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DU LLB 2019 Solved Paper | DU LLB Entrance Solved Paper PDF

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Find DU LLB 2019 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Owing to the increasing competition day by day, getting into your dream college is not that easy. Practice the DU LLB past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper… Read More »

DU LLB 2019 Solved Paper | DU LLB Entrance Solved Paper PDF
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Find DU LLB 2019 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Owing to the increasing competition day by day, getting into your dream college is not that easy. Practice the DU LLB past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

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DU LLB QUESTION PAPER 2019 | Click Here to Download PDF

DU LLB QUESTION PAPER, 2019

Duration of exam: 2 hours
Maximum marks: 400
Negative marking: 1

1. Question given below has a set of three statements. Choose the alternative where the third statement can be logically deduced from both the preceding alternatives, but not just from one of them:

A: Many teachers are not readers. All singers are teachers. All singers are not readers

B: Some giraffes are donkeys. Some giraffes are sheep. Some sheep are donkeys.

C: All locks are keys. Some keys do not open. Some locks do not open

  1. C only
  2. B and C
  3. B only
  4. A and C.

Answer: (a)

2. Question given below has a set of three statements. Choose the alternative where the third statement can be logically deduced from both the preceding alternatives, but not just from one of them

A: Few mathematicians are scientists. Some scientists play. Few Mathematicians play

B: Rabbit is a flower. Some flowers are made of chromoplasts. Rabbit is made of chromoplast

C: No elephant eats grass. All lions eat grass. No lions are elephants

  1. C only
  2. B and C
  3. B only
  4. A and C.

Answer: (a)

3. Directions:

(i) A is older than S

(ii) M is older than A but younger than K

(iii) K is elder than S

(iv) S is younger than M

(v) G is the eldest

Who is the youngest?

  1. A
  2. S
  3. M
  4. K.

Answer: (b)

4. Directions:

(i) A is older than S

(ii) M is older than A but younger than K

(iii) K is elder than S

(iv) S is younger than M

(v) G is the eldest

Age wise, who is in the middle?

  1. A
  2. S
  3. M
  4. K.

Answer: (c)

5. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

The sum of the incomes of U and V is more than that of X and Y taken together. The sum of the incomes of U and X is the same as that of V and Y taken together. Moreover U earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of V and Y.

Whose income is the highest?

  1. Y
  2. X
  3. U
  4. V.

Answer: (d)

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6. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

The sum of the incomes of U and V is more than that of X and Y taken together. The sum of the incomes of U and X is the same as that of V and Y taken together. Moreover U earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of V and Y.

Which statement is correct?

  1. V and Y together earn half of what X earns
  2. U earns equal to X
  3. U earns more than X
  4. Y earns less than X.

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Both FIFA, 2014 – Brazil, FIFA, 2018 – Russia & FIFA, 2022 – Qatar & FIFA, 2010 – South Africa, FIFA,2018 – Russia & FIFA, 2022 – Qatar
  2. FIFA, 2014 – Brazil, FIFA, 2018 – Russia & FIFA, 2022 – Qatar
  3. FIFA, 2010 – South Africa, FIFA, 2018 – Russia & FIFA, 2022 – Qatar
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

8. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?

  1. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
  2. Elected members of the Legislative Council
  3. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
  4. Elected members of Lok Sabha.

Answer: (b)

9. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points towards north east, then the hour hand will point towards the:

  1. South -west
  2. North-west
  3. South
  4. South-east.

Answer: Question Deleted

10. As per VII Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to enact laws on residuary matters lies with:

  1. State legislature
  2. None
  3. Parliament
  4. The president.

Answer: (c)

11. The doctrine of ‘Transferred Malice’ is contained in which Section of the IPC, 1860?

  1. Section 304A
  2. Section 149
  3. Section 34
  4. Section 301.

Answer: (d)

12. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ enshrined in Article 20(2) means:

  1. punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
  2. no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence
  3. one can be prosecuted several times for the same offence
  4. one can be prosecuted more than once, but punished only once.

Answer: (b)

13. The electoral college that elects the Vice President of India comprises of:

  1. Members of both Houses of Parliament
  2. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
  3. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
  4. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils.

Answer: (a)

14. A First Information Report (FIR) for a cognizable offence may be lodged by:

  1. Victim
  2. Family member of the victim
  3. All of these
  4. Police officer.

Answer: (c)

15. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with:

  1. Electoral Reforms
  2. Financial Reforms
  3. Centre-State Relations
  4. Judicial reforms.

Answer: (c)

16. The Right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntarily causing of death, if the offence which occasions the exercise of right is:

  1. an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting
  2. an assault with intention of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft
  3. an assault reasonably causing an apprehension that simple injury will be caused of arresting a person who is running away after having committed
  4. an offence of voluntarily causing hurt.

Answer: (a)

17. The anti-defection law in India is contained in:

  1. The X Schedule of the Constitution of India
  2. The VII Schedule of the Constitution of India
  3. The IV Schedule of the Constitution of India
  4. The IX Schedule of the Constitution of India

Answer: (a)

18. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of :

  1. Public Servants
  2. Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
  3. Citizens of India
  4. All those who run public and private sectors.

Answer: (c)

19. Proceedings to be in camera means:

  1. Proceedings in public
  2. Proceedings in private
  3. Proceedings recorded in camera
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

20. A general offer is an offer which:

  1. None of these
  2. Cannot be termed as a contract
  3. Contains all the essentials of a valid contract
  4. Can be accepted by anyone.

Answer: (d)

21. World Intellectual Property Day is celebrated on:

  1. 23rd September
  2. 26th April
  3. 4th August
  4. 21st June.

Answer: (b)

22. The principle of quantum meruit is applicable when:

  1. When the contract is indivisible and something in relation to contract is done
  2. When an act is done graciously
  3. The contract is divisible, and some parts are performed
  4. Both The contract is divisible, and some parts are performed and When the contract is indivisible and something in relation to contract is done.

Answer: Question Deleted

23. The President gives his resignation to the:

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. Vice President
  4. Chief Justice.

Answer: (c)

24. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?

  1. Any number of times
  2. 2 times
  3. Once
  4. 3 times.

Answer: (a)

25. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by:

  1. Rajya Sabha
  2. Lok Sabha
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  4. Both Houses of Parliament.

Answer: (d)

26. Achilles heel’ means:

  1. a food disease
  2. a kind of fungus
  3. a painful spot
  4. a weak point.

Answer: (d)

27. The word ‘plagiarist’ refers to a person who:

  1. Is a professional boxer
  2. Uses language and thoughts of another author without authorization and the representation of that author’s work as one’s own, without crediting the original author
  3. Is called by courts to give testimony in cases relating to fingerprints
  4. Is a collector of old and antique stamps of different countries.

Answer: (b)

28. Basic structure of Constitution can be amended:

  1. By 2/3rd majority
  2. By simple majority
  3. By special majority and ratification by half of states
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

29. The right to protect one’s own person and property against the unlawful aggression of others is known as:

  1. an act done by the consent of the other
  2. none of these
  3. the right of private defence
  4. volenti non fit injuria.

Answer: (c)

30. Fraud occurs when:

  1. Both an act is done with the intention to deceive another party & active concealment of facts
  2. Active concealment of facts
  3. An act is done with the intention to deceive another party
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

31. Under Patent Act, 1970 Patent is granted for:

  1. 5 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 15 years.

Answer: (c)

32. An agreement in restraint of marriage is:

  1. Void
  2. Illegal
  3. Voidable
  4. Valid.

Answer: (a)

33. X+Y > U+V and Y+U > X+V, then it is definite that:

  1. V>Y
  2. X>V
  3. Y>V
  4. U>V.

Answer: (c)

34. Who is equivalent of Attorney General in State?

  1. Judge of the High Court
  2. Advocate General
  3. Chief Minister
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

35. Who among the following is the First Iraqi National to have received the Nobel Peace Prize?

  1. Reem Alasadi
  2. Jenna Krajeski
  3. Najiba Ahmed
  4. Nadia Murad Basee Taha.

Answer: (d)

36. Under Trade Marks Act, 1999 the trademark is granted for:

  1. 10 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act
  2. 20 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act
  3. 15 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act
  4. 5 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act.

Answer: (a)

37. Caveat Venditor means:

  1. Buyer beware
  2. Seller beware
  3. None of these
  4. Manufacturer beware.

Answer: (b)

38. In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court of India decriminalized homosexuality:

  1. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978
  3. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, 1979
  4. Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, 1993.

Answer: (a)

39. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is:

  1. Hindustan i.e. Bharatvarsha
  2. Bharatdesh i.e. India
  3. India i.e. Bharat
  4. India i.e. Hindustan.

Answer: (c)

40. A’ threatens his wife and son to commit suicide in case they did not execute a deed in his favour. This will amount to:

  1. None of the above
  2. Both the above
  3. Undue influence
  4. Coercion.

Answer: (d)

41. Two young persons, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicts injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing:

  1. simple hurt by rash or negligent act
  2. simple hurt
  3. grievous hurt by rash or negligent act
  4. grievous hurt

Answer: Question Deleted

42. In which of the following cases was the judgment popularly known as Jallikattu verdict pronounced?

  1. Federation of Indian Animal Protection Organisation v. UOI
  2. Gauri Maulekhi v. UOI
  3. Animal Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja
  4. Nair, NR and others v. UOI.

Answer: (c)

43. In which of the cases the relationship of principal and agent exists:

  1. Both Relationship between partners & Relationship between employer and employee
  2. Relationship between husband and wife
  3. Relationship between employer and employee
  4. Relationship between partners.

Answer: (a)

44. In which year Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education, Act was enacted by Parliament of India?

  1. 2008
  2. 2009
  3. 2007
  4. 2005.

Answer: (b)

45. In which one of the following judgments the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?

  1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
  2. Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980)
  3. Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979)
  4. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983).

Answer: (a)

46. The three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India represent:

  1. Principle of Division of Power
  2. Principle of Separation of Power
  3. Doctrine of Cooperative Federalism
  4. Rule against non-arbitrariness.

Answer: (a)

47. Five people, A, C, D, F and G are sitting around a table. A is sitting to the left of G. One person is sitting between G and D. C is sitting to the left of A: Choose the correct option:

  1. F is sitting between C and D
  2. F is sitting between A and G
  3. F is sitting between G and D
  4. F is sitting to the right of D.

Answer: (c)

48. Non est factum means:

  1. None of these
  2. Document executed under fraud
  3. Document executed under misrepresentation
  4. It is not my deed.

Answer: (d)

49. Malimath Committee is associated with reforms in the field of:

  1. Education
  2. Domestic relations
  3. Labour Welfare
  4. Criminal Law.

Answer: (d)

50. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted. This Act replaces:

  1. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
  2. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
  3. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
  4. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

Answer: (b)

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51. On 9th March 2018, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India confirmed that the right to die with dignity is a fundamental right while allowing passive euthanasia and living will. This judgment is known as:

  1. Common Cause v. UOI
  2. Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association v. UOI
  3. Rathinam v. UOI
  4. Justice KS Puttaswamy v. UOI.

Answer: (a)

52. The essentials of a valid custom are:

  1. All of these
  2. Consistency
  3. Antiquity
  4. Certainity.

Answer: (a)

53. The essential characteristic of a tort is, violation of:

  1. right in rem (a right vested in some determinate person and available against the world at large)
  2. right in personam (a right available only against some determinate person or property)
  3. none of these
  4. a contractual right.

Answer: (a)

54. Theft and Extortion are listed under the IPC as offences against:

  1. Public order and tranquillity
  2. Property
  3. All of these
  4. Body.

Answer: (b)

55. Flog a dead horse means:

  1. To try to get work out of someone who is already exhausted
  2. To beat a horse to death
  3. Cruelty to animals
  4. Waste effort on something when there is no chance of succeeding.

Answer: (d)

56. Representation of members in House of People in India is based on:

  1. Community
  2. Population
  3. Area of the State
  4. Literacy of State.

Answer: (b)

57. Who authored the book ‘Indian Philosophy’?

  1. Shashi Tharoor
  2. William Shakespeare
  3. Charles Dickens
  4. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.

Answer: (d)

58. The term used to describe an accused who seeks pardon from the court by agreeing to testify against all others involved in the crime is:

  1. Hostile witness
  2. None of these
  3. Accomplice
  4. Approver

Answer: (d)

59. When both the parties are under a mistake of fact essential to the contract, the contract is:

  1. Void
  2. Voidable
  3. None of these
  4. Does not affect its validity.

Answer: (a)

60. Article 360 of Constitution of India has been invoked in India:

  1. Never invoked
  2. Once
  3. twice
  4. thrice.

Answer: (a)

61. Article 20 and Article 21 has been taken from the purview of Article 359 of the Constitution of India by:

  1. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act
  2. The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act
  3. The Constitution (59th Amendment) Act
  4. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act.

Answer: (d)

62. Find the average of prime numbers between 20 and 50:

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 8.

Answer: (d)

63. Z’ takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as Stridhan, without her consent, and gifts it to his girlfriend. ‘Z’ is guilty of:

  1. not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away
  2. not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property
  3. guilty of theft
  4. guilty of criminal misappropriation.

Answer: (c)

64. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a:

  1. Quasi-judicial power
  2. Judicial power
  3. Executive power
  4. Legislative power.

Answer: (d)

65. Complete the Series:

A D G

D I N

I P ?

  1. Y
  2. W
  3. X
  4. V.

Answer: (b)

66. Complete the Series:

H K Q

C G O

E J ?

  1. N
  2. L
  3. T
  4. P.

Answer: (c)

67. Who among the following is famous for Bharatnatyam?

  1. Madhavi Mudgal
  2. Sonal Mansingh
  3. Birju Maharaj
  4. Yamini Krishnamurti.

Answer: (d)

68. For the philosophy underlying our Constitution, the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ was moved in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December 1946 by:

  1. S. Radhakrishnan
  2. Rajendra Prasad
  3. B.R. Ambedkar
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Answer: (d)

69. A’, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits ‘A’ with an iron rod seriously injuring him.

  1. B’ has right of private defence though ‘A’ is a person of unsound mind
  2. B’ has no right of private defence since ‘A’ is a person of unsound mind
  3. B’ is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on ‘A’
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

70. A’ agrees to pay ‘B’ Rupees 1000 if it rains today, ‘B’ will pay him Rupees 1000 if it does not rain. Which kind of agreement is this?

  1. Voidable Agreement
  2. Contingent Agreement
  3. Wagering Agreement
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

71. “Proper respect is shown to National Anthem by standing up when the National Anthem is sung. It will not be right to say that disrespect is shown by not joining in the singing.” It has been held in:

  1. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. U.O.I.
  2. Keshavananda Bharati v. U.O.I.
  3. Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala
  4. Surya Narain v. U.O.I.

Answer: (c)

72. Abhiram Singh v. CD Commachen (2017) is a judgment of the Supreme Court dealing with which of the following issues?

  1. Proper and adequate access to public places for visually disabled persons
  2. Seeking votes in the name of religion amounts to a corrupt practice
  3. Linkage of IT returns with Aadhaar
  4. Compensation to Uphaar tragedy victims.

Answer: (b)

73. The 262nd Law Commission of India report deals with:

  1. Electoral Reforms
  2. 2015 Model Bilateral Investment Treaty
  3. Amendment of Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996
  4. Abolition of death penalty.

Answer: (d)

74. In taking and recording evidence, the language of every Court within the State other than the High Court shall be:

  1. Determined by the respective State Government
  2. Hindi or English
  3. Hindi
  4. English.

Answer: (a)

75. General exceptions are laid down in the Indian Penal Code in:

  1. Chapter VI
  2. Chapter VIII
  3. Chapter IV
  4. Chapter IV and VI.

Answer: (c)

76. Choose the correct spelling:

  1. surveillance
  2. surveilance
  3. surveilence
  4. survellience.

Answer: (a)

77. Choose the correct spelling:

  1. Connoiseur
  2. Connoisseur
  3. Conoissuer
  4. Connoissuer.

Answer: (b)

78. What do you mean by ‘candidate losing the deposit’ after the poll result is announced?

  1. A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one third of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit
  2. A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit
  3. A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one fourth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit
  4. A defeated candidate who fails to secure minimum 600 valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.

Answer: (b)

79. What is the product of all numbers in the dial of a telephone?

  1. 1,59,450
  2. 1,59,480
  3. None of these
  4. 1,58,480.

Answer: (c)

80. What kind of damages are available for breach of contract?

  1. Vindictive Damages
  2. Unliquidated Damages
  3. All these
  4. Liquidated Damages.

Answer: (d)

81. Which of the following laws has not been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?

  1. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
  2. Indian Penal Code, 1860
  3. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO), 2012
  4. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Answer: (a)

82. Which of the following are included as fundamental duties under Constitution of India?

I. to abide by the Constitution and respect for its ideals and institutions

II. to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India

III. to ensure the rule of law in the country

IV. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence

  1. I,II,IV
  2. I,III,IV
  3. I,II,III,IV
  4. I,II,III.

Answer: (a)

83. Which of the following is an inchoate crime?

  1. Public nuisance
  2. Culpable homicide
  3. Riot
  4. Criminal attempt.

Answer: (d)

84. Which of the following writs called bulwark of personal freedom?

  1. Habeas Corpus
  2. Quo Warranto
  3. Mandamus
  4. Certiorari.

Answer: (a)

85. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of Criminal Breach of Trust?

  1. Negligence
  2. Entrustment
  3. Misappropriation/conversion
  4. Dishonest intention.

Answer: (a)

86. Which of the set is said to be the Golden triangle of Indian Constitution?

  1. Articles 14, 15, and 16
  2. Articles 20, 21 and 22
  3. Article 14, 19 and 21
  4. Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles.

Answer: (c)

87. Capacity to contract relates to:

  1. None of these
  2. Competence of the parties to enter into contract
  3. Intention of the parties to enter into contract
  4. Age of parties to contract.

Answer: (b)

88. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution of India by:

  1. The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act
  2. The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act
  3. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act
  4. The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act.

Answer: (c)

89. A’ agrees to sell his house to ‘B’, ‘A’ has two houses. The agreement is:

  1. Void
  2. Both Void and Valid
  3. Voidable
  4. Valid.

Answer: (a)

90. The writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is:

  1. An absence of jurisdiction or access of jurisdiction & Violation of principles of natural
  2. Violation of principles of natural justice
  3. An absence of jurisdiction or access of jurisdiction
  4. Request to produce the body of the person.

Answer: (a)

91. The first Constitutional Amendment was challenged in the case:

  1. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
  2. none of these
  3. Sankari Prasad v. U.O.I.
  4. both Sankari Prasad v. U.O.I. & Sankari Prasad v. U.O.I.

Answer: (c)

92. The President of the India can consult the Supreme Court of India:

  1. To seek advice before he imposes emergency in any state
  2. When a question of law of public importance arises
  3. In order to do complete justice when a death penalty convict seeks clemency from the President
  4. Against any decision taken by the Prime Minister and his council of ministers.

Answer: (b)

93. The average of five consecutive numbers is 16. Find the smallest of these numbers:

  1. 20
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 14.

Answer: (d)

94. The Preamble of Indian Constitution envisages what kinds of justice:

  1. Political
  2. Economic
  3. Social
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

95. As per the Constitution of India the sovereignty of India lies with:

  1. The Parliament of India
  2. The Supreme Court of India
  3. The People of India
  4. The Constitution of India.

Answer: (c)

96. Bt. in “Bt. Brinjal” is:

  1. Virus
  2. None of these
  3. Antibiotic
  4. Bacterium.

Answer: (d)

97. Who is the first Indian woman appointed as Judge of ITLOS (International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea)?

  1. Ruma Pal
  2. Flavia Agnes
  3. Indira Banerjee
  4. Neeru Chadha.

Answer: (d)

98. Who is the Director General of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

  1. Mohamed Elbardei
  2. Mahmoud Mekki
  3. Luther Rangreji
  4. Yukia Amano.

Answer: (d)

99. Under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 dislocation of tooth constitutes the offence of:

  1. Assault
  2. Simple hurt
  3. None of these
  4. Grievous hurt.

Answer: (d)

100. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a black card or a queen?

  1. 7/13
  2. 1/2
  3. 1/52
  4. 15/26.

Answer: (a)

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Legal Bites Study Materials correspond to what is taught in law schools and what is tested in competitive exams. It pledges to offer a competitive advantage, prepare for tests, and save a lot of money.

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