Rajasthan Judicial Services Mock Test 1 | Rajasthan Judicial Services Mock Test Solved Papers PDF

Find Rajasthan Judicial Services Mock Test Paper on Legal Bites. Candidates preparing for Rajasthan Judicial Services must solve Rajasthan Judicial Services Mock Test Paper. Practice the Rajasthan Judiciary mock paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Find the Mock Test Paper below.

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST 1 | Click Here to Download PDF

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST 1

No. of questions: 100
Maximum Marks: 100
Timing: 02 Hours

1. No review petition which has been rejected for default can be restored without serving:

1. Notice to opposite party
2. Notice to Court Officer
3. Notice to Revenue Officers
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

2. A decree, judgment or order can be amended if there is:

1. Clerical or arithmetical error
2. Factual error
3. Conceptual error
4. None of the Above.

Answer: (a)

3. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘strike’ by lawyers is illegal and unethical, and it infringes the Fundamental Rights of litigants for speedy trial?

1. B.L. Wadhera v. NCT of Delhi
2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
3. Lily Thomas v. Union of India
4. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India.

Answer: (a)

4. Prohibition of advertisements containing indecent representation of women is dealt under which section of The lndecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986?

1. Section 3
2. Section 4
3. Section 5
4. Section 6.

Answer: (a)

5. According to which rule of interpretation meaning of word should be known from its accompanying or associated words?

1. Golden Rule
2. Noscitur a Sociis
3. Primary Rule
4. Mischief Rule.

Answer: (b)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

6. Fact in issue means:

1. Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
2. Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
3. Fact, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following qualifications is not essential for election as President of India?

1. A citizen of India
2. Not less than 35 years of age
3. Qualified for election as member of the Lok Sabha
4. A member of the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code provides for power to High Court to determine the an issue of fact in second appeal?

1. Section 100
2. Section 101
3. Section 102
4. Section 103.

Answer: (d)

9. As per the Explanation to Section 144 of the Code of Civil Procedure the expression “Court which passed the decree or order” shall be deemed to include:

1. Where the decree or order has been varied or reversed in exercise of appellate or revisional jurisdiction, the Court of first instance
2. Where the decree or order has been set aside by a separate suit, the court of first instance which passed such decree or order
3. Where the Court of first instance has ceased to exist or has ceased to have jurisdiction to execute, it, the Court which, if the suit wherein the decree or order was passed were instituted at the time of making the application for restitution under this section, would have jurisdiction to try such suit.
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

10. Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with:

1. Presumption as to foreign judgments
2. Court in which suits to be instituted
3. Place of institution of suits for which no specific place is provides under Code of Civil Procedure
4. Suits for immovable property situate within jurisdiction of different Courts.

Answer: (c)

11. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by:

1. 1st Amendment Act
2. 2nd Amendment Act
3. 4th Amendment Act
4. 6th Amendment Act.

Answer: (a)

12. Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other; they should be so interpreted that, if possible effect may be given to both. This is known as the:

1. Rule of harmonious construction
2. Rule of ejusdem generis
3. Rule of reasonable construction
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

13. Whoever, wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with:

1. Imprisonment up to 14 years with fine
2. Death or imprisonment of life with fine
3. Imprisonment up to 10 years with fine
4. Imprisonment up to 7 year with fine.

Answer: (b)

14. A contract of life insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event falls under the category of:

1. Contract of indemnity
2. Contract of guarantee
3. Contingent contract
4. Special type of contract.

Answer: (c)

15. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that postage, where chargeable on a notice, summons or letter issued under this Code and forwarded by post, and the fee for registering the same, shall be paid within a time to be fixed before the communication is made?

1. Section 141
2. Section 142
3. Section 143
4. Section 144.

Answer: (c)

16. Order XII, Rule 8 of Code of Civil Procedure pertains to:

1. Notice to admit fact(s)
2. Notice to admit document(s)
3. Notice to produce document(s)
4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

17. Once a proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of his fundamental rights is suspended by the:

1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Prime Minister
3. President of India
4. Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (c)

18. How the acceptance of the proposal can be made under section 8 of Indian Contract Act?

1. By notice of acceptance
2. By performance of condition of proposal
3. By acceptance of consideration for a reciprocal promise
4. By performing conditions or receiving consideration.

Answer: (d)

19. Privilege under section 121 of Indian Evidence Act is:

1. Available to an arbitrator
2. Not available to an arbitrator
3. May or may not be available to arbitrators
4. Both (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (a)

20. The period of limitation for a suit of compensation for a malicious prosecution is:

1. One year
2. Two years
3. Three years
4. Twelve years.

Answer: (a)

21. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:

1. Government of India Act, 1935
2. Minto Morley Reforms
3. Independence Act, 1947
4. Constitution of India.

Answer: (d)

22. Principal can revoke the authority given to the agent:

1. At any time before the authority has been exercised
2. At any time after the authority has been partly exercised without the liability towards the acts done
3. At any time after the authority has been fully exercised
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

23. Which section of Limitation Act is based on the principle of ‘lex non cogit ad impossibilia’?

1. Section 4
2. Section 5
3. Section 14
4. Section 15.

Answer: (a)

24. The “brides in the bath” is based on which section of Indian Evidence Act?

1. Section 16
2. Section 15
3. Section 14
4. Section 11.

Answer: (b)

25. Which of the following act will not fall in general exceptions provided under Chapter IV of Indian Penal Code?

1. Act likely to cause harm but done without criminal intent and prevent other harm
2. Accident in doing a lawful act
3. Act of the child aged 14 years
4. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified, by law.

Answer: (c)

26. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself, justified, by law is given under:

1. Section 76
2. Section 77
3. Section 78
4. Section 79.

Answer: (d)

27. In which case it was held that there is no reason to compel non smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution?

1. Samantha v. State of A.P
2. M C Mehta v. UOI
3. Murli Deora v. UOI
4. Sheela Barse v. UOI.

Answer: (c)

28. Which one of the following statements about a valid acceptance of an offer is incorrect?

1. Acceptance should be absolute and unqualified.
2. Acceptance should be in the reasonable manner
3. Acceptance should be made while the offer is subsisting
4. Acceptance should in all cases be through registered post.

Answer: (d)

29. In case of a first class magistrate, what is the limitation imposed in terms of duration of imprisonment in case default of payment of fine?

1. 12 months
2. 9 months
3. 6 months
4. 3 months.

Answer: (b)

30. The Magistrate can direct ‘any person’ including an accused to give specimen signatures or handwriting for the purpose of investigation under:

1. Section 54-A Code of Criminal Procedure
2. Section 311-A Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Section 53 Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Section 53-A Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (b)

31. Under Section 167 of the Indian Evidence Act, the improper admission or rejection of evidence is:

1. Not a ground for reversal of judgment or for new trial of the case
2. A ground for reversal of judgment or for a new trial of the case if there is rejection of an important document or refusal of permission for examination of material witness
3. Both (a) and (b) are correct
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

32. In which case Strachey, J. held that “a man must not make or try to make others feel enmity of any kind towards the government”?

1. Queen-Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Queen-Empress v. Jogendra Chandra Bose
3. Emperor v. Sada Shiv Narayan
4. Emperor v. Beni Bhusan Roy.

Answer: (a)

33. Which Article of the constitution empowers the president to dissolve Lok Sabha?

1. Article 90
2. Article 85
3. Article 84
4. Article 82.

Answer: (b)

34. “What does abandoned child mean as per Juvenile Justice Act 2015? i. Abandoned child means a child deserted by his biological or adoptive parents ii. It means a child who has been declared as abandoned by the Committee after due inquiry”

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both i and ii
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

35. “A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable.” is enshrined under which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

1. Section 2(d)
2. Section 2(g)
3. Section 2(j)
4. Section 2(e).

Answer: (c)

36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

1. The President of India
2. The Parliament of India
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Union Finance Minister.

Answer: (b)

37. In which of the following cases, Supreme court gave the definition of the term ‘judgment’?

1. Surendra Singh v. State of U.P.
2. Ram Bali v. the State of U.P.
3. Niranjan v. State of Madhya Pradesh
4. Yelchuri Manohar v. State of Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (a)

38. Usually a copy of F.I.R. is filed with the Magistrate having jurisdiction to take cognizance, by the police officer in compliance to:

1. Section 156 of Code of Criminal Procedure
2. Section 157 of Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Section 158 of Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Section 159 of Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (b)

39. The Supreme Court of India has observed a clear distinction between dishonestly and fraudulently in the case of:

1. Nathu Lal v. State of M.P.
2. Vimla v. Delhi Administration
3. Central Bank of India v. Narain
4. Mubarik Ali v. State of Bombay.

Answer: (b)

40. As per Indian Penal Code a document whereby any legal right is created, extended, restricted or released, is:

1. Conveyance deed
2. Gift deed
3. Will
4. Valuable security.

Answer: (d)

41. As per Rule 1 (3) of Order XXI of Code of Civil Procedure, which of the particulars should be accurately stated in the money order or payment through bank where money is paid by postal money order or through a bank under clause (a) or clause (b) of sub-rule (1)?

1. The number of the original suit
2. The number of the execution case of the Court, where such case is pending
3. The name and address of the payer
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

42. The Principle of Res Judicata will apply to the Writ Petition as held by Supreme Court in the case of:

1. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
2. Independent Thought v. Union of India
3. Ram Narain v. State of UP
4. MSM Sharma v. Dr. Shree Krishna.

Answer: (d)

43. A decree against the Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of:

1. One month
2. Two month
3. Three months
4. Six months.

Answer: (c)

44. The term “character” as explained in Section 55 of the Indian Evidence Act means:

1. Good and Bad character
2. Reputation and Disposition of general nature
3. Reputation formed on the basis of of particular disposition
4. Character in a criminal act.

Answer: (b)

45. When did The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005, come into force?

1. 1st April 2005
2. 11th March 2006
3. 21st May 2005
4. 26th October 2006.

Answer: (d)

46. If the investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be:

1. Discharged
2. Released on bail on making an application for release on bail
3. Released on bail without making an application for release on bail
4. Acquitted.

Answer: (b)

47. Which of the following confessions is admissible under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

1. Magistrate while recording a confession did not specifically tell the accused that he was a Magistrate
2. The Magistrate recorded the confession of the accused, but forgot to certify that the confession was taken voluntarily
3. Magistrate recorded the confession of the accused but did not get it signed by the accused
4. Investigating officer took the accused from the jail to the magistrate, sit with him while the confession was being made and brought the accused back to the jail.

Answer: (b)

48. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, which of the following children can be kept in special homes?

1. Children in conflict with law
2. Neglected children
3. Abused children
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

49. Under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, trial shall be concluded within _________ from the date of filing of the complaint.

1. 2 months
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years.

Answer: (b)

50. “The police are required to perform the following duties as per POCSO Act: i. Arrange for the safety of the child ii. Take the matter to the CWC within 48 hours of report”

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both i and ii
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

51. “Chairperson” under The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013 means?

1. Chairman of Parliamentary Committee on Women
2. Minister of Women and Child Development
3. Chairperson of National Women’s Commission
4. Chairperson of the Local Complaints Committee.

Answer: (d)

52. Common intention signifies:

1. Similar intention
2. Prearrange planning
3. Presence of common knowledge
4. Common design for common objects.

Answer: (b)

53. Power of the court to require released offenders to pay compensation and costs is provided in which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?

1. Section 4 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
2. Section 2 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
3. Section 5 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
4. Section 3 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958.

Answer: (c)

54. Every summon issued by a Court under Code of Criminal Procedure shall be in writing in duplicate and must be signed and sealed by the:

1. Investigating officer
2. Serving officer
3. Presiding officer of the Court
4. Reader of the Court.

Answer: (c)

55. Stoppage of proceedings under section 258 of Code of Criminal Procedure has the effect of:

1. Acquittal under all circumstances
2. Acquittal where the evidence of the principal witness has been recorded
3. Discharge in all other cases where the evidence of the principal witness has not been recorded
4. Both (b) & (c).

Answer: (d)

56. Court can take cognizance of the offence of defamation:

1. On a police report
2. Upon a complaint made by the person aggrieved by the offence
3. Upon information received from any other person
4. Upon complaint filed by anybody.

Answer: (b)

57. Where may any person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary original criminal jurisdiction may appeal to:

1. Court of Session
2. Supreme Court
3. No appeal lies
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

58. For the purpose of section 141 Negotiable Instruments Act a company does not mean or include:

1. A body corporate
2. A firm
3. A proprietary concern
4. An association of individuals.

Answer: (c)

59. Which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 deals with Protection of action taken in good faith?

1. Section 16 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
2. Section 14 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
3. Section 13 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
4. Section 18 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958.

Answer: (a)

60. What can be the reasons for a child’s interrogation as per the POCSO Act?

1. To establish whether the child needs urgent medical attention
2. To hear the child’s version of the circumstances leading to the concern
3. To get a picture of the child’s relationship with their parents or family
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

61. Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, Rent Tribunal upon filing of petition for recovery of possession shall issue notice accompanied by copies of petition affidavits and documents fixing a date not later than ________ from the date of service of notice requiring the landlord to submit reply.

1. 15 days
2. 21 days
3. 30 days
4. 45 days.

Answer: (b)

62. Which section of Specific Relief Act deals with ‘contracts not specifically enforceable’?

1. Section 9
2. Section 14
3. Section 11
4. Section 16.

Answer: (b)

63. Which one of the following is not an essential element of sale?

1. Parties
2. Subject matter
3. Transfer or conveyance
4. Payment of price in cash.

Answer: (d)

64. Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord shall, on a petition being filed in this behalf in the Rent Tribunal, be entitled to recover immediate possession of a residential premise, if he:

1. Is or was a member of any armed forces or paramilitary forces of the Union and aforesaid petition is filed within one year, prior to or subsequent to the date of retirement, release or discharge, as the case may be, or within a period of one year from the date of commencement of this Act, whichever is later.
2. Is or was an employee of the Central Government or the State Government or local bodies or State owned corporations and files the aforesaid petition within a period prior to or subsequent to the date of his retirement or within a period of one year from the date of the commencement of this Act, whichever is later.
3. Has become a senior citizen and files the aforesaid petition after the expiry of three years from the date of letting out of premises.
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

65. Under Specific Relief Act, which of the following are the essential conditions to claim declaratory decrees?

1. That the plaintiff is entitled to a legal character at the time of the suit, or to any right as to any property
2. That the defendant has denied these if he is interested in denying the character or right of the plaintiff
3. The plaintiff is not in a position to ask for relief consequential upon the declaration
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

66. A lease of immovable property for manufacturing and agriculture purpose from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee, by notice of:

1. One month
2. Six months
3. Three months
4. Sixty days.

Answer: (b)

67. Charge has been defined in which Section of the Transfer of Property Act?

1. Section 100
2. Section 101
3. Section 102
4. Section 103.

Answer: (a)

68. Section 8 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 deals with:

1. Eviction of tenants
2. Limited period tenancy
3. Revision of rent in respect of new tenancies
4. Revision of rent in respect of existing tenancies.

Answer: (b)

69. Under Specific Relief Act, a declaration made is binding on:

1. The parties to the suit
2. Persons claiming through the parties to the suit
3. Where any party is a trustee, or the person for whom such party would be a trustee
4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

70. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that: “In considering whether a person is willing to perform his part of the contract, the sequence in which the obligations under a contract are to be performed must be taken into account”?

1. Perumal v. Ramaswami
2. Ram Prasad v. Ram Mohit
3. Nathulal v. Phoolchand
4. Sant Lal v. Kamla Prasad.

Answer: (c)

71. Her thinking leans ____ democracy.

1. with
2. towards
3. for
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

72. Antonym of Imperil?

1. Safeguard
2. Endanger
3. Hazard
4. Jeopardize.

Answer: (a)

73. Synonym of Gist?

1. Elaborate
2. Good
3. Essence
4. Bad.

Answer: (c)

74. The person who knows everything:

1. Omnipresent
2. Omnipotent
3. Omniscient
4. Oblivious.

Answer: (c)

75. Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom/phrase: Caught between two stools.

1. Met with an accident
2. Difficulty in choosing between two alternatives
3. Struck in Calamity
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

76. Complete the sentence: Only if business continues to expand can it _____enough new jobs to make up for those that will be _______ by automation.

1. produce, required
2. invent, introduced
3. create, eliminated
4. repeal, reduced.

Answer: (c)

77. Change the voice: Our task had been completed before sunset.

1. We completed our task before sunset.
2. We have completed our task before sunset.
3. We complete our task before sunset.
4. We had completed our task before sunset.

Answer: (d)

78. Change the voice: They drew a circle in the morning.

1. A circle was being drawn by them in the morning.
2. A circle was drawn by them in the morning.
3. In the morning a circle have been drawn by them.
4. A circle has been drawing since morning.

Answer: (b)

79. Change the voice: They will demolish the entire block.

1. The entire block is being demolished.
2. The block may be demolished entirely.
3. The entire block will have to be demolished by the
4. The entire block will be demolished.

Answer: (d)

80. Change the speech: My uncle said to me, “Has your uncle returned from Sambalpur?”

1. My uncle said to me that my uncle has returned from Sambalpur.
2. My uncle asked me If my uncle had returned from Sambalpur.
3. My uncle told me his uncle had returned from Sambalpur.
4. My uncle enquired me if his uncle had returned from Sambalpur.

Answer: (b)

81. Change the speech: Sapna said, “I bought a laptop yesterday.”

1. Sapna said that I have bought a laptop the previous day.
2. Sapna told that she has bought a laptop yesterday.
3. Sapna said that she bought a laptop the previous day.
4. Sapna said that she had bought a laptop the previous day.

Answer: (d)

82. I shall meet you ________ 6 o’clock.

1. by
2. at
3. in
4. during.

Answer: (b)

83. Our sir teaches Mathematics _______ English.

1. beside
2. besides
3. across
4. both.

Answer: (b)

84. Eagle has been flying in the sky _______ last week.

1. since
2. for
3. over
4. before.

Answer: (a)

85. The creation of India as a sovereign, independent republic was, in some profound sense, the _______________ of a bold experiment in political affairs.

1. commencement
2. discovery
3. investment
4. affect.

Answer: (a)

86. निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा शब्द–युग्म सही है?

1. नीरज–बादल, नीरद–कमल
2. नीर–जल, नीड़–मकान
3. मूल–जड़, मूल्य–महत्व
4. निर्झर–झरना, निर्जर–देवता.

Answer: (c)

87. शक्ति’ शब्द का अनेकार्थक शब्द समूह है:

1. शिवा, लक्ष्मी
2. स्त्री, हनुमान
3. शिव, साँप
4. शक्ति, दुर्गा.

Answer: (d)

88. ‘तुम्हें राम के आने तक प्रतीक्षा करनी होगी’ । इस वाक्य में ‘तक’ कौन–सा निपात है ?

1. निषेधात्मक निपात
2. बलदायक निपात
3. नकारात्मक निपात
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (b)

89. ‘मध्यावधि’ में संधि है:

1. गुण संधि
2. अयादी संधि
3. यण संधि
4. दीर्घ संधि.

Answer: (d)

90. निम्नलिखित में से बताइए कि नवीन विकसित ध्वनियां कौन–सी है?

1. ख, ग
2. उ, ऊ
3. ऐ, औ
4. श, स.

Answer: (d)

91. ‘दाता’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप क्या है ?

1. छाती
2. दातृ
3. छात्रि
4. दात्री.

Answer: (d)

92. ‘वह कुल्हाड़ी से वृक्ष काटता है’ इस वाक्य में ‘से’ किस कारक की विभक्ति है ?

1. अधिकरण
2. अपादान
3. सम्प्रदान
4. करण.

Answer: (d)

93. ‘नेता’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप क्या है ?

1. नेतृ
2. नेतिन
3. नेत्री
4. नेताजी.

Answer: (c)

94. ‘सूर्योदय’ का सही सन्धि–विच्छेद क्या है ?

1. सूर्ये + उदय
2. सूर्यो + दय
3. सूर्य + उदय
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (c)

95. निपात कितने प्रकार के होते हैं ?

1. आठ
2. सात
3. पांच
4. नौ.

Answer: (d)

96. बहुव्रीहि समास का उदाहरण है:

1. त्रिफला
2. चक्रधर
3. यथासम्भव
4. धर्मवीर.

Answer: (b)

97. विसर्ग के अनुसार शुद्ध शब्द है:

1. दु:ख
2. दुख:
3. दुख:ह
4. दख:.

Answer: (a)

98. ‘माँ बच्चे को सुला रही है’ इस वाक्य में ‘को’ किस कारक की विभक्ति है ?

1. कर्म
2. सम्प्रदान
3. करण
4. अपादान.

Answer: (a)

99. सब कुछ पाने वाला:

1. सुग्रीव
2. सामंजस्य
3. सर्वलब्ध
4. सार्वभौम.

Answer: (c)

100. ‘महाशय’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप क्या है ?

1. महाशियी
2. महाशयी
3. महाशया
4. महाशिनी.

Answer: (c)

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST 1 | Click Here to Download PDF

---

1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination