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Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test 2 | Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Solved Papers PDF

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Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test 2 | Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Solved Papers PDF
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Find Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Paper 2 on Legal Bites. Candidates preparing for Haryana Judicial Services must solve Haryana Judicial Services Prelims Mock Test Paper. Practice the Haryana Judiciary Prelims Mock Paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Find the Mock Test 2 below.

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMS MOCK TEST 2 | Click Here to Download PDF

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES PRELIMS MOCK TEST 2

No. of questions- 125
Maximum Marks: 500
Timing: 02 Hours

1. For removal of a judge of Supreme Court, the special majority resolution required to be passed in each House of Parliament is:

  1. Two-thirds of total number of members of the House
  2. Two-thirds of total membership of the House
  3. Two-thirds of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House
  4. One-third of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

2. Which article of the Constitution provides that every High Court is a court of record?

  1. Article 215
  2. Article 216
  3. Article 217
  4. Article 225
  5. Article 226.

Answer: (a)

3. State may create a monopoly complete or partial with respect to:

  1. Article 19(1)(a)
  2. Article 19(1)(c)
  3. Article 19(1)(g)
  4. Article 19(1)(e)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

4. In second appeal the re-appreciation of evidence is:

  1. Permissible
  2. Subject to revision
  3. Not permissible
  4. Subject to review
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure provide grounds for second appeal?

  1. Section 96
  2. Section 100
  3. Section 100A
  4. Section 101
  5. Section 102.

Answer: (b)

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6. In which of the following cases, the Court can exercise its inherent powers under section 151 of Code of Civil Procedure?

  1. To take note of subsequent events in the case
  2. To continue trial ‘in camera’ or prevent disclosure of its proceedings
  3. To restore the suit and rehear on merits and also to review its order
  4. All of the Above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

7. For instituting a suit against the Government or against a Public Officer in official capacity, the notice period under Section 80 of Code of Civil Procedure is:

  1. 3 months
  2. 2 months
  3. 1 month
  4. 15 days
  5. 6 months.

Answer: (b)

8. Suit for partition of immovable property may be instituted:

  1. Where plaintiff resides
  2. Where plaintiff carries on business
  3. Where subject-matter is situated
  4. Where defendant resides
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

9. Foreign judgment as defined under Section 2(6) of Code of Civil Procedure means:

  1. Judgment given by an Indian Court in respect of foreigners
  2. Judgment given by a Foreign Court
  3. Judgment given by an Indian Court established under any Foreign Act
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

10. The essential elements of a decree:

  1. There must be an adjudication
  2. The determination must be of a conclusive nature
  3. The adjudication must have been done in a suit
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

11. Right to work in the constitution can be traced to in:

  1. Fundamental rights
  2. Directive principles of state policy
  3. Article 93
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

12. A contract discharged by:

  1. Performance of the contract
  2. Frustration of the contract
  3. Novation
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

13. Wagering agreement are:

  1. Void but enforceable by law
  2. Void and not enforceable by law
  3. Voidable and illegal
  4. Voidable and illegal and not enforceable by law
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

14. The decision in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose was given by:

  1. Supreme Court in 1953
  2. Federal Court in 1947
  3. Privy Council 1928
  4. Privy Council in 1903
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

15. Which of the following sections under Haryana Urban (control of rent and eviction) Act, 1973 deals with certain amenities to be provided by landlord?

  1. Section 8
  2. Section 7
  3. Section 9
  4. Section 10
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

16. Under the Registration Act, 1908, a registered document operates:

  1. From the date of its registration
  2. From the date of its execution
  3. From the date as given for the operation of the document, in the document
  4. Either of the aforesaid date
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

17. The guarantee contained in Article 29(1) is with respect to right to conserve distinct:

  1. Language, culture or religion
  2. Scripts, culture or religion
  3. Language, script or culture
  4. Language, script or religion
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

18. Which case is related to the legality of SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act Amendment:

  1. Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. UOI
  2. Siddaraju v. state of Karnataka
  3. Rambabu Singh v. Sunil Arora & Ors
  4. Manohar Lal Sharma v. Union of India
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

19. Which of the following does not constitute the Electoral College for electing the President of India?

  1. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
  2. Elected members of the Legislative Council
  3. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
  4. Elected members of Lok Sabha
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

20. Notice under Section 80 Code of Civil Procedure has to be served on:

  1. The Secretary to the Government
  2. The Deputy Commissioner
  3. The President of India
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

21. Which one of the following modes of settlement of disputes outside the Court has not been provided in Section 89 of Code of Civil Procedure?

  1. Arbitration
  2. Conciliation
  3. Negotiation
  4. Mediation
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

22. Who can file a suit under Section 91 of Code of Civil Procedure for public nuisance?

  1. Advocate General
  2. Any citizen
  3. District Magistrate
  4. Any 10 or more citizens
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

23. Section 75 of Code of Civil Procedure deals with:

  1. Power to issue summons
  2. Power to issue commission
  3. Right to appeal
  4. Res judicata
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

24. Order 38 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with:

  1. Interpleader
  2. Summary procedure
  3. Arrest & attachment before judgment
  4. Temporary injunction
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

25. Where the local limits of Jurisdiction of Courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provisions of:

  1. Section 16 of Code of Civil Procedure
  2. Section 17 of Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Section 18 of Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Section 19 of Code of Civil Procedure
  5. Section 29 of Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (c)

26. Advertisement is a “commercial speech” was laid down in:

  1. Hamdard Dawakhana v. UOI
  2. Express Newspaper (P) Ltd. V. UOI
  3. Bennett Coleman and Co. v. UOI
  4. Tata Press Ltd. v. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

27. Money bill can be introduced in:

  1. In either house of the parliament
  2. Only in Lok Sabha
  3. Only in Rajya Sabha
  4. Only in Legislative Assembly
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

28. In which case it was held that the preamble is a part of the constitution and can be amended under Article 368 but its basic structure cannot be amended:

  1. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
  2. Shankari Prasad v. UOI
  3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  4. Minerva Mills v. UOI
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following sections under Haryana Urban (control of rent and eviction) Act, 1973 deals with eviction of tenants?

  1. Section 10
  2. Section 11
  3. Section 12
  4. Section 13
  5. Section 14.

Answer: (d)

30. The conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act, it:

  1. Must be previous
  2. Must be subsequent
  3. May be either previous or subsequent
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

31. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant, are relevant:

  1. Section 11
  2. Section 12
  3. Section 13
  4. Section 14
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

32. The “brides in the bath” are based on which section of Indian Evidence Act:

  1. Section 16
  2. Section 15
  3. Section 14
  4. Section 11
  5. Section 17.

Answer: (b)

33. Which section of Indian Evidence Act deals with only civil matters?

  1. Section 23
  2. Section 27
  3. Section 53
  4. Section 133
  5. Section 25.

Answer: (a)

34. Where is the headquarters of ‘International Commission of Jurists’ located?

  1. Paris
  2. Geneva
  3. Rome
  4. Nairobi
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

35. Which of the following Court may condone delay for taking cognizance of an offence after the expiry of the period of limitation?

  1. Court of session only
  2. Chief Judicial Magistrate only
  3. Any Court taking cognizance
  4. No Court can condone delay
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (c)

36. In case of a continuing offence:

  1. The period of limitation shall be computed from the time the offence begins
  2. The period of limitation shall be computed from time when the act constituting most essential ingredient of the offence was committed
  3. The period of limitation shall be computed from the date on which the accused made preparation for committing such offence
  4. A fresh period of limitation shall begin to run at every moment of time during which the offence continues
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

37. An agreement in restraint of trade is valid under section 27 of Indian Contract Act, if relates to:

  1. Sale of goodwill
  2. Mutual adjustment
  3. Business contingency
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

38. In order to render a contract void on the ground of mistake, mistake may be:

  1. Of law
  2. Of mixed fact and law
  3. Of fact and not of law
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

39. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as:

  1. Novation
  2. Rescission
  3. Alteration
  4. Repudiation
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

40. Which of the following is not a case on the frustration of contract:

  1. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram
  2. Krell v. Henry
  3. Taylor v. Caldwell
  4. Jamal v. Moolla Dawood & sons & co.
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

41. Pecuniary limits of the jurisdiction of Civil Judges (Junior Division) are determined, under Punjab Courts Act, 1918 by:

  1. State Government
  2. High Court
  3. District judge
  4. Civil Judge (Senior Division)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

42. Under the Registration Act, 1908, which section deals with documents of which registration is compulsory?

  1. Section 17
  2. Section 18
  3. Section 19
  4. Section 20
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

43. B is found dead having suffered injuries with a sharp weapon. “A” while in police custody confessed to killing “B” with the motive of stealing his motorcycle after following him from his office and having concealed the weapon of offence, that is, a knife on his roof top. “A” gets the knife recovered before the police. in this case, under section 27 Indian Evidence Act, the following would be admissible:

  1. Entire statement including the motive of stealing the motor cycle and manner in which the murder was committed, that is following victim from his office, except the confession
  2. The place from which the knife was produced and the knowledge of “A” leading to recovery of knife
  3. The fact that “A” had murdered “B” with the knife
  4. Nothing is admissible as the statement was made to the police officer after “A” was arrested
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

44. Which of the following section deals with option of Court to hear parties in revision proceedings?

  1. Section 290 Code of Criminal Procedure
  2. Section 394 Code of Criminal Procedure
  3. Section 403 Code of Criminal Procedure
  4. Section 222 Code of Criminal Procedure
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

45. The term “partnership” has been defined under which section of Indian Partnership Act?

  1. Section 3
  2. Section 2
  3. Section 4
  4. Section 5
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

46. Under Section 167 of Indian Evidence Act, the improper admission or rejection of evidence is:

  1. Not a ground for reversal of judgment or for new trial of the case
  2. A ground for reversal of judgment or for a new trial of the case if there is rejection of an important document or refusal of permission for examination of material witness
  3. Both (a) and (b) are correct
  4. Only (b) is correct
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

47. Binary language consists of:

  1. 2 Digits
  2. 3 Digits
  3. 4 Digits
  4. 10 Digits
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

48. The Ozone Layer restricts:

  1. Visible light
  2. Infrared radiation
  3. X-ray and gamma rays
  4. Ultraviolet radiation
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

49. Section 42 of Specific Relief Act provides for:

  1. Injunction to perform negative agreements
  2. Injunction when refused
  3. Damages in lieu of injunction
  4. Mandatory injunction
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

50. Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act relates to suit for:

  1. Declaration
  2. Injunctions
  3. Specific performance
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

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51. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act deals with:

  1. Rectification of instruments
  2. Personal bars to relief
  3. Specific performance of part of contract
  4. Cancellation of instruments
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

52. A suit for recovery of possession under section 6 of Specific Relief Act cannot be filed against:

  1. A private individual
  2. A company
  3. A government
  4. A firm
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

53. A Revision under Section 115 shall not operate as a stay of suit or other proceeding before the Court except where such suit or other proceeding is stayed by:

  1. The High Court
  2. The Supreme Court
  3. The Appellate Court
  4. District and Sessions Court
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

54. Explanation to Order XLVII, Rule 1 of Code of Civil Procedure was inserted by:

  1. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment), Act, 1951
  2. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment), Act, 1956
  3. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment), Act, 1959
  4. Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment), Act, 1976
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

55. No review petition which has been rejected for default can be restored without serving:

  1. Notice to the opposite party
  2. Notice to Court Officer
  3. Notice to Revenue Officers
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

56. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that the provisions as to the form of preferring appeals shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to applications for review?

  1. Order XLVII Rule 1
  2. Order XLVII Rule 2
  3. Order XLVII Rule 3
  4. Order XLVII Rule 4
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

57. Which of the following sections of the Registration Act deals with Time for presenting documents?

  1. Section 21
  2. Section 22
  3. Section 23
  4. Section 24
  5. Section 25.

Answer: (c)

58. The Principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root:

  1. As an exception to the doctrine of consideration in the law of contract
  2. As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract
  3. As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

59. A “Dying Declaration” made under Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act,1872 is subject to the control of:

  1. Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure
  2. Section 161 and 162 of Code of Criminal Procedure
  3. Section 52 and 54 of Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 158 of the Indian Evidence Act
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

60. Queen Empress v. Abdullah is leading case on:

  1. Admission and confession
  2. Confession
  3. Statement
  4. Dying declaration
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

61. The Doctrine of holding out is an application of the principle of:

  1. Agency
  2. Estoppel
  3. Vicarious liability
  4. Privity of contract
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following is/are not a ground for divorce under Special Marriage Act?

  1. Conversion
  2. Renunciation of the world
  3. Desertion
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

63. A person who finds goods belonging to another, and taken them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as:

  1. A bailor
  2. A bailee
  3. An indemnitee
  4. An agent
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

64. Revocation of offer by letter or telegram can be complete:

  1. When it is dispatched
  2. When it is received by the offeree
  3. When it reaches the offeree
  4. Both (a) and (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

65. Past consideration is valid in:

  1. England only
  2. India only
  3. Both India and England
  4. Neither India nor England
  5. In some types of contracts in England and India.

Answer: (b)

66. Consent is free under section 14, Indian Contract Act, if not caused by:

  1. Coercion and undue influence
  2. Fraud and misrepresentation
  3. Mistakes subject to the provisions of section 20, 21 and 22
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

67. Which of the following cannot be said to be included in the term “goods” defined under section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  1. Stock
  2. Shares
  3. Growing crops
  4. Actionable claims
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

68. Desertion may come to an end by:

  1. Resumption of marital intercourse
  2. Resumption of cohabitation
  3. Supervening animus revertendi
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

69. Section 23 of Hindu Marriage Act provides for:

  1. Absolute bars
  2. Discretionary bars
  3. Matrimonial bars
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

70. Rites common in all ceremonial marriages include:

  1. Saptapadi
  2. Invocation before a sacred fire
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Ashirwad
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

71. Recently, Kashmir’s ________ got Geographical indication (GI) certificate.

  1. Apple
  2. Saffron
  3. Sesame
  4. Oak
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

72. In case of a non-bailable offence, a bail granted by a Magistrate can be cancelled under section 437(5) of Code of Criminal Procedure:

  1. By the Magistrate granting the bail
  2. By the Court of Sessions
  3. By the High Court
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (b)

73. The process of bail takes place while the trial of the accused person:

  1. Has not started
  2. Is going on
  3. Is still pending
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

74. Daman and Diu comes under the jurisdiction of which of the following High Court?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Bombay
  3. Goa
  4. Rajasthan
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

75. As per section 365 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of Session has to send copy of finding and sentence to:

  1. District magistrate
  2. The accused
  3. High Court
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

76. In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been conducted in a wrong place:

  1. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio
  2. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void unless it has occasioned in failure of justice
  3. The inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it has occasioned in failure of justice
  4. Either (a) or (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

77. For which of the following persons a separate provision has been provided in Code of Criminal Procedure for executing a bond?

  1. A minor
  2. An insane person
  3. Both (a) & (b)
  4. A pauper
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

78. Jammu and Kashmir Official Language Bill 2020 contains how many official languages?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

79. Quid pro quo means:

  1. Something in return
  2. Adequacy of consideration
  3. Sufficiency of consideration
  4. Value of promise
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

80. What is the purpose behind the enactment of Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  1. To define the laws relating to the sale of goods
  2. To consolidate and amend the laws relating to the sale of goods
  3. To consolidate, amend and define the laws relating to the sale of goods
  4. To define and amend the laws relating to the sale of goods
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

81. Extinguishment of ‘right to property’ is dealt under which section of Limitation Act?

  1. Section 26
  2. Section 27
  3. Section 28
  4. Section 29
  5. Section 30.

Answer: (b)

82. The doctrine of Holding Out is provided under which section of Partnership Act?

  1. Section 28
  2. Section 29
  3. Section 30
  4. Section 31
  5. Section 32.

Answer: (a)

83. Khyar-ul-Bulugh, in Muslim law is:

  1. Imprecation unchastity
  2. Option of puberty
  3. A form of dower
  4. Maintenance amount payable to Muslim wife
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

84. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu boy is:

  1. Only mother
  2. Only father
  3. Grandfather
  4. Father and Mother both
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

85. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage?

  1. One male and Two females
  2. Two males
  3. No witness is required
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

86. A Will executed by a Muslim of unsound mind who subsequently is cured of insanity, the Will would be:

  1. Valid
  2. Invalid
  3. Illegal
  4. Both (b) and (c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

87. Muslim law also recognises gifts with an exchange which are known as:

  1. Hiba-bil-iwaz
  2. Sadaqah
  3. Ariya
  4. Hiba-ba-shartul iwaz
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

88. Under Sunni law, if the legatee dies:

  1. The bequest lapses
  2. Remains with the testator
  3. Goes to the heir of legatee
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

89. 11th Petersberg Climate Dialogue held in April 2020 was hosted by?

  1. Japan
  2. South Africa
  3. Germany
  4. India
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

90. Which of the following deals with the procedure where Judges of Court of appeal are equally divided?

  1. Section 286 Code of Criminal Procedure
  2. Section 292 Code of Criminal Procedure
  3. Section 388 Code of Criminal Procedure
  4. Section 392 Code of Criminal Procedure
  5. Section 393 Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (d)

91. An appeal against the judgement of acquittal under section 378 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

  1. Is not possible
  2. Possible as long as made by the accused
  3. Can be filed by the public prosecutor or complainant in a case instituted upon a complaint
  4. Can only be made to the Supreme Court
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

92. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is punishable under:

  1. Section 153 Indian Penal Code
  2. Section 153A Indian Penal Code
  3. Section 155 Indian Penal Code
  4. Section 156 Indian Penal Code
  5. Section 159 Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (b)

93. Recently in news, case of gold smuggling is related to:

  1. CM of Tamil Nadu
  2. CM of Andhra Pradesh
  3. CM of Kerala
  4. CM of Assam
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

94. Under Indian Penal Code, an executioner who executes the death penalty is protected from criminal liability under:

  1. Section 97
  2. Section 78
  3. Section 67
  4. Section 69
  5. Section 88.

Answer: (b)

95. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under:

  1. Section 376 D of Indian Penal Code
  2. Section 229 Indian Penal Code
  3. Section 228 Indian Penal Code
  4. Section 228A of Indian Penal Code
  5. Section 255 of Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (d)

96. Police diary in an investigation is necessary under:

  1. Section 171 Code of Criminal Procedure
  2. Section 172 Code of Criminal Procedure
  3. Section 173 Code of Criminal Procedure
  4. Section 174 Code of Criminal Procedure
  5. Section 178 Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (b)

97. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself, justified, by law is given under Indian Penal Code in:

  1. Section 77
  2. Section 78
  3. Section 79
  4. Section 80
  5. Section 88.

Answer: (c)

98. Suit for possession on the basis of prior possession may be filed within:

  1. Six months
  2. Three years
  3. Twelve years
  4. Six years
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

99. In case of sale by description, there is an implied condition that the goods shall be of:

  1. Saleable quality
  2. Merchantable quality
  3. Durable quality
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

100. The principle of ‘res judicata ‘ is provided in which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act?

  1. Section 140
  2. Section 40
  3. Section 160
  4. Section 164
  5. Section 165.

Answer: (b)

101. In which of the following judgment it was held that ‘when two medical experts differ in their opinion on the same point, court must accept the opinion which fit in the direct testimony?

  1. Piara Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1977 SC 2274
  2. Kalua v. State of UP 1958 CrLJ 30 (SC)
  3. L.C. Goyal v. Suresh Joshi AIR 1999 SC 2222
  4. Satya v. Teja Singh, AIR 1975 SC 105
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

102. Res inter alios acta, aliis nec nocet nec prodest is an exception to:

  1. Section 41 Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 46 Indian Evidence Act
  3. Section 47 Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 48 Indian Evidence Act
  5. section 88 Indian Evidence Act.

Answer: (a)

103. The right to indemnity is lost on:

  1. The dissolution of the partnership
  2. The death of the partner
  3. The retirement of the partner
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

104. For how many years Law Commission is constituted?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

105. Who is the current secretary general of UN?

  1. Antonio Guterres
  2. Ban Ki Moon
  3. Aung San Suu Kyi
  4. U Thant
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

106. Cognizance of offence of defamation can be taken:

  1. On a police report
  2. On a complaint made by aggrieved person
  3. Suo motu
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (b)

107. An accused may be competent witness in his own defence under which section of Code of Criminal Procedure:

  1. Section 312
  2. Section 313
  3. Section 315
  4. Section 316
  5. Section 318.

Answer: (c)

108. Criminal trespass has been defined under which section of Indian Penal Code?

  1. Section 441
  2. Section 440
  3. Section 452
  4. Section 457
  5. Section 461.

Answer: (a)

109. Who propounded the theory that “the earth moves around the sun”?

  1. Einstein
  2. Copernicus
  3. Graham Bell
  4. Galileo
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

110. Which of the followings case is not related to mens rea?

  1. R v. Prince
  2. Queen v. Tolson
  3. Sherras v. De Rutzen
  4. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

111. Section 511, Indian Penal Code is not related to the offence for which the punishment is:

  1. Death sentences
  2. Life imprisonment
  3. Imprisonment
  4. Only (b) and (c)
  5. Only (a) and (b).

Answer: (a)

112. Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property shall be punished under:

  1. Section 167 Indian Penal Code
  2. Section 168 Indian Penal Code
  3. Section 169 Indian Penal Code
  4. Section 170 Indian Penal Code
  5. Section 171 Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (c)

113. Whoever, not being a soldier, [sailor or airman] in the Military, [Naval or Air] service of the [Government of India], wears any garb or carries any token resembling any garb or token used by such a soldier, [sailor or airman] with the intention that it may be believed that he is such a soldier, [sailor or airman], shall be punished under:

  1. Section 130 Indian Penal Code
  2. Section 135 Indian Penal Code
  3. Section 140 Indian Penal Code
  4. Section 138 Indian Penal Code
  5. Section 139 Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (c)

114. At ‘Zero Hour’ parliament members can:

  1. Seek a vote of no confidence motion
  2. Ask questions on any subject without prior notice
  3. Ask questions with prior notice on the given subject
  4. Vote on finance bills
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

115. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 is based on:

  1. Theory of agency
  2. Theory of ratification
  3. Theory of confirmation by subsequent facts
  4. None of these
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (c)

116. Which of the following deals with the High Court’s order in revision to be certified to lower court?

  1. Section 405 Code of Criminal Procedure
  2. Section 394 Code of Criminal Procedure
  3. Section 388 Code of Criminal Procedure
  4. Section 222 Code of Criminal Procedure
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

117. As per Section 360 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, If any person has been convicted of the offence of theft or dishonest misappropriation under Indian Penal Code punishable with not more than 2 years’ imprisonment, the Court may:

  1. Sentence him to imprisonment for more than 2 years
  2. Release him after due admonition
  3. Order community service
  4. None of the above
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

118. If the fine is imposed in a case which is subject to appeal, such payment shall be made:

  1. After the period allowed for presenting the appeal has elapsed
  2. If an appeal be presented, after the decision of appeal
  3. Before presenting the petition of appeal
  4. Both (a) & (b)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

119. Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit:

  1. Concealments
  2. Frauds
  3. Mistakes
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

120. Which of the following is an important case under the Special Marriage Act?

  1. Saroj Rani v. S K Chadha
  2. Sunil Kumar v. Prem Kumar
  3. T Sareetha v. T V Subbaiah
  4. Jyotish Chandra v. Meera
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

121. Which Section of the IPC defines Affray?

  1. Section 157
  2. Section 158
  3. Section 159
  4. Section 160
  5. Section 169.

Answer: (c)

122. Which of the following statement is not the correct one?

  1. An assembly that was not unlawful when it assembled, may subsequently become an unlawful assembly
  2. Kidnapping/shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to seven years
  3. It is not defamation to make an imputation on the character of another person provided that the imputation be made in good faith
  4. A riot involves a minimum of three persons
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

123. USB is which type of storage device?

  1. Tertiary
  2. Secondary
  3. Primary
  4. Auxiliary
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

124. The term Bribery is defined in the Indian Penal Code under:

  1. Section 171A
  2. Section 171B
  3. Section 171C
  4. Section 171D
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

125. Under section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, the “discovery of fact” includes:

  1. The object found
  2. The place from which it is found
  3. The knowledge of the accused as to its existence
  4. All of the above
  5. Only (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

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Updated On 2 Nov 2021 9:21 AM IST
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