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Haryana Judiciary Prelims 2017 Solved Paper | Haryana Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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HARYANA JUDICIARY PRELIMS 2017 QUESTION PAPER| Click Here to Download PDF

HARYANA JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2017

Marks- 500

Negative- 1/5 marks

Duration- 2 hours

1. A compromise which is voidable under Indian Contract Act, 1872 shall not be deemed to be ………………….. within the meaning of Order XXIII Rule 3 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. illegal
  4. lawful
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

2. Where an appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed ex parte, a subsequent application filed under Order IX Rule 13 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 shall be:

  1. rejected
  2. returned
  3. maintainable
  4. referred to the appellate court
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

3. Which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 debars a tenant from filing inter-pleader suit against his landlord?

  1. Section 88
  2. Section 90
  3. Order XXXV Rule 3
  4. Order XXXV Rule 4
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (e)

4. Composition of an offence under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 will result in …………………………… of the accused.

  1. acquittal
  2. discharge
  3. compromise
  4. probation
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

5. In one trial, X is convicted against which no appeal lies, whereas conviction against ‘Y’ is appealable. Whether ‘X’ can file an appeal against his conviction?

  1. No
  2. Yes
  3. Only with special leave
  4. There is no such provision
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

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6. Under Section ……… of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, it is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested without warrants, about the right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable.

  1. 41A
  2. 50
  3. 50A
  4. 54
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

7. ‘X’, a blacksmith, is seized by a gang of dacoits and forced by threat of instant death to take his tools and forced him to open the door of Y’s house. The dacoits then looted Y’s money and Jewels and also killed Y’s son ‘Z’. What offence, among the following offences under Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ‘X’?

  1. Dacoity with murder
  2. Abetment of dacoity and murder
  3. No offence
  4. Preparation to commit dacoity
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

8. For constituting an offence of ‘Abduction’ under Indian Penal Code, 1860, the abducted male person should be:

  1. below 16 years of age
  2. below 18 years of age
  3. insane
  4. of any age
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

9. How many minimum number of persons are required to constitute the offence of rioting under Section 146 of Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 11
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

10. The five golden principles which constitute the ‘Panchsheel’ of the proof of a case based on circumstantial evidence are laid down in:

  1. Haricharan Kurmi v. State of Bihar (AIR 1964 SC 1184)
  2. Sharad Birdhi Chand Sarda v. State Of Maharashtra (AIR 1984 SC 1622)
  3. Rain Singh v. Col. Ram Singh (AIR 1986 SC 3)
  4. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P. (AIR 1952 SC 159)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

11. What minimum number of witnesses are required to prove offence of dacoity in a trial?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. Judge directs how many witnesses are to be examined
  4. No particular number of witnesses is prescribed
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

12. The examination after the cross examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called:

  1. Additional examination-in-chief
  2. Additional cross examination
  3. Re-examination
  4. Re-cross examination
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

13. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides Constitutional safeguards to the civil servants?

  1. 309
  2. 310
  3. 311
  4. 312
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

14. What kind of jurisdiction has been conferred under Article 143 of the Constitution of India upon the Supreme Court?

  1. Appellate Jurisdiction
  2. Writ Jurisdiction
  3. Original Jurisdiction
  4. Supervisory Jurisdiction
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (e)

15. A counter-claim shall be deemed under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 to have been instituted:

  1. on the same day as the suit in which counter-claim is made, was filed
  2. on the day on which the counter-claim is made by Court
  3. either (A) or (B) whichever is beneficial to the defendant
  4. either (A) or (B) whichever is beneficial to the plaintiff
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

16. Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 excludes from computation of limitation:

  1. period of notice
  2. time required for obtaining consent
  3. time required for obtaining sanction
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

17. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 confers legitimacy on the children of:

  1. a void marriage
  2. a voidable marriage
  3. a broken marriage
  4. both (A) and (B)
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

18. How many additional grounds of divorce are provided for women under Section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

19. Where in a contract between the partners no provision is made for duration of their partnership or for determination of their partnership, the partnership is:

  1. unlimited partnership
  2. particular partnership
  3. implied partnership
  4. partnership at will
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

20. No suit for recovery of possession shall be brought under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 against:

  1. government
  2. a Public Company
  3. a Private Company
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

21. When, to prevent breach of an obligation, it is necessary to compel the performance of certain acts which the court is capable of enforcing, court may, under Section 39 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 grant:

  1. mandatory injunction
  2. perpetual injunction
  3. prohibitory injunction
  4. specific performance decree
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

22. The fair rent of a building or rented land fixed under Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 generally prevails for a period of:

  1. three years
  2. four years
  3. five years
  4. six years
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

23. A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions, by …………………………….

  1. notice to the creditor
  2. notice of the principal debtor
  3. notice of both creditor and to the principal debtor
  4. notice to public
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

24. What can a catalogue of books, listing price of each book and specifying the place where the listed books are available, be termed as?

  1. As offer
  2. An obligation to sell book
  3. An invitation to offer
  4. A promise to make available the book at the listed place
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

25. ‘X’, being in debt to ‘Y’, the moneylender of his village, contracts a fresh loan on terms which appear to be unconscionable. That the contract was not induced by undue influence is to be proved by:

  1. Y
  2. X
  3. both ‘X’ and ‘Y’
  4. either ‘X’ or ‘Y’
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

26. The principle ‘facts speak for themselves’ can be expressed by the maxim:

  1. ubi jus ibi remedium
  2. res ipsa loquitur
  3. novus actus interveniens
  4. causa causans
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

27. How many grounds of divorce are provided for a Muslim woman under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?

  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 10
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are husband and wife having a son and a daughter. They have adopted a girl ‘Z’. The adoption under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, is:

  1. valid
  2. void
  3. voidable
  4. illegal
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

29. Which Section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down the order of succession among agnates and cognates?

  1. Section 8
  2. Section 10
  3. Section 12
  4. Section 14
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

30. If, at the time of solemnization of marriage, wife has been subject to re-current attacks of insanity, under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the marriage will be:

  1. valid
  2. void
  3. voidable
  4. legal
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

31. Unavoidable delay upto ………………………….. in presentation of a document for registration under the Registration Act, 1908 may be condoned by Registrar.

  1. two months
  2. four months
  3. six months
  4. one month
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

32. Which of the following is/are ‘goods’ according to Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  1. Actionable claim
  2. Money
  3. Stocks and Shares
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

33. Alienation of the minor’s property made by a natural guardian without the previous permission of the Court, under Section 8 (3) of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 will be voidable at the instance of:

  1. seller
  2. purchaser
  3. minor
  4. both (B) & (C)
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

34. Pecuniary limits of jurisdiction of Civil Judges (Junior Division) are determined, under Punjab Courts Act, 1918 by ……………………………………..

  1. State Government
  2. High Court
  3. District Judge
  4. Civil Judge (Senior Division)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

35. Who among the following was the first person to be honoured with ‘Bharat Ratna’ posthumously?

  1. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Kamaraj
  3. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  4. Vinoba Bhave
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

36. ‘Decibel’ is the unit for measuring:

  1. speed of light
  2. intensity of sound
  3. intensity of heat
  4. intensity of earthquake
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

37. Which of the following State in India has launched ‘Quit India Movement 2’ against social ills?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Bihar
  3. West Bengal
  4. Tamil Nadu
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

38. To compel the attendance of a person to whom a summon has been issued under Section 30 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court is empowered to impose upon him fine not exceeding ……………… rupees.

  1. 500/-
  2. 1000/-
  3. 5000/-
  4. 3000/-
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

39. Which Section of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 states that place of trial is to be deemed to be open Court?

  1. 153
  2. 153A
  3. 153B
  4. 153C
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

40. A decree for restitution of conjugal rights may be enforced under Order XXI Rule 32 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, by:

  1. attachment of property
  2. detention in civil prison
  3. imposition of fine
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

41. “If an indigent person succeeds in the suit, the due amount of court fees shall be recoverable from:

  1. the plaintiff
  2. the defendant
  3. any party ordered by the decree to pay the same
  4. the State Government
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 declares accused person to be a competent defence witness?

  1. 315
  2. 300
  3. 313
  4. 317
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

43. Which of the following is incorrect response in the light of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. Inquiry is conducted by the Court
  2. Inquiry is conducted after framing of charge
  3. Inquiry is conducted prior to framing of charge
  4. Inquiry is conducted by the Magistrate
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

44. Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 saves inherent powers of ……………………………………..

  1. High Court
  2. Sessions Court
  3. Both (A) and (B) above
  4. Chief Judicial Magistrate
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

45. No court shall take cognizance of an offence, after the expiry of ………………………………., if the offence is punishable with fine only.

  1. six months
  2. one year
  3. three years
  4. five years
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

46. Section 73 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 prescribes the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be:

  1. One year
  2. Two years
  3. Three months
  4. Six months
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

47. An Indian citizen murders a French citizen in Paris and absconded. He is found by Indian police in Mumbai. He (with previous sanction of Central Government) can be:

  1. prosecuted in India at the place fixed by Foreign Ministry
  2. prosecuted in national capital New Delhi only
  3. prosecuted in Mumbai only
  4. prosecuted at any place as per the request of French Government
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

48. ‘A’ finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers that it belongs to ‘B’ but retains it for his own use. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 ‘A’ is guilty of:

  1. theft
  2. criminal misappropriation
  3. criminal breach of trust
  4. cheating
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes an accomplice a competent witness against accused?

  1. 130
  2. 131
  3. 132
  4. 133
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

50. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 prescribes conditions for making oral admissions as to the contents of documents as relevant?

  1. 21
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 24
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

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51. Which of the following section(s) of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes confession of co-accused admissible?

  1. 30
  2. 25
  3. 18
  4. Both (B) and (C)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

52. In case any question arises as to age of a Judge of a High Court, decision of which of the following authority shall be final as per the Constitution of India?

  1. President of India
  2. Chief Justice of India
  3. Chief Justice of High Court
  4. Collegium of Supreme Court
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

53. Which of the following is not among the languages recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. Sindhi
  2. Santhali
  3. Dogri
  4. Bodo
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (e)

54. How many ‘Fundamental Duties’ are prescribed under Article 51A of the Constitution of India?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 13
  4. 8
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (e)

55. A Pakistani citizen residing in India cannot claim Fundamental Right to:

  1. equality before the law
  2. life and personal liberty
  3. freedom of trade and profession
  4. freedom of religion
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

56. What will be limitation period for instituting a suit for which no specific period of limitation is provided under Limitation Act, 1963?

  1. 1 year
  2. 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. No limitation
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

57. Section 13B of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 has been Incorporated by Amendment Act of:

  1. 1956
  2. 1964
  3. 1976
  4. 1999
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

58. Which of the following is not a mode of dissolution of firm under Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

  1. Dissolution by agreement
  2. Compulsory dissolution
  3. Dissolution by Registrar
  4. Dissolution by Court
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

59. Under Section 16 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, in a suit for specific performance of contract, the plaintiff must aver performance of, or readiness and willingness to perform. What is the meaning of ‘readiness’?

  1. Filing of suit within limitation
  2. Plaintiff’s capacity including financial
  3. Conduct of plaintiff wanting performance
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

60. Any agreement between the landlord and tenant for payment of any sum in addition to fixed fair rent, shall, under Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, be:

  1. null and void
  2. voidable
  3. valid
  4. illegal
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

61. When consent to an agreement is caused by misrepresentation under Indian Contract Act, 1872 the agreement is:

  1. void
  2. valid
  3. voidable
  4. illegal
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

62. Qui facit per alium facit per se’ means:

  1. he who has not the power of alienation is under the necessity of retaining
  2. he who does not the power of alienating is under the necessity of retaining
  3. he who does not prohibit when he is able to prohibit, is in fault
  4. he who is silent appears to consent
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

63. If a Hindu male dies intestate leaving behind Mother, Father, Son, Brother and Sister, the property will devolve on:

  1. All 5 getting 1/5th share each
  2. Father, Son & Brother being males getting 1/3rd share each
  3. Father & Mother getting 1/2 share each
  4. Mother & Son getting 1/2 share each
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

64. Which section of Registration Act, 1908 makes it compulsory to affix passport size photographs and fingerprints upon the documents to be registered?

  1. 16A
  2. 23A
  3. 32A
  4. 79A
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

65. Warranty as per Section 12 of Sale of Goods Act, 1930, is:

  1. a stipulation essential to main purpose of the contract
  2. a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract
  3. the same as a condition
  4. a ground for repudiating the contract
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

66. Who among the following under Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, will be the natural guardian of minor wife’s person?

  1. Husband
  2. Her father
  3. Her mother
  4. Her father-in-law
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

67. ‘Yad Vashem’ is an Israeli:

  1. irrigation technique
  2. holocaust memorial
  3. nuclear reactor
  4. commando force
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

68. Where is the headquarter of World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)?

  1. Montreal
  2. New York
  3. Athens
  4. Paris
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

69. Sir Creek, a disputed region between India and Pakistan is a:

  1. coral island
  2. volcanic island
  3. tidal estuary
  4. backwater lagoon
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

70. Sudirman Cup is associated with game of:

  1. Judo
  2. Hockey
  3. Football
  4. Badminton
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

71. The propositions are: Under Order XVIII, Rule 2 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:

  1. A copy of the written arguments shall be furnished simultaneously to the opposite party.
  2. Adjournment shall be granted generally for the purpose of filing the written arguments.
  3. The Court cannot fix any time-limit for oral arguments.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the aforesaid propositions?

  1. 1 is correct, 2 & 3 are incorrect
  2. 1 & 2 are correct, 3 is incorrect
  3. 1 & 3 are correct, 2 is incorrect
  4. 2 & 3 are correct, 1 is incorrect
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

72. Where an interim injunction has been granted under Order XXXIX of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, without notice to opposite party, the court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application within thirty days from the date of which ………………………….

  1. the application was filed
  2. the injunction was granted
  3. the injunction order was served upon opposite party
  4. opposite party appears in court
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following provision of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with attachment before judgment?

  1. Order XXXVIII, Rule 1
  2. Order XXXVIII, Rule 3
  3. Order XXXVIII, Rule 5
  4. Order XXXVIII, Rule 4
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

74. If trial Court is satisfied that convict intends to file appeal, it shall release him on bail under Section 389(3) of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 where:

  1. convict is on bail, and awarded imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
  2. convict is on bail, and awarded imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
  3. convict is on bail, and awarded imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
  4. offence is exclusively bailable though convict is in jail
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

75. In the Indian Constitution, criminal procedure is included in the …………………………………….

  1. concurrent list
  2. union list
  3. state list
  4. residuary list
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

76. A proclamation under Section 82 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall specify time for not less than 30 days from the date of ………………………………… of such proclamation.

  1. issuing
  2. receiving
  3. publishing
  4. returning
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

77. Under which section of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, Court can grant adjournment subject to payment of costs by a party:

  1. 310
  2. 311
  3. 312
  4. 316
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (e)

78. If, in a complaint case it is made to appear to Magistrate that an investigation by the police is in progress in relation to the same offence, which of the following order(s) a Magistrate may pass under Section 210 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. Return the complaint to be re-filed after police investigation.
  2. Stay the proceeding of inquiry or trial on such complaint.
  3. Call a report from the Investigating Officer.
  4. Refer the complaint for investigation by police.
  5. Refer the complaint to Chief Judicial Magistrate.
  1. 3 and 4
  2. 2 and 5
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 2 only
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

79. Judgment in Mahboob Shah v. Emperor, AIR 1945 PC 118 explained the penal law relating to:

  1. right to private defence
  2. defence of unsound mind
  3. common object
  4. common intention
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

80. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines ‘sedition’?

  1. Section 121A
  2. Section 123
  3. Section 124
  4. Section 124A
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

81. The question is as to the date of Y’s birth. An entry in the diary of a deceased surgeon regularly kept in the course of business, stating that, on a given day he attended Y’s mother and delivered her of a son, is a relevant fact under which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

  1. Section 32
  2. Section 33
  3. Section 34
  4. Section 73
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

82. The constitutional validity of which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been upheld by Supreme Court in State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyaya (AIR 1960 SC 1125)?

  1. 27
  2. 32
  3. 73
  4. 119
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

83. Who among the following is empowered to finally determine whether a Bill is Money Bill or not?

  1. The Prime Minister of India
  2. The Council of Ministers
  3. The Finance Minister
  4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

84. Which of the following is not a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior Court?

  1. Mandamus
  2. Certiorari
  3. Quo Warranto
  4. Prohibition
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

85. Which of the following section of the Limitation Act, 1963 gives recognition to the concept of ‘Adverse Possession’?

  1. 22
  2. 24
  3. 26
  4. 27
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

86. Who among the following was in news for National Anthem decision (2016)?

  1. Justice J.S. Khehar
  2. Justice Dipak Misra
  3. Justice T.S. Thakur
  4. Justice J. Chelameswar
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

87. ‘A’ and ‘B’ jointly purchased a tea shop. Each of them contributed half of the expense incurred for pottery and utensils. Then they leased out the shop and shared the rent equally. They are:

  1. partners
  2. co-owners
  3. co-obligants
  4. agent of each other
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

88. To prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced, a court:

  1. can grant perpetual injunction
  2. can grant mandatory injunction
  3. can grant prohibitory injunction
  4. cannot grant injunction
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

89. When consideration or object of an agreement is partly unlawful, under Indian Contract Act, 1872 the agreement is:

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. partially void and partially voidable
  4. enforceable
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

90. Under which section of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a dependant’s claim for maintenance under the Act, can be created as a charge on the estate of deceased?

  1. 25
  2. 26
  3. 27
  4. 28
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

91. Registration of the documents containing contract to transfer for consideration, any immovable property for the purposes of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, has been made compulsory with effect from ……………………..

  1. 24/09/2001
  2. 24/09/2003
  3. 24/09/2002
  4. 24/09/2004
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

92. Section ………….. of Sale of Goods Act, 1930, is an exception to rule of Caveat Emptor.

  1. 8
  2. 11
  3. 16
  4. 18
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

93. Section 12 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 does not oust the jurisdiction of ……………… to appoint guardian of a minor’s undivided interest in joint family property.

  1. District Court
  2. High Court
  3. Collector of the District
  4. State Government
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

94. In which of the following judgment, Supreme Court held that irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 yet Supreme Court in exercise of extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India can grant the relief?

  1. Anil Kumar Jain v. Maya Jain, 2009 (4) RCR (Civil) 310
  2. Dhannulal v. Ganeshram, AIR 2015 SC 2382
  3. Krishna Bhattacharjee v. Sarathi Choudhury, AIR 2015 SCW 6386
  4. Ramchander v. Ananta, 2015 (2) RCR (Civil)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

95. Name the Governor General who abolished Sati in 1829?

  1. Lord Clive
  2. Lord Curzon
  3. Lord William Bentinck
  4. Lord Dalhousie
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

96. Under which of the following provision of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court may permit the plaintiff to effect service of summons by hand upon defendant personally?

  1. Order V Rule 3A
  2. Order V Rule 7
  3. Order V Rule 9A
  4. Order V Rule 19A
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

97. Under Section 34 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a court may grant pendente lite interest at a rate ………………………..

  1. agreed between the parties
  2. deemed by it reasonable
  3. @6% per annum
  4. charged by nationalised bank
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

98. A Court may pass judgment on admissions under Order XII Rule ………. of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 2
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

99. What is the maximum sentence of imprisonment which can be passed on conviction in a summary trial under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. 15 days
  2. 30 days
  3. Two months
  4. Three months
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

100. In all proceedings under Section 125 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the evidence shall be recorded in the manner prescribed for …………………………………..

  1. summons cases
  2. warrant cases
  3. sessions cases
  4. summary cases
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

101. Sale of an obscene object to any person under the age of ……………… years, is punishable under section 293 of Indian Penal Code, 1860.

  1. 14
  2. 16
  3. 18
  4. 20
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

102. Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 prescribes punishment for ‘cheating’?

  1. 416
  2. 417
  3. 419
  4. 420
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

103. ‘A’ intending or knowing himself to be likely to permanently disfigure B’s face, gives ‘B’ a blow which does not permanently disfigure B’s face, but which cause ‘B’ to suffer severe bodily pain for the space of more than three weeks. ‘A’ has voluntarily caused ……………………………..

  1. hurt
  2. grievous hurt
  3. assault
  4. mischief
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

104. “If a maker of dying declaration survives, his statement can be used under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

  1. As substantive evidence.
  2. To corroborate the testimony of maker if examined.
  3. To contradict the testimony of maker if examined.
  4. Cannot be used at all.
  1. 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 4 only
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

105. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is based upon the well known principle that ‘possession is prima facie proof of ownership’?

  1. 110
  2. 112
  3. 114
  4. 115
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

106. Constitution Bench of Supreme Court in ‘Jindal Stainless v. State of Haryana’ (AIR 2016 SC 5617), has explained the constitutional provisions regarding:

  1. Use of religion in elections
  2. Liquor vends on highway
  3. National Anthem
  4. Restriction on trade or commerce etc
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

107. A suit for compensation for malicious prosecution shall be filed within …………………. from the time when the plaintiff is acquitted or prosecution is otherwise terminated.

  1. 6 months
  2. 1 year
  3. 2 years
  4. 3 years
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following statement is incorrect in the light of provisions of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

  1. Documents not duly stamped or registered are admissible
  2. Proceedings may be held in Camera on the request of the party
  3. No appeal can be filed on the subject of costs only
  4. Limitation for appeal against final order under Section 25 of the Act is 90 days
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

109. A contract of life insurance is in the nature of:

  1. agreement by way of wager
  2. quasi contract
  3. contingent contract
  4. gratuitous contract
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

110. A female Hindu inherited property from her husband. She died intestate. The said property shall, in the absence of any children or grandchildren of the deceased, devolve upon:

  1. Government Charitable Trust
  2. the heirs of her father
  3. the heirs of her mother
  4. the heirs of her husband
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

111. Who is known as the ‘Saint of the Gutters’?

  1. Mother Teresa
  2. Vinoba Bhave
  3. Bindeshwar Pathak
  4. Kailash Satyarthi
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

112. Which High Court declared Ganga & Yamuna rivers as ‘living human’?

  1. Allahabad
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Delhi
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

113. ‘X’ residing in Chandigarh, publishes statements defamatory to ‘Y’ in Ludhiana. ‘Y’ may sue ‘X’ at:

  1. Chandigarh only
  2. Ludhiana only
  3. anywhere in India
  4. either in Chandigarh or in Ludhiana
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

114. On production of a certified copy of the foreign judgment, the presumption as to the competency of the court, under section 14 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a:

  1. presumption of fact
  2. presumption of fact & law both
  3. rebuttable presumption of law
  4. irrebuttable presumption of law
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

115. Under Section 199 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, in a prosecution for defamation of the Vice President of India, Sessions Court may take cognizance of such offence without the case being committed to it, but only upon a complaint in writing made by …………………………………

  1. The President of India
  2. Director General of Police
  3. District Magistrate
  4. Public Prosecutor
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

116. Constitution Bench of Supreme Court in Judgment ‘Hardeep Singh v. State of Punjab’, decided on 10/01/2014 settled controversy regarding law contained in section ……………….. of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

  1. 125
  2. 311
  3. 319
  4. 357
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

117. Which section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 makes sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife, during separation, without her consent, punishable?

  1. 376A
  2. 376B
  3. 376C
  4. 376E
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

118. ‘A’ along with his gang members ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ holds ‘X’ down and fraudulently takes X’s money and jewels from X’s clothes without his consent. Out of the following, what offence ‘A’ and his gang members committed under Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. Extortion
  2. Robbery
  3. Dacoity
  4. Theft
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

119. Who wrote the book ‘The Argumentative Indian’?

  1. Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. Shashi Tharoor
  3. Amartya Sen
  4. Vikram Seth
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

120. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect in the context of Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 regarding judge’s power?

  1. A Judge can ask any question he pleases, even irrelevant.
  2. Judge may order production of any document or thing.
  3. Any party has right to make any objection to such question or order.
  4. The parties have inherent right to cross examine witness upon said question/answer.
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

121. In which of the following judgment, Supreme Court laid down the procedure regarding dealing with the objections as to the admissibility of the documents and other items of evidence?

  1. Baldev Singh v. State of Punjab, (AIR 2009 SC 913)
  2. Balu Yadav v. State of Bihar, (AIR 1997 SC 2678)
  3. Chhotanney v. State of UP, (AIR 2009 SC 2013)
  4. Bipan Chander Panchal v. State of Gujarat, (AIR 2001 SC 1158)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

122. In which of the following Directive Principle of State Policy, directs the same to take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle?

  1. 46
  2. 47
  3. 48
  4. 48A
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

123. ‘M’ agrees to pay ‘N’ 10,000/- rupees if two parallel lines should enclose a space. The agreement is:

  1. voidable at the instance of Promisee
  2. void because of uncertainty and ambiguity
  3. void because of future event
  4. void because of impossible event
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

124. If an intestate deceased has left no heir qualified to succeed his property under Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the property shall, devolve on:

  1. orphan home
  2. charitable trust
  3. Government
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

125. The headquarters of SAARC Secretariat is situated in:

  1. Kathmandu
  2. Thimphu
  3. Dhaka
  4. Colombo
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

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