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RAJASTHAN JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2015

Duration- 2 hours

Number of Questions- 100

1. Which of the following is correct statement in so far as section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is concerned?

1. The suit has to be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it
2. The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain
3. The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction, the cause of action wholly or in part arises
4. All the above are correct.

Answer: (d)

2. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Code of Civil Procedure Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002?

1. Delhi High Court Bar Association v. UOI
2. Allahabad High Court Bar Association v. UOI
3. Salem Advocate Bar Association v. UOI
4. P&H High Court Bar Association v. UOI.

Answer: (c)

3. An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following orders?

1. Rule 11 of Order VII, rejecting the plaint
2. Rule 9 of Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit
3. Rule 1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written statement
4. Rule 5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instance of either of the parties.

Answer: (b)

4. Statement A: Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith, as an easement, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right to such access and use of light or air shall be absolute.

Statement B: A right to the free passage of light or air to an open space of ground, cannot be acquired by prescription.

1. Statement A is correct
2. Statement B is correct
3. Both statements are correct
4. Both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of immovable property, the court cannot grant partition and separate possession of the property
2. In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of immovable property, the plaintiff cannot alternatively ask for the refund of earnest money or deposit made by him
3. The court while refusing to grant specific performance of the contract, cannot grant refund of earnest money paid by the plaintiff, unless it has been specifically claimed
4. All the above are correct.

Answer: (c)

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6. Which of the following documents is not required to be compulsorily registered?

1. Instruments creating or declaring right, title or interest to or in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards
2. Wills in respect of immovable property
3. Leases of immovable property for a term exceeding one year
4. Instruments transferring any decree of a court when such decree purports to create right in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards.

Answer: (b)

7. In which of the following mortgages, the mortgagor is required to deliver possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee?

1. English mortgage
2. Mortgage by conditional sale
3. Usufructuary mortgage
4. Anomalous mortgage.

Answer: (c)

8. Statement A: Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is void.

Statement B: Every transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is void.

1. Statement A is correct
2. Statement B is correct
3. Both statements are correct
4. Both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following statements is correct, so far as Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is concerned?

1. A party may apply to the court for interim measures during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings only
2. A party may apply to the court seeking appointment of receiver by way of interim measures even after the making of the arbitral award by the Arbitral Tribunal
3. A party cannot apply for interim measures before the commencement of arbitral proceedings
4. All the above are correct.

Answer: (b)

10. The period of three years is prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in case where no other period of Limitation is provided for filing any:

1. Suit
2. Appeal
3. Application
4. Proceeding.

Answer: (c)

11. Statement A: In computing period of limitation for any appeal, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shall be included.

Statement B: In computing period of Limitation for any appeal, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining the copy of the decree shall be excluded.

1. Statement A is correct
2. Statement B is correct
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

12. Which of the following is correct as per Section 22C of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987?

1. Any party to a dispute may, after the dispute is brought before any court, make an application to the permanent Lok Adalat for the settlement of dispute
2. The permanent Lok Adalat shall not have the jurisdiction in respect of any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law
3. The permanent Lok Adalat shall have the jurisdiction only in such matter where the value of the property in dispute is more than ten lakh rupees
4. All the above are correct.

Answer: (b)

13. Under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage may be declared null and void if:

1. The parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship
2. At the time of the marriage, one of the parties was incapable of giving a valid consent to it in consequence of unsoundness of mind
3. At the time of the marriage, one of the parties was subject to recurrent attacks of insanity
4. In all the above circumstances.

Answer: (a)

14. After the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law:

1. Shall have no right in the coparcenary property
2. Cannot become a coparcener by birth
3. Shall become a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as the son
4. Shall be entitled to dispose of the entire coparcenary property.

Answer: (c)

15. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. The husband is the natural guardian of a Hindu married girl
2. After the adoption of Hindu minor son, his father continues to remain his natural guardian till he attains majority
3. The natural guardian of a Hindu minor child is the father, and after him the mother, but custody of minor upto the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the mother
4. The natural guardian of an illegitimate Hindu minor boy is the mother, and after her, the father.

Answer: (b)

16. A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance after the death of her husband from her father-in-law under:

1. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
2. Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
3. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
4. Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

Answer: (c)

17. As per Section 2(q) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, “respondent” means and includes:

1. Any person, who is in a domestic relationship with the aggrieved person and against whom the aggrieved person has sought relief under the act
2. Male partner when an aggrieved female is living in a relationship with him in the nature of a marriage
3. The female relatives of the husband of the aggrieved wife, seeking their removal from the shared household
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

18. As per Section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the Chapter II and III thereof do not apply to:

1. The premises, let out after the commencement of the Act for a period of two years through a registered deed
2. The premises, let out to the multinational company having paid up share capital of less than rupees one crore
3. The premises, let out for residential purposes, the monthly rent whereof is rupees four thousand in case of the premises situated in the Municipal area of Jaipur city
4. The premises belonging to the Government company as defined under the Companies Act, 1956.

Answer: (d)

19. Which of the following statements is not correct, so far as Section 242 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is concerned?

1. Civil Court can frame the issue with regard to the tenancy rights in agricultural land and submit the record to the appropriate revenue court for the decision on that issue only
2. Civil court may or may not accept the finding of revenue court on the issue referred to it
3. The finding of the revenue court on the issue referred to it, shall be deemed to be part of the finding of civil court for the purposes of appeal
4. Civil court cannot decide the issue which was referred to the revenue court.

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following is not the judicial matter under Section 23 read with the First Schedule to the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956?

1. Regularisation of unauthorised occupation
2. A dispute with respect to the right of grazing cattle on pasturage land
3. Settlement of boundary disputes
4. Mutation upon succession.

Answer: (a)

21. The General Rules (Civil), 1986 have been framed:

1. By the Rajasthan High Court under Article 227 of the Constitution of India
2. By the Governor under Article 166 of the Constitution of India
3. By the Chief Justice under Article 229 of the Constitution of India
4. By the State Government under Article 309 of the Constitution of India.

Answer: (a)

22. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of gift under the Mohammedan law?

1. A declaration of gift by the donor
2. Acceptance of gift, expressed or implied, by or on behalf of donee
3. Delivery of possession of the subject gift by the donor to the donee
4. A written deed of gift.

Answer: (d)

23. Under the provisions of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, a Bank can recover its dues from any agriculturist or his heir or legal representative or his guarantor on account of financial assistance availed of by the agriculturist by making an application to:

1. District Judge
2. High Court
3. Prescribed Authority
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

24. Under Section 35 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961, in a suit for partition and separate possession of a share in joint family property by a plaintiff, who has been excluded from possession of such property, court fee shall be:

1. Paid at fixed rate
2. Computed on the market value of the plaintiff’s share of the property
3. At the discretion of the plaintiff
4. Based on written statement of the defendant.

Answer: (b)

25. Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, in case of a release-deed, in the absence of an agreement to the contrary, the expense of providing the proper stamp shall be borne by:

1. The beneficiary
2. The person drawing, making or executing the release-deed
3. By both the parties in equal shares
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

26. If an instrument has not been duly stamped and where such an instrument has been admitted in evidence, such admission:

1. Can be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding
2. Shall not be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding except as provided for by Section 71 of the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998
3. At the discretion of the opposite party can be called in question
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

27. Under the Registration Act, 1908 a Will can be presented for registration before the Registrar or Sub Registrar by:

1. The testator
2. After death of testator, any person claiming as executor or otherwise under a will
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their contract:

1. Illegal
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

29. Acknowledgment after the expiration of the period prescribed under the Indian Limitation Act, 1963, for a suit or application:

1. Is of no effect
2. Gives rise to an independent & enforceable contract
3. Is of great value
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

30. Time limit for disposal of petition filed under Section 9 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is:

1. Within the period of two hundred and forty days from the date of service of notice on the tenant
2. Within the period of twelve months from the date of service of notice on the tenant
3. Within the period of six months from the date of service of notice on the tenant
4. No limitation.

Answer: (a)

31. Subject to contract between the partners, a firm is dissolved:

1. If constituted for a fixed term, by the expiry of that term
2. If constituted to carry out one or more adventures or undertakings, by the completion thereof
3. By the death of a partner
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

32. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:

1. Bailor
2. Surety
3. Bailee
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

33. Under Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, a complaint can be filed regarding grievance relating to:

1. The service matters of a public servant
2. Any matter in which any court or Tribunal has jurisdiction
3. Any matter under Right to Information Act, 2005
4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

34. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the members of the Transgender Community who are neither male nor female, at the time of birth, are recognized as ‘Third Gender’ for the purpose of safeguarding and enforcing appropriately their fundamental and other legal, social and economic rights guaranteed under the Constitution?

1. Rambilas Singh v. State of Bihar, AIR 1989 SC 1593
2. Lily Thomas v. State of Bihar (2013) 7 SCC 653
3. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) 5 SCC 438
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

35. Article 21A providing for Right to Education was inserted in the Constitution by:

1. The Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
2. The Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003
3. The Constitution (Ninety Second Amendment) Act, 2003
4. The Constitution (Eighty Fourth Amendment) Act, 2001.

Answer: (a)

36. Which of the following is a correct statement of law as per Sections 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

1. A cheque is to be presented to the bank within a period of six months from the date it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier
2. Notice within thirty days of receipt of information from the bank regarding return of cheque as unpaid, has to be served upon drawer, demanding payment of amount of money
3. On failure of drawer of such cheque to make payment within fifteen days of receipt of such notice, the payee or holder of cheque has to file complaint within one month thereof
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

37. The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned:

1. Under Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963
2. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
3. Under Section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
4. Under Section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

Answer: (c)

38. In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1523
2. Selvi and others v. State of Karnataka, (2010)7 SCC 263
3. PUCL v. Union of India (1997) 1 SCC 301
4. Amar Singh v. Union of India (2011) 7 SCC 67.

Answer: (a)

39. According to Section 25 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, statement of a child under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to be recorded by the Magistrate:

1. Shall be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
2. Shall not be recorded in presence of the advocate of the accused
3. Shall be recorded in presence of the Investigating Officer
4. Shall be recorded in presence of woman police officer.

Answer: (b)

40. Which of the following is not the duty of Probation Officer?

1. To supervise probationers placed under his supervision and where necessary, endeavour to find them suitable employment
2. To advise and assist offenders in payment of compensation or costs ordered by the court
3. To inquire into the circumstances or home surroundings of any person accused of an offence
4. To arrange for lodging and boarding of the probationers.

Answer: (d)

41. Which of following conditions, as per provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examining or recording statement of the child?

1. The statement of child shall be recorded at the residence of child or the place where he usually resides or the place of his choice
2. As far as practicable the statement should be recorded by woman police officer not below the rank of Sub Inspector, who shall not be in uniform
3. The Investigating Officer shall ensure that at no point of time the child comes in contact in any way with the accused
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

42. A private key and its mathematically related public key, which are so related that the public key, can verify a digital signature created by the private key, in an Asymmetric Crypto system means:

1. Key pair
2. Both keys
3. Soft keys
4. Soft pair.

Answer: (a)

43. A person, who sends, generates, stores or transmits any electronic message or causes any electronic message to be sent, generated, stored or transmitted to any other person, is called:

1. Sender
2. Originator
3. Generator
4. Intermediary.

Answer: (b)

44. What is the minimum and maximum sentence that can be awarded to an accused guilty of second or subsequent offence of theft of electric lines and materials under Section 136 of the Electricity Act, 2003:

1. Not less than 1 year but which may extend to 10 years and also fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees
2. Not less than 6 months but which may extend to 5 years and also fine which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees
3. Not less than 3 months but which may extend to 3 years and also fine which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees
4. Not less than 9 months but which may extend to 3 years and also fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees.

Answer: (b)

45. A police officer empowered to investigate cybercrime as per Section 78 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, must not be below the rank of:

1. Sub Inspector
2. Inspector
3. Deputy Superintendent of Police
4. Superintendent of Police.

Answer: (b)

46. In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court of Delhi which decriminalized Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

1. Sakshi v. Union of India, AIR 2004 SC 3566
2. Naz Foundation (India) Trust v. Suresh Kumar Koushal (2014) 3 SCC 220
3. PUCL v. Union of India (2010) 14 SCC 245
4. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation (India) Trust (2014) 1 SCC 1.

Answer: (d)

47. Which of the following acts constitute ‘Atrocity’ as defined in Section 3(1) of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?

1. Forcing to drink or eat any inedible or obnoxious substances
2. Intentionally insulting or intimidating with intent to humiliate in any place within public view
3. Forcing or intimidating not to vote or to vote for a particular candidate or vote in a manner other than provided by law
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

48. Benefit of probation to a convict of offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 can be provided only if:

1. He is under 21 years of age and is convicted for offence punishable under Section 26 or 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
2. He is under 18 years of age or is convicted for offence punishable under Section 26 or 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
3. To any accused, regardless of his age, sentenced to rigorous imprisonment upto 10 years
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

49. Who, as per Section 2(1) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000, is a ‘Juvenile in conflict with law’?

1. A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed eighteen years of age as on the date of commission of such offence
2. A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed twelve years of age on the date of commission of such offence
3. A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed sixteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
4. A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an offence and has not completed fourteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence.

Answer: (a)

50. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. One or more Juvenile Justice Boards shall be constituted by the State Government for every district
2. Each Juvenile Justice Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate and two social workers, of whom at-least one shall be a woman
3. The order passed by the Juvenile Justice Board in absence of any member at any stage of proceedings shall be invalid
4. Power of the Juvenile Justice Board may also be exercised by the High Court and the Court of Sessions, when the proceedings come before their’ in appeal, revision or otherwise.

Answer: (c)

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51. Under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, statement of a person, who is dead, is relevant:

1. If it relates to cause of someone else’s death
2. If it relates to cause of his own death or someone else’s death
3. If it relates to the cause of his own death
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

52. Section 136-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for grant of bail to an accused pending trial if:

1. He has undergone detention for one-fourth period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
2. He has undergone detention for one-third period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
3. He has undergone for one-half period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
4. A and B above.

Answer: (c)

53. Facts, which, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places:

1. Are irrelevant
2. Are relevant
3. Are partly relevant
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

54. Which of the following statements, as per provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is not correct?

1. Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue, shall not be relevant
2. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with other facts, they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable
3. Any fact is relevant, which shows or constitutes a motive or preparation for any fact in issue or relevant fact
4. Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

Answer: (a)

55. Narcoanalysis, Polygraph Test and Brain Electrical Activation Profile Test conducted against will of the person subjected to such tests, violates his right protected under Article 20(3), and right to personal liberty protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, was held by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

1. Wakkar and Another v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2011) 3 SCC 306
2. Munna Kumar Upadhyay v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2012) 6 SCC 174
3. Jagroop Singh v. State of Punjab (2012) 11 SCC 768
4. Selvi and others v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7 SCC 263.

Answer: (d)

56. Statement A: When a court of Sessions passes a sentence of death, the court shall, according to Rule 102 of the General Rules (Criminal) 1980, commit the prisoner by a warrant in the appropriate form to the jail from which he came to stand his trial, and shall submit its proceedings to the High Court at the latest on the fourth day after the sentence of death has been pronounced.

Statement B: When a court of Sessions passes a sentence against a female prisoner to death, according to Rule 104 of the General Rules (Criminal) 1980, it shall consider after enquiring from such prisoner herself, if necessary, whether she is pregnant and if it thinks that it is likely, it shall have her examined by the District Medical Officer or such other doctor as it may consider fit and if it finds that she is in fact pregnant, it shall make a report to the High Court.

1. Both the aforesaid statements are correct
2. Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect
3. Statement B is correct and Statement A is incorrect
4. None of them is correct.

Answer: (a)

57. How many kinds of punishment are provided in Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. Six
2. Four
3. Five
4. Seven.

Answer: (c)

58. According to Sections 73 and 74 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, a convict can be kept in solitary confinement for any portion or portions of imprisonment to which he is sentenced. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. For period not exceeding three months in the whole
2. For period not exceeding three months, if the term of the imprisonment exceeds six months and does not exceed one year
3. For period not exceeding three months if the term of imprisonment exceeds one year
4. The solitary confinement in no case shall exceed 14 days at a time.

Answer: (b)

59. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z. What offence has been committed by A and B?

1. A and B both would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 302 IPC
2. While A would be guilty of committing offence under Section 302 IPC, B would be guilty of committing offence under Section 304 Part II, IPC
3. A would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 302 IPC, B would be guilty of no offence
4. A and B both would be guilty of committing offence punishable under Section 304 Part I of the IPC.

Answer: (c)

60. A, is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house-top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, the child’s benefit, and the child dies. Which of the following offence has been committed by A?

1. Section 304A of Indian Penal Code, 1860
2. Section 304 Part II, of Indian Penal Code, 1860
3. Section 302, of Indian Penal Code, 1860
4. A has committed no offence.

Answer: (d)

61. Which of the following is correct statement of law as per Sections 82 and 83 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973?

1. The court may order attachment of property belonging to an accused before declaring him a proclaimed person under Section 82
2. The court may order attachment of property of a person after publication of a written proclamation under Section 82 requiring him to appear before it
3. The court may order attachment of property of a person regardless of whether or not he has been declared proclaimed offender
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate, not empowered by law to do so, vitiates the proceedings?

1. To hold inquiry under Section 176 Code of Criminal Procedure
2. To make over a case under sub-section (2) of Section 192 Code of Criminal Procedure
3. To take cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
4. To tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate not empowered by law to do so, does not vitiate the proceedings?

1. Calling of record to exercise powers of revision under Section 397 of Code of Criminal Procedure
2. Taking cognizance of an offence under clause (a) or clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 190 of Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Decision of an appeal
4. Revision of an order passed under section 466 of Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (b)

64. Which of the following offences is cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable?

1. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt, punishable under Section 325 IPC
2. Attempt to murder punishable under Section 307 IPC
3. Voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property, punishable under Section 330 IPC
4. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation punishable under Section 335 IPC.

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code defines culpable homicide?

1. Section 302
2. Section 300
3. Section 301
4. Section 299.

Answer: (d)

66. Statement of an accused can be recorded on oath:

1. Is not a correct statement of law
2. Under Section 315 Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Under Section 313 Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Under Section 391 Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (b)

67. Which of the following is correct statement according to law?

1. An accomplice shall be competent witness against an accused person
2. Leading question may be asked in cross-examination of a witness
3. The court may permit a party, who, calls a witness, to put any question to him, which might be put in cross-examination by the adverse party
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

68. Burden of proof under Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

1. Goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
2. Never shifts
3. May shift
4. Both A and C are correct.

Answer: (b)

69. Proceedings under Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure are initiated by the Executive Magistrate on the report of which of the following?

1. Judicial Magistrate
2. Police Officer
3. Revenue Officer
4. Complainant.

Answer: (b)

70. In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court held that only those courts within whose territorial limits the drawee bank is situated, would have jurisdiction to try the cases for offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

1. Bhaskaran v. Sankaran Vaidhyan Balan and Another (1999) 7 SCC 510
2. Dashrath Rupsingh Rathood v. State of Maharashtra and Another (2014) 9 SCC 129
3. State of Bihar and Others v. Kalyanpur Cement Limited (2010) 3 SCC 274
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

71. दो या अधिक शब्दों के परस्पर संबंध बताने वाले शब्दों अथवा प्रत्ययों का लोप होने पर, दो या अधिक शब्द में से जो स्वतंत्र शब्द बनता है, कहलाता है:

1. समास
2. उपसर्ग
3. विशेषण
4. संज्ञा.

Answer: (a)

72. ‘हाय! अब मैं क्या करूं!’ किस प्रकार का अव्यय है:

1. क्रिया विशेषण
2. संबंध सूचक
3. समुच्चयबोधक
4. विस्मयादिबोधक.

Answer: (d)

73. क्रिया के उस रुपान्तरण को, जिससे क्रिया के व्यापार का समय तथा उसकी पूर्ण अथवा अपूर्ण अवस्था का बोध होता है, को कहते हैं:

1. समास
2. सर्वनाम
3. काल
4. कारक.

Answer: (c)

74. निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द “चांदनी” का समानार्थी नहीं है?

1. चन्द्रिका
2. कोमुदी
3. ज्योत्सना
4. कलत्र.

Answer: (d)

75. निम्न में से कौन सा ‘विलोम–युग्म‘ सही है:

1. निष्काम-सकाम
2. निकट-सन्निकट
3. नाश-विनाश
4. मितव्ययी-अल्पव्ययी.

Answer: (a)

76. मूल पत्र की प्रतिलिपि किसी विभाग को प्रेषित की जाती है, उसे क्या कहते हैं:

1. पृष्ठांकन
2. प्रेस विज्ञप्ति
3. परिपत्र
4. प्रस्ताव.

Answer: (a)

77. ‘घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबर‘,कहावत का अर्थ है:

1. घर की मुर्गी को दाल के बराबर मूल्यवान समझना
2. घर की मुर्गी को बराबर दाल खिलाना
3. मुर्गी व दाल खाना
4. अपने आदमी को कम महत्व देना.

Answer: (d)

78. “साध्वाचरण” शब्द की संधि विच्छेद किस क्रम में है:

1. साधु + आचरण
2. साध + आचरण
3. साधव + चरण
4. साधु + चरण.

Answer: (a)

79. ‘नीलोत्पलम्‘ में समास है:

1. तत्पुरुष
2. कर्मधारय
3. बहुव्रीहि
4. अव्ययीभाव.

Answer: (b)

80. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शब्द ‘विध्युत‘ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है?

1. तडित
2. चपला
3. कोदंड
4. चंचला.

Answer: (c)

81. ‘जिन ढूंढा तिन पाइयाँ गहरे पानी पैठ‘ लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है:

1. बिना प्रयास के लाभ होना
2. काम करने में शीघ्रता करना
3. परिश्रम का फल अव्यश्य मिलता है
4. सांसारिकता में लिप्त रहकर ईश्वर को प्राप्त करना.

Answer: (c)

82. वे शब्द जो किसी संस्कृत या प्राकृत मूल से निकले हुए नहीं जान पड़ते और जिनकी व्युत्पत्ति का पता नहीं लगता, कहलाते है:

1. तत्सम
2. व्यंजन
3. देशज
4. खड़ी बोली.

Answer: (c)

83. स्वर, व्यंजन, विसर्ग किसके विभिन्न प्रकार है:

1. विशेषण
2. संज्ञा
3. सर्वनाम
4. संधि.

Answer: (d)

84. जिस सर्वनाम से वक्ता के पास अथवा दूर की किसी वस्तु का बोध होता हो, को कहते है:

1. निजवाचक सर्वनाम
2. निश्च्यवाचक सर्वनाम
3. अनिश्च्यवाचक सर्वनाम
4. संभंधवाचक सर्वनाम.

Answer: (b)

85. संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का क्रिया के साथ संभंध निर्धारित करने वाले तत्व कहलाते है:

1. विशेषण
2. अव्यय
3. क्रिया
4. कारक.

Answer: (d)

86. Note: In next two questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase.

‘A man of weight’:

1. A fat person
2. To truthful and trustworthy man
3. A man of importance
4. A notorious man.

Answer: (c)

87. ‘A fool’s paradise’:

1. Paradise of idiots
2. A state of happiness for foolish reasons
3. To live in the past
4. To remain in the state of any dreaming.

Answer: (b)

88. Note: In the next three questions, identify the correct indirect speech.

The policeman said to us, ‘where are you going’?

1. The policeman asked to us where we are going
2. The policeman told us where we were going
3. The policeman enquired where we were going
4. The policeman said where were we going.

Answer: (c)

89. ‘Call the first witness’, said the Judge.

1. The Judge asked for calling first witness
2. The Judge commanded them to call the first witness
3. The Judge said to call the first witness
4. The Judge requested to call for first witness.

Answer: (b)

90. She said to me, “I shall play now.”

1. She told me that she should play now
2. She told me that she should play then
3. She told me that she would play now
4. She told me that she would play then.

Answer: (d)

91. Note: In the next two questions mark the correct passive voice of the given sentence. Someone gave her a bulldog.

1. She was given a bulldog
2. A bulldog was given to her by someone
3. She has been given a bulldog
4. She is being given a bulldog by someone.

Answer: (b)

92. Mona was writing a letter to her father.

1. A letter was written to her father by Mona
2. A letter has been written to her father by Mona
3. A letter was being written by Mona to her father
4. A letter was written by Mona to her father.

Answer: (c)

93. Note: In the next three questions choose the correct option to fill in the blanks.

………. rich should help ……………….. poor.

1. A, a
2. The, a
3. The, an
4. The, the.

Answer: (d)

94. ……………. pupil should obey his teacher.

1. A
2. The
3. An
4. X.

Answer: (a)

95. Kalidas is ……………….. Shakespeare of India.

1. a
2. an
3. the
4. X.

Answer: (c)

96. What do you mean by ‘ACTUS CURIAE NEMINEM GRAVABIT’?

1. A personal right of action dies with the person
2. The law holds no man responsible for the act of God
3. An act of the court shall prejudice no man
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

97. Note: Identify the tense in the following sentence:

I am pleading for the preservation of trees.

1. Simple Present Tense
2. Past Tense
3. Present Continuous Tense
4. Past Continuous Tense.

Answer: (c)

98. Fill in the blank with correct form of verb:

My sister saw a snake while she …………….. in the garden.

1. was walking
2. walks
3. is walking
4. were walking.

Answer: (a)

99. “Pick up the correct synonym for the word:

STUBBORN:

1. Easy
2. Obstinate
3. Willing
4. Pliable.

Answer: (b)

100. Choose the word opposite in the meaning to the word:

ARBITRARY:

1. Dictatorial
2. Autocratic
3. High handed
4. Metodical.

Answer: (d)

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