. The new rule of the future is going to be “Anything that can be connected will be connected”. Take for example that when you set an alarm to wake up and that alarm goes off it not only wakes you up but also brews your coffee, sets the right temperature of water for your bath, puts on the television to bring you the latest updates from around the globe and all this before you even put a foot out of your bed. This is all done by simply getting the network of interconnected things/devices that have embedded sensors, network connectivity, software and necessary electronics that collect and exchange data.

To show how far we have come with technology and connectivity, we have smart watches such as Fitbit, Garmin to name a few that have changed the way we look at time. We have one device that not only tells us the time but also tracks the number of steps, calories and our heart rate. This watch is actually connected to our phone so with just one turn of the wrist one can tell who is calling or what messages have been received without having to dig through pockets or handbags. IOT is making its presence felt in health care as well. Doctors can now remotely monitor and communicate with their patients and health care providers can benefit from this. Whether data comes from foetal monitors, electrocardiograms, temperature monitors or blood glucose levels, tracking this information is vital for some patients. Many of this requires follow up interaction with healthcare professionals. With smarter devices that deliver more valuable data it can reduce the need for direct patient-physician interaction.

Take for instance in the sporting field, minute chips are being attached to balls and bats which will transmit information of how fast the ball is travelling and a batsman’s moves, the time, the angles, the pressure on the bat at different positions, data of the muscle stretch if he’s hit a six so on and so forth. Formula one cars are also being fitted with these sensors which relays information on the minute moves being made by the driver. Chips are also being put into wearable devices of sportsmen to detect sub-optimal action of any body parts to show signs of stress or strain which will help in the early detection of injuries and take preventive measures.

IOT has had an impact across all fields, be it industries, government, small or large business and even for personal consumption. IBM, Google, Intel, Microsoft and Cisco are some of the top players in the IOT spectrum.

With billions of devices connected security becomes a big issue. How can people make sure that their data is safe and secure? This is one of the major concerns in the IOT that becomes a hot topic. Another issue is with all these billions of devices sharing data companies will be faced with the problem of how to store, track, analyse and make vast sense of the information being generated. Companies are monitoring the network segment to identify anomalous traffic and to take action if necessary.

Now that we have a fair understanding of IOT let’s see what impact it’s had on the education sector. The only constant in our lives is change and learning. From the get go we learn, be it to the walk, talk or run. We adapt to the changing times and constantly learn from it. Education or learning as we know it in the broader sense is the most important of all and the one that decides which way we handle those changes to impact us and the world.

Today’s world is fast paced and to keep up with this we need an infusion of speed with learning. From the classroom assignments, lectures, blackboards and chalk we have come a long way to what is now known as e-learning (electronic learning) or m-learning (mobile learning). With the GenNext it is imperative to provide the right kind of education.

The rise of technology and IOT allows schools to improve the safety of their campuses, keep track of resources and enhance access to information. It ensures data quality being the top priority but also facilitates development of content allowing teachers to use this technology to create smart lesson plans and ensuring the reach of this content to any corner of the world.

28. How is IOT a concept of connecting?

1. It is the internet in a different form
2. It is internet but connected to anything
3. It is an analysing machine
4. It is a data collection term.

Answer: (b)

29. It is said that we look at time differently now, why?

1. It is connected to different devices
2. It is in a different format
3. It is connected to the aeroplane
4. It connects people.

Answer: (a)

30. IOT will help in simplifying patient -physician interaction because:

1. It helps reduce data
2. Doctors can remotely connect to patients
3. It improves connectivity
4. It is a simple process.

Answer: (b)

31. How will IOT work in the sporting field?

1. Through sport fields with chips
2. Through special machine
3. Through minute wearable chips which are connected
4. Through special moves by the sportsmen.

Answer: (c)

32. Preventive measure is imperative because:

1. It can detect anything
2. It identifies treatment needed
3. It keeps them in touch
4. It helps to identify stress and strain.

Answer: (d)

33. One of the major concerns of IOT is:

1. Security and privacy, data loss and tracking data
2. Only security and privacy
3. Only data loss
4. Only tracking data.

Answer: (a)

34. Technology and IOT has benefited education considerably because it has

1. Helped in improving the lesson
2. Helped keep track of all resources
3. Helped teachers to track
4. Helped with keeping up with the change in learning.

Answer: (d)

35. Teachers can use this data:

1. Only to teach with more resources
2. Only to create a smart classroom
3. Only to reach out to the world
4. To teach with more resources, create a smart classroom and reach out to the world.

Answer: (d)

36. Select a title that is most suitable for the passage

1. IOT curse or boon
2. IOT and our life tomorrow
3. IOT is changing the way we learn
4. IOT is all pervading.

Answer: (b)

37. To conclude, IOT has an impact on:

1. Education, sports, medicine and our daily lives
2. Education and sports only
3. Education only
4. Education and medicine only.

Answer: (a)

38. Direction: Choose the option closest to the capitalized word

ANNIHILATE

1. devastate
2. delay
3. investigate
4. retaliate.

Answer: (a)

39. Direction: Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word

FACILITATE

1. lend
2. share
3. support
4. serve.

Answer: (c)

40. Direction: Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word

CAMPAIGN

1. lobby
2. run
3. agree
4. work.

Answer: (a)

Section II – General Knowledge and Current Affairs

41. Who wrote the memoir book “My Brief History”?

1. G. Madhavan Nair
2. Stephen Hawking
3. Angeline Merkel
4. Rosalind Franklin.

Answer: (b)

42. What is the Motto of the Commonwealth Games 2018?

1. People, Place, Passion
2. Share the Dream
3. Come out and play
4. United by the moment.

Answer: (b)

43. The 2024 Summer Olympics will be held in Paris, France for a third time. How many years before that, did the city host the Summer Olympics for the second time?

1. 100 years
2. 96 years
3. 92 years
4. 88 years.

Answer: (a)

44. Who won the Men’s Singles title in Australian Open 2018?

1. Dylan Alcott
2. Nadal
3. Roger Federer
4. Marin Cilic.

Answer: (c)

45. In which election was the Electronic Voting Machines tried out on an experimental basis in India?

1. The 1982 Kerala Legislative Assembly Elections
2. The Karnataka State for the 1984, Legislative Assembly Elections
3. The U.P State for the 1989, Lok Sabha Elections
4. The 1987, Delhi Corporation Election in Karol Bagh constituency.

Answer: (a)

46. Recently a star, Icarus was seen by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope. What was the approximate time taken by Icarus’ light to reach the Earth?

1. Nine billion years
2. Ten million years
3. Seven trillion years
4. One hundred years.

Answer: (a)

47. Who won the first Gold Medal for India at the Commonwealth Games 2018?

1. Punam Yadav
2. Mirabai Chanu
3. Jitu Rai
4. Sanjita Chanu.

Answer: (b)

48. Who is the first Indian to hold the post of Deputy Director General for Programmes at the World Health Organisation?

1. Rasha Omar
2. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
3. Soumya Swaminathan
4. Kiran Bedi.

Answer: (c)

49. Who is the first female fighter pilot of India?

1. Punit Arora
2. Avani Chaturvedi
3. Mitali Madhumita
4. Priya Jhingan.

Answer: (b)

50. The Reserve Bank of India issued the 100 rupee coin to mark the birth centenary of which Carnatic Music Legend?

1. Balamurali Krishna
2. M.S. Subbulakshmi
3. Muthuswami Deekshithar
4. Chembai Vaidynatha Bhagavathar.

Answer: (b)

51. Which type of mango from Andhra Pradesh received a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in 2017?

1. Alphonso
2. Banganapalle
3. Totapuri
4. Himsagar.

Answer: (b)

52. The International Day of the Girl Child is observed by the UN on

1. March 8
2. August 12
3. October 16
4. October 11.

Answer: (d)

53. Where is the temple of Angkor Wat located?

1. Singapore
2. Cambodia
3. Thailand
4. Indonesia.

Answer: (b)

54. Which one of the following States lifted the Santosh Trophy Football title 2018?

1. Kerala
2. Punjab
3. Karnataka
4. Uttar Pradesh.

Answer: (a)

55. IRDA stands for

1. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
2. International Resources Development Agency
3. Indian Roads Development Authority
4. Indian Rural Development Authority.

Answer: (a)

56. The first Defence Minister of India was

1. K. M. Cariappa
2. K. Krishna Menon
3. Baldev Singh
4. Kailash Nath Katju.

Answer: (c)

57. Who is the legendary figure who won both a Nobel Prize and an Oscar?

1. Satyajit Ray
2. William Goldman
3. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
4. George Bernard Shaw.

Answer: (d)

58. The discipline that deals with map making is known as:

1. Cryptography
2. Carpology
3. Cartography
4. Lithography.

Answer: (c)

59. The prize established, based on a donation from the Sveriges Riksbankin memory of Alfred Nobel, is the

1. Prize in Medicine
2. Prize in Economic Sciences
3. Peace Prize
4. Prize in Literature.

Answer: (b)

60. What is the significance of May 13, 1952 with regard to Indian polity?

1. First sitting of the Lok Sabha
2. First sitting of the Rajya Sabha
3. First sitting of the Supreme Court of India
4. Formation of the Election Commission of India.

Answer: (b)

61. Which among the following is the earliest literary work in Tamil language?

1. Manimegalai
2. Silappadikaram
3. Thirukkural
4. Tolkappiyam.

Answer: (d)

62. Who has been appointed in 2018 as the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India?

1. N. Joshi
2. Rakesh Aggarwal
3. K Vijay Raghavan
4. Vinod Kumar.

Answer: (c)

63. Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the earth towards the moon is a velocity to get rid of the:

1. Centripetal force due to Earth’s revolution
2. Earth’s gravitational pull
3. Centripetal force due to Earth’s rotation
4. Moons gravitational pull.

Answer: (b)

64. From which animal is catgut usually made of?

1. Sheep
2. Camel
3. Cat
4. Rabbit.

Answer: (a)

65. Who wrote the book Der Ursprung der Familie, des Privateigenthums und des Staats / The Origin of the Family, Private Property, and the State?

1. Friedrich Engels
2. Lewis H. Morgan
3. Karl Marx
4. Friedrich Carl von Savigny.

Answer: (a)

66. Name the part of the human body reclassified as an organ due to research conducted in the past decade.

1. Alimentary
2. Mesentery
3. Epithelium
4. Spleen.

Answer: (b)

67. The World’s first ‘negative emissions’ power plant has been built in

1. Iceland
2. Poland
3. Finland
4. China.

Answer: (a)

68. Which platform has been launched by the Union Government on the occasion of the 2018 International Women’s Day?

1. Women Entrepreneurship Platform
2. Women Combat Platform
3. Women Power Platform
4. Women Literacy Platform.

Answer: (a)

69. Who is the author of ‘The Coalition Years 1996-2012’?

1. Manmohan Singh
2. Pratibha Patil
3. Sharad Pawar
4. Pranab Mukherjee.

Answer: (d)

70. What does ‘NITI’ in Niti Aayog stand for?

1. National Invitation To Invest in India
2. New India Transformation Initiative
3. National Institution for Transforming India
4. Nayi India Turant India.

Answer: (c)

71. In commemoration of which of the following events, is May 1 celebrated in many places as the International Workers’ Day?

1. The Haymarket affair, Chicago
2. Foundation Day of International Labour Organisation
3. Commencement of the First International Labour Conference
4. Concluding Day of the Russian Revolution.

Answer: (a)

72. The National Social Security Board functioning under the Ministry of Labour and Employment is meant for recommending formulation of social security schemes for:

1. Industrial workers
2. Women and Children
3. Government employees
4. Unorganised workers.

Answer: (d)

73. The scarcity definition of economics is credited to:

1. Alfred Marshall
2. Lionel Robbins
3. Adam Smith
4. Dennis Robertson.

Answer: (b)

74. Name the digital payment app introduced by Google in 2017 for India.

1. BHIM
2. Tez
3. Citrus Pay
4. MobiKwik.

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following countries runs bullet trains with the highest operational speed?

1. China
2. Germany
3. South Korea
4. USA.

Answer: (a)

76. Who became the Chief Justice of the Federal Court of India on 14 August, 1947?

1. Maurice Gwyer
2. Patanjali Shastri
3. J. Kania
4. Srinivas Varadachariar.

Answer: (c)

77. In which country outside India has the Energy Efficiency Services Limited, under the Ministry of Power, Government of India, launched the UJALA scheme in 2017?

1. Malaysia
2. Sri Lanka
3. Indonesia
4. Maldives.

Answer: (a)

78. Which is the organisation that initiates and presents the National Film Awards in India?

1. Film and Television Institute of India
2. Central Board of Film Certification
3. Directorate of Film Festivals
4. Prasar Bharati.

Answer: (c)

79. In 2017, eBay India was merged with which of the following Companies?

1. Flipkart
2. Alibaba
3. Naaptol
4. Snapdeal.

Answer: (a)

80. The world’s first fully Solar-powered Airport is:

1. Cochin International Airport
2. Shanghai Pudong International Airport
3. Dubai International Airport
4. Singapore Changi

Answer: (a)

81. The winner of the Jnanpith Award 2017 is:

1. Sankara Kurup
2. Shankha Ghosh
3. Raghuvir Chaudhari
4. Krishna Sobti.

Answer: (d)

82. What do the paintings of Ajanta caves primarily depict?

1. Ramayana
2. Panchatantra
3. Jataka tales
4. Mahabharata.

Answer: (c)

83. Cancelled

84. What is the theme of the 2018 World Wildlife Day?

1. Stop wildlife crime
2. Listen to the young voices
3. Big cats: predators under threat
4. The future of wildlife is in our hands.

Answer: (c)

85. In which athletics event did Bob Beamon hold the world record for 23 years?

1. Triple jump
2. High jump
3. Long jump
4. Steeple chase.

Answer: (c)

86. Which State government has come up with a Water ATM Policy in April 2018?

1. Haryana
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: (a)

87. The military operation which annexed Hyderabad into the Indian Union was code-named as:

1. Operation Meghdoot
2. Operation Polo
3. Operation Viraat
4. Operation Vijay.

Answer: (b)

88. Which of the following movies won the Best Movie Oscar Award 2018?

1. The Shape of Water
2. Call Me by Your Name
3. Darkest Hour
4. Dunkirk.

Answer: (a)

89. Who is the first woman Defence Minister of Independent India:

1. Nirmala Sitharaman
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Sushma Swaraj
4. Sheela Dixit.

Answer: (b)

90. What is the motto of the Supreme Court of India?

1. Satyameva Jayate
2. Dharmo Rakshati Rakshitah
3. Sarve Jana SukhinoBhavanthu
4. Yato Dharmastato Jayah.

Answer: (d)

Section III – Logical Reasoning

91. Find the missing group in the sequence:

X7D, V11G, T13J, ………, P19P

1. Q15M
2. R17M
3. Q17L
4. R15M.

Answer: (b)

92. Find the missing number in the sequence:

9, 3, ………, 1/3, 1/9

1. 2
2. 6
3. ½
4. 1.

Answer: (d)

93. Which word does not belong with the others?

1. Flute
2. Clarinet
3. Saxophone
4. Violin.

Answer: (d)

94. Find the next group of alphabets:

CFI, DHL, ILO, LPT, ………?

1. ORU
2. RUW
3. OQT
4. OSV.

Answer: (a)

95. If “VOLKSWAGEN” is written as “UQKMRYZIDP” then “SWITZERLAND” is written as:

1. RVHSYDFPMOD
2. TXJUAFSMBOE
3. RYHYVGQNZPE
4. RYHVYGQNZPC.

Answer: (d)

96. In an archery match, Suresh’s team got more scores than Mahesh’s team but not as many as Yogesh’s team Yogesh’s team got more scores than Mukesh’s team. Mukesh’s team got less score than Mahesh’s team.

Which team is in second place in the descending order of scores?

1. Yogesh’s team
2. Mukesh’s team
3. Suresh’s team
4. Mahesh’s team.

Answer: (c)

97. Choose the word that is not a necessary part of the underlined word.

Movie

1. Scene
2. Video
3. Duration
4. Dialogue.

Answer: (d)

98. The doctor is a person who looks after the sick people and prescribes medicines so that the patient recovers fast. In order to become a doctor, a person has to study medicine. Doctors lead a hard life. Their life is very busy. They get up early in the morning and go to the hospital. They work without taking a break. They always remain polite so that patients feel comfortable with them. Since doctors work so hard we must realise their value.

Based on the above paragraph, who among the following is/are doctor(s)?

1. Kumar Sharma wakes up early in the morning every day and treats everyone with patience. He usually gives emergency aid to the persons who are injured in accidents.
2. Rakesh studied medicine in Russia and practiced medicine there for 2 years. Later, stopped medical practice and turned into some business.
3. Shalini works in Apollo Hospitals. She always remains polite so that patients feel comfortable. She is a specialist in providing quality care for the cancer patients.

1. All are doctors
2. Rakesh and Shalini are the doctors
3. Kumar Sharma and Rakesh are doctors
4. Only Rakesh is a doctor.

Answer: (d)

Directions for Questions 99-104: Read the passage given below and answer the questions.

Ten friends attended a marriage, five of them Venkat, Manohar, Ravi, Prasanth and Tilak are sitting in a row facing North and other five friends Vidya, Maya, Divya, Keerthi and Anu are sitting in a row facing south not exactly in the same order. Each friend in a row is facing exactly one from the other row. One of them is using a Skoda Car. Manohar sits opposite to his friend who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes. The friend who uses a Honda car, is not Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar. Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar. Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruti car sits opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi. The friend who uses a Toyota Car but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth. Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite the friend who uses a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a Mahindra car. Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars.

99. Who uses the Mahindra Car?

1. Venkat
2. Anu
3. Vidya
4. Divya.

Answer: (c)

100. Keerthi is how many places away from the one who uses the Ford car?

1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two.

Answer: (b)

101. Who sits third to the left of the one who uses the Chevrolet?

1. Anu
2. Maya
3. Divya
4. Vidya.

Answer: (b)

102. Which one does not belong to the group?

1. Maruti
2. Skoda
3. Honda
4. Mahindra

Answer: (d)

103. Which is the car used by Maya?

1. Toyota
2. Chevrolet
3. Mahindra
4. Ford.

Answer: (a)

104. In a queue, I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my position in the queue?

1. 37
2. 36
3. 38
4. 39.

Answer: (d)

105. Directions: Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of action(s) given below the statement.

Statement: Most of those who study in premier Medical colleges in India migrate to developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.

Courses of action:

1. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time of admission to the effect that they will remain in India at least for ten years after they complete their medical education.
2. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked to pay the entire cost of their education which the government subsidised.

1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follow
4. Neither I nor II follows.

Answer: (b)

106. Directions: Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of action(s) given below the statement.

Statement: Official data show more people died on Indian roads in 2016 than in 2015; UP and Tamil Nadu accounted for the largest numbers of fatalities.

Courses of action:

1. Government should make a policy regulating the manufacturing of automobiles for private use.
2. Government should take steps to create awareness among the public about road safety.
3. Accidents can be avoided if the Government takes steps to make good roads.
4. To eliminate accidents completely the Government should impose stringent punishments for traffic violations.

1. Only II and IV follow
2. Only II follows
3. Only III and IV follow
4. Only IV follows.

Answer: (b)

107. Directions: Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On the basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.

Statements: Some rats are cows. All cows are animals.

Conclusions:

1. All rats are animals.
2. Some animals are rats.

1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Both Conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.

Answer: (b)

108. Directions: Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On the basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.

Statements: All the students are young. All the teens are young. Some men are teens.

Conclusions:

1. Some students are teens.
2. Some young are students.
3. Some young are men.

1. Only (I) follows
2. Only (II) and (III) follow
3. Only (I) and (II) follow
4. Only (I) and (III) follow.

Answer: (b)

109. X started walking towards the west, after travelling 5 kilometres turned exactly to his right and walked 3 kilometres. Then he decided to walk exactly to his left. On reaching 2 kilometres, he heard a voice and walked back Then he noticed that, his friend Y was walking towards him from his right side In which direction is Y walking?

1. East
2. West
3. North
4. South.

Answer: (c)

110. If ‘DECEMBER’ is ‘AUGUST’, ‘MARCH’ is ‘MAY’, ‘SEPTEMBER’ is ‘SEPTEMBER’ and ‘OCTOBER’ is ‘JULY’, then ‘JUNE’ is?

1. FEBRUARY
2. APRIL
3. JANUARY
4. NOVEMBER.

Answer: (b)

Case Questions with 2 questions

Directions: Read the information below and answer the question.

1. A neurosurgeon, an orthopaedist, a plastic surgeon and an ophthalmologist visited the patient after a surgery.
2. The time of each visit is mentioned below:
3. Neurosurgeon at 7:45
4. Orthopaedist 8:30
5. Plastic surgeon 9:15
6. Ophthalmologist 9:50

Each time mentioned above may be either A.M. or P.M.

111. If the ophthalmologist generally goes for his rounds before the surgeons, but not unless any other doctor does, and the neurosurgeon is not the last to go for his rounds, what is the correct sequence of their visit?

1. Orthopaedist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist
2. Neurosurgeon, Orthopaedist, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist
3. Orthopaedist, Ophthalmologist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon
4. Ophthalmologist, Orthopaedist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon.

Answer: (c)

112. Who were the doctors to visit the patient in the evening?

1. Neurosurgeon and Plastic surgeon
2. Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist and Neurosurgeon
3. Orthopaedist and Neurosurgeon
4. Ophthalmologist and Orthopaedist and Plastic surgeon.

Answer: (a)

113. Samantha is your father’s mother’s grandson’s daughter Therefore, Samantha is your

1. niece
2. sister
3. uncle
4. brother.

Answer: (a)

114. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, …. What number should come next?

1. 7
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13.

Answer: (b)

115. In an interview for selection of two District Judges, four candidates, P, Q, R and S were shortlisted. All of them had 10 years standing as Lawyers. Who among them are most suitable?

1. P – Very academic not much interested in litigation practice, very honest and impatient.
2. Q – A patient listener, average in academics, thorough with Laws and sharp.
3. R – Jovial, Patient, good academic records and actively involved in politics.
4. S – Shrewd, Quick tempered, punctual and published several Legal articles.

1. P and Q
2. Q and S
3. R and S
4. P and S.

Answer: (b)

116. Find the odd one out.

1. Bat
2. Vulture
3. Eagle
4. Owl.

Answer: (a)

Case Questions with 2 Questions

Direction: Read the information below and answer the question.

On the farewell day five best friends, namely, Vishal, Anirudh, Gaurav Mansi and Sapna, clicked their photo, facing the photographer who is on the west.

They were standing as per the following conditions:

1. Sapna stands to the right of Mansi and Gaurav
2. Gaurav stands to the left of Vishal and Sapna
3. Mansi stands between Vishal and Anirudh
4. There are two people between Anirudh and Gaurav.

117. Who will be standing at the 2nd position from the right in the photograph?

1. Vishal
2. Mansi
3. Gaurav
4. Anirudh.

Answer: (a)

118. Who stands to the left of Anirudh?

1. Sapna
2. Gaurav
3. Mansi
4. Vishal.

Answer: (c)

119. Find the equivalent for ‘?’

Sphygmomanometer : Blood Pressure :: Pyrometer : ?

1. Temperature
2. Blood Flow
3. Urine Flow
4. Atmospheric Pressure.

Answer: (a)

120. From morning 11 O’clock to Evening 7 O’clock, how many times the hour hand and minutes hand will overlap each other?

1. 9
2. 8
3. 7
4. 6.

Answer: (c)

121. Find the odd one out.

1. Police station
2. Railway station
3. Supermarket
4. Airport.

Answer: (a)

122. Direction: Read the following carefully and answer the question given below.

Although women now constitute 30 percent of the global industrial force, legal hurdles and traditional barriers still hinder the vast majority of women in their efforts to achieve parity with men.

The paragraph best supports the statement:

1. The Author claims that Feminism rules
2. Equality of men and women is still a myth
3. Women should surpass men in all the fields
4. The Author claims that women have to take more efforts.

Answer: (b)

123. If TEACHER is coded as CAHEETR and STUDENT is coded as DUETNST, then what is the code for SUCCESS?

1. CECSUSS
2. CCEUSSS
3. SCUSCES
4. UCSECSS.

Answer: (b)

Directions for Questions 124-129: Read the following and answer the questions.

Chetan invited five of his friends, namely Ritwik, Avantika, Darshan, Parul and Shweta to his birthday party. Each of the five friends gifted Chetan a different article – a jacket, a watch, a shirt, a video game and a headphone. As a return gift, Chetan gifted each of them a different article – goggles, a bag, a pen, a mobile case and a diary. The following is additional information about the gifts given by the friends and the return gifts they received.

1. Avantika gifted the shirt but did not receive a bag in return.
2. Shweta did not gift the headphone but received the mobile case in return.
3. Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the goggles in return.
4. The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag.
5. Darshan did not gift a watch but received a pen in return.
6. Neither Shweta gifted a video game nor did Ritwik received a diary in return.

124. Who gifted the watch?

1. Shweta
2. Darshan
3. Ritwik
4. Parul.

Answer: (a)

125. Who received goggles as a return gift?

1. Avantika
2. Ritwik
3. Parul
4. Darshan.

Answer: (c)

126. Which among the following combination is correct?

1. Avantika – Bag
2. Ritwik – Video Game
3. Ritwik – Diary
4. Parul – Watch.

Answer: (b)

127. Who gifted the headphones?

1. Shweta
2. Ritwik
3. Darshan
4. Parul.

Answer: (c)

128. Which among the following combination is correct?

1. Avantika – Diary
2. Headphones – Diary
3. Ritwik – Goggle
4. Watch – Bag.

Answer: (a)

129. The one who received the bag in return, gifted which among the following items?

1. Watch
2. Video Game
3. Headphones
4. Jackets.

Answer: (b)

130. Direction: Examine the following expressions/activities/processes, and arrange them in the most logical sequence.

1. Design, 2. Need, 3. Launching, 4. Research, 5. Testing, 6. Identify.

1. 4, 1, 6, 2, 3, 5
2. 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
3. 3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2
4. 2, 4, 1, 5, 6, 3.

Answer: (b)

Section IV – Maths

131. The value of the expression is:

1. 2/15
2. 2
3. 7 ½
4. 15.

Answer: (d)

132. The fractions 42/491, 30/313 and 35/367 are arranged in ascending order of magnitude as:

1. 35/367, 30/313, 42/491
2. 42/491, 35/367, 30/313
3. 30/313, 35/367, 42/491
4. 42/491, 30/313, 35/367.

Answer: (b)

133. Let x be the greatest number of 4 digits, which when divided by 15, 20 and 28 leaves in each case the remainder 2. The sum of digits of x is:

1. 19
2. 21
3. 23
4. 25.

Answer: (c)

134. A student was asked to simplify the expression:

his answer was 1/65. What is the difference between his answer and the correct answer?

1. 1/65
2. 1/130
3. 1/26
4. 1/13.

Answer: (b)

135. When 13511, 13903 and 14589 are divided by the greatest number ‘n’, the remainder in each case is ‘m’. The value of (n + m) is:

1. 183
2. 182
3. 181
4. 179.

Answer: (a)

136. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which measures of angle D and angle C are 60^o and 100^o, respectively. If the internal bisectors of angle A and angle B meet at P, then measure of angle APB is:

1. 80^o
2. 90^o
3. 100^o
4. 110^o.

Answer: (a)

137. Suman saves 10% of her monthly salary. Now her expenditure increases by 30% and savings increases by 50%. The present increase in her salary is:

1. 25%
2. 30%
3. 32%
4. 40%.

Answer: (c)

138. A sum amounts to Rs. 9,680 in 2 years and to Rs. 10,648 in 3 years respectively at compound interest.

What will be the amount if the same sum is invested for 1 2/5 years at the same rate of compound interest?

1. Rs. 9,025
2. Rs. 9,152
3. Rs. 9,215
4. Rs. 9,251.

Answer: (b)

139. The marked price of an article is 20% more than the cost price. If the article is sold at a discount of 15% on its marked price, then the gain percent is:

1. 5
2. 4 ½
3. 2 ½
4. 2.

Answer: (d)

140. Reshma sells an article to Rekha at 37.5% profit, Rekha sells it to Madhu at 9 1/11 % profit. Again Madhu sells it to Mitu at 25% loss. If Mitu pays Rs. 342 for the article, then what is the cost price of the article to Reshma?

1. Rs. 304
2. Rs. 266.50
3. Rs. 380
4. Rs. 384.75.

Answer: (a)

141. The number of children in a camp is x and their average weight is 20 kg. If 5 children each weighing 12 kg, join the camp or if 10 children each weighing 21 kg leave the camp, the average weight in both the cases remain the same. The value of x is:

1. 18
2. 16
3. 15
4. 14.

Answer: (c)

142. In a 120 litre of solution of acid and water, acid is 75%. A person takes out 20 litres of this solution and added 16.2 litres of acid and 3.8 litres of water in the remaining solution. What is the percentage of water in the final solution?

1. 22
2. 24
3. 25
4. 28.

Answer: (b)

143. Twelve men and 5 women can complete a work in 2 days whereas 4 men and 3 women can complete the same work in 5 days. In how many days can 8 men complete the work?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6.

Answer: (b)

144. A and B are inversely proportional to each other and are positive. If A increases by 100%, then B decreases by:

1. 50%
2. 75%
3. 100%
4. 200%.

Answer: (a)

145. Four pipes A, B, C and D can fill a tank with water in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. Pipe A is opened at 4 a.m., B at 5 a.m., C at 6 a.m. and D at 7 a.m. When is the tank filled up completely?

1. 9:30 a.m.
2. 10:00 a.m.
3. 10:30 a.m.
4. 11:00 a.m.

Answer: (d)

146. If a person travels at a speed of 40 km/hr he will reach his destination on time. He covered half the journey in 2/3 of time. At what speed (in km/hr) should he travel to cover the remaining journey to reach the destination on time?

1. 48
2. 50
3. 60
4. 72.

Answer: (c)

147. The parallel sides of a trapezium shaped field are 25 m and 10 m and non-parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. What is the area (in m²) of the field?

1. 204
2. 196
3. 156
4. 144.

Answer: (b)

148. x² (a-b) + a²(b-x) + b² (x-a) is factored as:

1. (a-b)(x-a)(x-b)
2. (a-b)(x-a)(x+b)
3. (b-a)(x+a)(x-b)
4. (a+b)(x-a)(x+b).

Answer: (a)

149. Three fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of numbers on their tops, is at least 6?

1. 5/108
2. 1/24
3. 103/108
4. 17/18.

Answer: (c)

150. Six dice are stacked on the floor as shown in the figure below. On each dice, the sum of numbers on opposite faces is 7, i.e., if 1 is written on one face then 6 is written on the face opposite it and so on.

What is the maximum possible sum of numbers on the 21 visible faces?

1. 88
2. 89
3. 96
4. 147.

Answer: (b)

Section V – Legal Aptitude

151. Article 51-A on Fundamental Duties was inserted into the Constitution of India through the:

1. 41st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
2. 44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978
3. 40th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
4. 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976.

Answer: (d)

152. The highest law officer in India is the:

1. Attorney General
2. Advocate General
3. Solicitor General
4. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India.

Answer: (a)

153. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. 21
2. 22
3. 19
4. 18.

Answer: (b)

154. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an:

1. Administrative authority
2. Co-ordinating and Supervisory authority
3. Consultative Committee
4. Advisory body.

Answer: (b)

155. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. A To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
2. B To join the Defence Forces of India
3. C To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
4. D To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Answer: (b)

156. The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to:

1. All illiterate children of India
2. All citizens of India
3. Children aged between 6 and 14 years
4. All children up to the age of 10 years.

Answer: (c)

Directions: The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items from the Codes given below.

157. Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the poor.

Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty.

Codes:

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation to A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a)

158. Which was the law introduced by Sir William Bentinck to prohibit the practice of Sati?

1. Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829
2. P. Sati Prohibition Act, 1828
3. Indian Sati Prohibition Act, 1827
4. Rajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act, 1830.

Answer: (a)

158. Legal Principle: Nothing is an ‘offence’, if committed by a child below seven years of age.

Fact Situation: Adil, aged six years, is a student of class one. He placed his sharpened pencil on the bench with its pointed end up when his classmate Ajay stood up to answer a question from the teacher. Ajay gets hurt when he sits on the pencil and Adil and his friends have a good laugh. Ajay’s father, on seeing his son injured when he returns home, wants action against Adil.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Adil has committed an ‘offence’
2. Adil has not committed any ‘offence’
3. Childish pranks cannot be investigated by the police
4. The class teacher must be arrested.

Answer: (b)

160. Legal Principle: The doctrine of basic structure in Constitutional jurisprudence means that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be taken away through amendments by the Parliament. The power of judicial review is a part of the basic structure and it helps the constitutional Courts to determine whether an amendment is against the basic structure or not.

Fact Situation: Parliament proposes an amendment to limit the power of appeal against conviction for the offence of Sedition, to be exercised only by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. The proposed amendment is against the doctrine of basic structure
2. The proposed amendment is unconnected to the doctrine of basic structure
3. The proposed amendment can be reviewed and struck down by the Constitutional Courts
4. The proposed amendment is beyond the power of the Parliament.

Answer: (c)

161. Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in India?

1. Rajendra Prasad
2. Sachchidananda Sinha
3. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
4. B.R. Ambedkar.

Answer: (b)

162. Legal Principle: It is an offence to obstruct a public servant in the due discharge of his duty.

Right of private defence is available to protect one’s person and property.

Fact Situation: Sidhu comes to the rescue of his uncle who is sought to be taken into a car by some men. In the process, he causes injury to some of them. Later, it turns out that the men were police persons in plain clothes trying to enforce a warrant against his uncle.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Sidhu has committed the offence of obstructing a public servant in due discharge of his duty
2. Sidhu has not committed an offence since he did not know that the men were from the police
3. Sidhu’s uncle has resisted arrest and should be proceeded against
4. Sidhu should not have tried to help his uncle without ascertaining the fact.

Answer: (b)

163. Legal Principle: An employer is liable for the act of his servant performed during the course of employment.

Fact Situation: While working as a driver for Verma, Alok sometimes used to earn some side income by carrying parcels for others in Verma’s car without his knowledge or permission. While going to pick Verma from the airport one day, Alok stopped to deliver a parcel he was carrying with him. While he was delivering the parcel, which unknown to him was one of contraband goods, the police arrested Alok.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Verma is liable for the act of Alok since he is Verma’s driver
2. Verma is liable for the act of Alok since he had gone to pick Verma from the airport
3. Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since Alok himself did not know that he was carrying contraband goods
4. Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since carrying the parcel was not in the course of his employment.

Answer: (d)

164. Which law introduced the system of dyarchy in India during the British reign?

1. The Government of India Act, 1858
2. The Government of India Act, 1909
3. The Government of India Act, 1919
4. The Government of India Act, 1935.

Answer: (c)

165. Legal Principle: The Latin maxim nemo bispunitur pro eodemdelicto means that nobody can be punished twice for the same offence.

Fact Situation: Sajan, a petty thief, is caught and thrashed thoroughly by the people before being handed over to the police. Sajan pleads before the magistrate that since he was already thrashed by the people he should not be again punished by the State.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Sajan is right since nobody should be punished for the same offence twice
2. Thrashing given by the people does not amount to legal punishment and so Sajan can be punished by the State
3. Giving a good thrashing to the thief is the best form of punishment to prevent future theft
4. The Magistrate should take into consideration the thrashing received by Sajan while fixing his punishment.

Answer: (b)

166. Legal Principle: The Latin maxim qui facit per alium, facit per se means that he who acts through another, acts himself.

Fact Situation: Heema requests her minor sister Harika to purchase a bag for her from the local shop. Harika purchases the bag on credit telling the shop keeper that her sister will pay for it. Afterwards, Heema refuses to pay for the bag.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Since Heema has not purchased the bag herself she is not liable to pay for it
2. Harika being a minor the shop keeper should not have sold the bag to her
3. Since she purchased the bag through her sister, Heema is liable to pay for it
4. Harika being a minor should not have been entrusted by Heema for the purchase of the bag.

Answer: (c)

167. Legal Principle: Negligence is the absence of care by one party which results in some damage to another. Damage is an essential ingredient to constitute a tort of negligence.

Fact Situation: Mistry left his ladder on the public road while unloading it from a truck when he went to open the shutters of his shop. Saini who was riding his motorcycle had to swerve hard to avoid hitting the ladder as he came with speed on the road. Saini fell down but was miraculously not injured.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Mistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was not injured though he fell down
2. Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since Saini fell down due to the presence of the ladder
3. Mistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was speeding on the road
4. Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since he was careless in leaving the ladder on the road.

Answer: (b)

168. Legal Principle: Every partner is liable alone and jointly with other partners for the debts of a partnership firm incurred for the business. Every partner is an agent of every other partner while being a principal in his own right in the business of the partnership.

Fact Situation: Varun is a partner in a firm with Chinmoy and Jaffar. Jaffar purchases a car for his personal purpose and obtains credit for the same in the name of the partnership behind the back of the other partners. He fails to pay the due amount on the expiry of the period of credit.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable to pay for the car since they are partners and the credit was obtained in the name of the firm
2. Varun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for his personal purpose
3. Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable as partners for all credit obtained in the name of the firm even if it is for the personal purpose of a partner
4. Jaffar can use the credit of the firm to make purchases even for personal purposes since he is a partner in the partnership.

Answer: (b)

169. Legal Principle: Parents are not liable for wrongs committed by their children unless they provide the opportunity for such wrongful acts to be committed by their children.

Fact Situation: Sunil, a minor, takes the keys to his father’s car from the table top where his father keeps it, drives the car on the public road and hits a pedestrian who gets injured.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Since Sunil took the car without his father’s permission, his father is not liable for Sunil’s act resulting in the accident
2. Sunil’s father is liable for the conduct of Sunil resulting in the accident since he left the car keys where his son could easily take it without permission
3. Accidents happen despite utmost care and hence neither Sunil nor his father is liable in the instant case
4. Sunil’s father is not liable since he had kept his car locked and securely deposited its keys without negligence on his table top.

Answer: (b)

170. Legal Principle: No remedy lies in law where an injury is caused to a person without any infringement of his legal right.

Fact Situation: Ashutosh started a tuition Centre right next to the one being run for the past twenty years by Gulshan. After Ashutosh started his Centre, a large number of students shifted from Gulshan’s tuition Centre to Ashutosh’s Centre forcing Gulshan to close down his establishment suffering huge losses. Can Gulshan initiate legal action against Ashutosh?

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Ashutosh must compensate Gulshan for his loss consequent to the start of the new tuition centre
2. Gulshan cannot blame Ashutosh if he cannot retain his students
3. Ashutosh has not violated any legal right of Gulshan, though students shifted to Ashutosh’s Centre and though Gulshan suffered loss, after he shut down his tuition Centre
4. Gulshan should have improved his quality with lower fees to retain his students in the light of competition brought in by Ashutosh.

Answer: (c)

171. Legal Principle: Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Fact Situation: Ubaid refuses to give a sample of his blood after he is stopped by the police for driving over the speed limit. The police suspect him to be driving under the influence of alcohol, which is prohibited under the law.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Ubaid is protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample
2. Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) as he was under the influence of alcohol
3. Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample since he is not accused of any offence yet
4. Refusal to give a blood sample is a crime and Ubaid must be punished for the same.

Answer: (c)

172. The law which provides special powers to the Armed Forces in India is popularly known as:

1. AFSPA
2. POTA
3. TADA
4. SARFAESI.

Answer: (a)

173. Legal Principle: The law states that a food business operator must be registered with or licensed by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to run a food business.

Fact Situation: Kavita’s neighbours suffer food poisoning after consuming sweets gifted by her on the occasion of a celebration at her home. Kavita does not have a registration or license from the FSSAI.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Kavita is in violation of the law since she does not have a FSSAI registration or license
2. Kavita is not in violation of the law since she did not make the sweets she gave by way of gift
3. Law does not apply in cases like this where transactions happen between neighbours
4. Kavita need not take a license or register with FSSAI since she is not running a food business.

Answer: (d)

174. Legal Principle: An agreement entered into by way of a wager/bet is unenforceable in law.

Fact Situation: Thomas is very good at predicting outcomes of cricket matches. Raja and Hoja give him rupees thousand each to enable him to bet with others about the outcome of a cricket match. Thomas wins rupees three lakh after betting three thousand rupees.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Thomas must share rupees three lakh with Raja and Hoja equally
2. Thomas must return rupees thousand each to Raja and Hoja
3. Thomas need not share the three lakh with Raja and Hoja since it is the outcome of an unenforceable agreement
4. If Thomas does not pay them rupees two lakh each, Raja and Hoja can sue him to recover their share.

Answer: (c)

175. Legal Principle: ‘Audi alteram partem’ is a Latin phrase which means ‘hear the other side’. It is the principle that no person should be judged without a fair hearing.

Fact Situation: Sanjay, in Delhi, is accused of theft and brought before the Court. The Magistrate discovers that Sanjay is mute.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. The principle is not applicable to Sanjay since he is mute
2. The principle is applicable to Sanjay even though he cannot speak since he can be asked to write down his defence
3. The Magistrate has to take all measures to understand what Sanjay has to convey about the accusation against him
4. Since it is a Latin principle it is not applicable in India.

Answer: (c)

176. Legal Principle: An essential condition in a contract for sale of goods is that the seller has title over the goods sold.

Fact Situation: Ranjan pays rupees two thousand and buys a watch from Mohit who runs a watch showroom and a repair shop. Jatin sees the watch with Ranjanand tells him that it is his watch and was only given to Mohit for repairs. If what Jatin says is true,

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Ranjan is now the owner of the watch since he paid rupees two thousand for it
2. Ranjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it
3. Mohit must pay Jatin rupees two thousand since he sold Jatin’s watch
4. Mohit is the owner of the watch since he sold it to Ranjan.

Answer: (b)

177. Legal Principle: The insurer agrees to pay no more than the actual amount of the loss.

Fact Situation: Sunny insures his car worth rupees five lakh with X, an insurance company, for its value. He again insures the same car with Y, another insurance company, on the same terms. There is an accident and the car suffers a total loss. In his separate suits against X and Y, if Sunny recovers rupees five lakh from X, how much can he recover from Y?

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Sunny can recover rupees five lakhs from Y
2. Sunny cannot recover any amount from Y
3. Sunny must pay Y, the rupees five lakhs he received from X
4. Sunny cannot insure his car with both X and Y at the same time.

Answer: (b)

178. Legal Principle: When there is an infringement of the legal right of a person, he gets a right to sue the wrongdoer for remedy irrespective of any actual loss caused.

Fact Situation: Saroj is prevented from voting at an election. The candidate she intended to vote for, wins the election.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Saroj’s legal right has been violated and she can sue the persons who prevented her from voting
2. Since Saroj‘s candidate has won the election, her rights are not violated and she cannot sue
3. Since Saroj is not the candidate, her rights are not violated if she is prevented from voting
4. This principle is not at all applicable in this case.

Answer: (a)

179. Which of the following is the oldest law code in India?

1. Hammurabi’s code
2. Prasarsmriti
3. Manusmriti
4. Naradasmriti.

Answer: (c)

180. Legal Principle: A product cannot be sold in shops to consumers after its date of expiry.

Fact Situation: Lata, while shopping, notices that the milk packets on the shelves are due for expiry on that day. She objects to this to the shopkeeper, saying that since she was there to buy milk for the next day, keeping the milk on its date of expiry was against the law.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Lata is right and the shopkeeper should take the milk packets off his shelves
2. The shopkeeper should not sell the milk packets after the date of expiry is over
3. The shopkeeper must remove the milk packets from the shelves and keep it refrigerated
4. Milk is not a product and hence the principle is not applicable in this case.

Answer: (b)

181. Legal Principle: Nuisance is the unlawful interference with a person’s enjoyment of his land or some rights over or in connection with it.

Fact Situation: Ashok, in his nineties, is hard of hearing and plays the radio very loudly throughout the day and on a daily basis. Raju, his neighbour, complaints that he cannot listen to his favourite TV show in his home due to the radio of Ashok.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Listening to the radio is Ashok’s freedom
2. Ashok is creating nuisance to his neighbour by playing the radio loud perpetually and disturbing Raju in being able to listen to the TV in his home
3. Raju is creating nuisance by complaining about Ashok’s enjoyment of hearing his radio
4. Raju should appreciate that Ashok is aged and hard of hearing.

Answer: (b)

182. Legal Principle: Agreements in restraint of trade are void and unenforceable.

Fact Situation: Manu has been working as a blacksmith in his village for many decades. Somu has been undergoing training with him for the past three years. After his training is over, Somu enters into an agreement with Manu that he will not start a competing business in the same village while Manu is alive.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. This agreement is void and unenforceable since it is a restraint on trade
2. This agreement is valid and enforceable since Manu is Somu’s teacher
3. This agreement is valid but not enforceable after Manu’s death
4. This agreement is valid and enforceable since it is to protect Manu’s interest in consideration for teaching Somu to be a blacksmith.

Answer: (a)

183. What does FIR stand for under the Criminal Law?

1. Forensic Investigation Report
2. First Investigation Report
3. First Information Report
4. Formal Interrogation Record.

Answer: (c)

184. Under which of the following enactments, is the use of mobile phone while driving made punishable?

1. The Information Technology Act
2. The Indian Penal Code
3. The Motor Vehicles Act
4. The Criminal Procedure Code.

Answer: (c)

185. Legal Principle: A person is liable to compensate others for harm caused by the escape of any inherently dangerous material that he keeps on his land.

Fact Situation: Ankit lights a bonfire in his courtyard to warm himself up during a cold winter evening. A strong wind suddenly blows some sparks from the fire, on to his neighbour’s house which catches fire and gets completely destroyed.

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Ankit’s neighbour is liable to Ankit for distress caused by keeping a house that catches fire so quickly
2. Ankit is not liable because nobody could foresee that the sudden wind will blow the sparks to cause a fire
3. Ankit’s neighbour cannot make Ankit liable for the loss of his house since it was an accidental fire that destroyed it
4. Ankit is liable to compensate because the fire escaped from his premises to burn down his neighbour’s house.

Answer: (d)

186. Legal Principle: A characteristic feature of partnerships is the principle of mutual agency, i.e., every partner is an agent for every other partner and will hence be able to bind them by his act, within the business of partnership.

Fact Situation: Ram and Shyam are partners of M/s R & S Trading Company which trades in rice varieties. Ram agrees to purchase ten tons of rice from Govind. Ram dies after the rice is delivered to the premises of M/s R & S Trading Company but before the payment of price is made. Is the agreement binding on Shyam?

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

1. Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is not binding on Shyam
2. Since Ram is no more, the agreement is not binding on Shyam
3. Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is binding on Shyam
4. The agreement is binding on Ram and not on Shyam since the rice is delivered only to M/s R & S Trading Company and not to Shyam.

Answer: (c)

187. Who is an Ombudsman?

1. A judicial officer designated to receive complaints against the violation of rights of citizens
2. An official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating and addressing complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights
3. An elected representative of the people to investigate and address the complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights
4. A specially designated police officer assigned with the power to investigate and address the complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.

Answer: (b)

188. Which authority in India notified the guidelines for the protection of persons assisting accident victims on Indian roads based on the Supreme Court direction?

1. Ministry of Surface Transport, Govt. of India
2. Ministry of Social Justice, Govt. of India
3. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Govt. of India
4. National Human Rights Commission.

Answer: (c)

189. Article 1 of a legal instrument reads: “All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.”

Which is the legal instrument being referred to above?

1. National Human Rights Act, 1995
2. Constitution of India, 1951
3. Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
4. Philadelphia Declaration, 1944.

Answer: (c)

190. Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:

Statement: It is a fundamental duty, which is unenforceable in a Court of Law that every citizen shall renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Conclusions:

1. Reservation of seats for women in employment is violative of the principle stated.
2. Asking a lady inappropriate questions about her personal life is violative of the principle stated.

1. Only Conclusion 1 follows
2. Only Conclusion 2 follows
3. Conclusions 1 and 2 follow
4. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.

Answer: (b)

191. Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:

Statement: A punishment is the imposition of an undesirable or unpleasant outcome upon a group or individual, meted out by an authority.

Conclusions:

1. Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.
2. Imposition of fine on someone who inflicted bodily injury on another is justified by the statement.

1. Only Conclusion 1 follows
2. Only Conclusion 2 follows
3. Conclusions 1 and 2 follow
4. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.

Answer: (c)

192. Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:

Statement: Necessity knows no law.

Conclusions:

1. The act of a captain throwing some cargo into the ocean to save the ship from sinking is justified by the principle.
2. The act of a man out of poverty and starvation stealing some food from a hotel is justified by the principle.
3. The act of a tourist killing a tiger when it was attacking a villager is justified by the principle.

1. Only Conclusion 1 follows
2. Only Conclusion 2 follows
3. Only Conclusion 1 and 3 follow
4. All Conclusions follow.

Answer: (c)

193. Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the options given:

Statements:

1. Justice delayed is justice denied. Justice hurried is justice buried.
2. More than 3 crore cases are pending in the Indian Courts.

Conclusions:

1. People are not getting justice in India.
2. Disposal of cases by ‘Fast track Courts’ results in injustice.
3. Cases must be disposed off within a reasonable time.

1. Only Conclusion 1 follows
2. Only Conclusion 2 follows
3. Only Conclusion 3 follows
4. No Conclusion follows.

Answer: (c)

194. Legal Principle: One of the principles of ‘Natural Justice’ states that, “No person shall be a judge in his own cause”.

Facts: A, a driver of B, a Branch Manager of ABC Bank was caught, suspecting theft, in the bank premises. The Bank management instituted an enquiry and made B the enquiry officer.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. As B is a Bank Manager and not a judge, this principle is inapplicable
2. Since the suspected theft was in the bank premises, the manager is the only competent person to enquire. Hence, the principle is not applicable
3. Since B is the employer of A, B should not be conducting the enquiry on the basis of the given principle
4. The principle will be applicable, only if the theft committed by A was in relation to the car.

Answer: (c)

195. Legal Principle: Justice should not only be done, but also seen to be done.

Facts: L, an honest Lawyer had 200 shares in Company X. Later, L was elevated to the High Court as a Judge and had to deal with company matters. A dispute between Company X and its creditors came before L for decision.

Which among the following proposition is true?

1. L, as an honest person will definitely judge the matter on the merits only. So, the principle cannot apply
2. A Judge cannot excuse himself from taking up a case posted before him by the Court Registry
3. L should refrain from hearing the matter as he holds shares of the Company X
4. Since, L has only 200 shares he has no substantial interest in the company and hence can decide the matter.

Answer: (c)

196. Legal Principle: A person who keeps hazardous substances in his premises, is responsible for the fault if that substance escapes in any manner and causes damage.

Facts: A, an industrialist stored 1000 litres of liquid ammonia in a tank in his premises for his industrial use. There was a leakage from the tank due to which there was ammonia vapour in the surroundings. Many workers in other industries as well as his own industry and some members from the public suffered serious health hazards.

Examine the liability of A, if any.

1. A may be liable for the injury sustained by his workers only and not others
2. A is liable as he is responsible for the injury caused by the leakage of ammonia from his premises
3. A is not liable because there was no fault on his part for the escape of the dangerous substance
4. A is not liable because he did not expect a leakage from the tank.

Answer: (b)

197. Legal Principle: In the law of evidence, a person missing for long and not heard of, for over seven years is presumed to have died.

Facts: A, B and C are children of F and M. At the age of 20, A went out in search of a job and was not contacting the family. All attempts to trace A by the family failed. Eight years after the death of the parents, B and C entered into a partition and took equal share in the property of F and M. One year after this, A returned home with his wife and two children and claimed his share in the property.

Whether A’s claim is legally sustainable?

1. Since A was not heard of, for more than eight years, the legal presumption of death will apply and hence, he cannot claim a share in the property
2. It was A’s duty to be in touch with the family at least once in a year. The failure of this duty will disentitle him from claiming property
3. A will succeed because he is a legitimate son of F and M
4. B and C are legally bound to give 1/3rd share of the property to A.

Answer: (a)

198. Legal Principle: ‘Gift’ means transfer of certain existing property made voluntarily and without consideration, by a donor, to a donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee during the lifetime of the donor.

Facts: Amit executed a gift deed for property X in favour of Sooraj, who happened to be Amit’s loyal servant’s son settled in the U.S. Two months thereafter, Amit died without leaving a will regarding his assets. Amit’s children initiated steps to partition his entire property, including property X among themselves At that time, Sooraj came to India, and learning about the gift, claimed the property X.

1. Sooraj can legally get the property X, as soon as he gets to know about the gift
2. Sooraj cannot legally claim the property X because, the children of Amit have already initiated steps for partition
3. Sooraj can claim the property X, because, his acceptance of the gift is implicit by his conduct of claiming the property as soon as he came to know about the gift
4. Sooraj apparently did not comply with the essential requirements of a gift and hence, the entire property including property X, can be partitioned among the children of Amit.

Answer: (d)

199. The right to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is a:

1. Legal right
2. Fundamental right
3. Human right
4. Constitutional right.

Answer: (a)

200. The primary legislation relating to organ donation and transplantation, aimed at regulation of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for prevention of commercial dealings in human organs in India, namely, the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, was passed in the year

1. 1994
2. 1998
3. 2004
4. 2014.

Answer: (a)

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