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M.P. JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAMINATION - 2018 | PRELIMS PAPER

No. of Questions: 150
Time Allowed: 2 hours
Total Marks: 150

1. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?

1. Election Commission
2. NITI Ayog
3. GST Council
4. Interstate Council

Answer: 2

2. Under Indian Constitution Fundamental Duties enshrined under Article 51A does not includes the duty

1. To uphold and protect sovereignty of India
2. To defend the country when called upon to do so
3. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To protect monuments, places and objects of national importance

Answer: 4

3. Constitution of India:- The right of vote in India is –

1. Fundamental right
2. Natural right
3. Constitutional right
4. Legal right

Answer: 4

4. Which of the following is true and correct regarding Article 14 of the Constitution of India?

1. It forbids class legislation
2. It allows reasonable classification
3. Both it forbids class legislation and allows reasonable classification
4. None of these

Answer : 3

5. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India recognizes the “Doctrine of Double Jeopardy”?

1. Article 22(2)
2. Article 21(2)
3. Article 20(2)
4. None of these

Answer: 3

6. Constitution of Panchayats is given in -------- of Constitution of India.

1. Article 242-B
2. Article 243-O
3. Article 243-W
4. Article 243-A

Answer: 1

7. Constitution of India:- Protection and Improvement of Environment and safeguarding forest and wildlife is :

1. One of the Fundamental Duties
2. One of the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Both Directive Principles of State Policy and fundamental Duty
4. None of these

Answer : 3

8. Which among the following is not a fundamental right according to Constitution of India- (a) Right to equality (b) Right to freedom of religion (c) Right to constitutional remedies (d) Equal justice & free legal aid

1. (a), (b), & (c)
   
2. Only (a)
3. Only (d)
4. Only (b)

Answer : 3

9. Constitution of India:- Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

1. Organization of Village Panchayats.
2. Uniform Civil Code for citizens and non citizens.
3. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain case.
4. Separation of judiciary from executive.

Answer: 2

10. In preamble of the Constitution of India, the people of India have resolved to constitute India to:-

1. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
2. Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic and Republic
3. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic
4. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic and Republic

Answer: 3

11. Civil Procedure Code:- A decree for injunction if not obeyed:-

1. Is not executable
2. Is executable by detention of the judgment debtor in civil prison or by attachment of his property
3. Is executable by filing a petition under Order 39 Rule 2-A of the CPC
4. Is executable by filing a fresh suit

Answer: 2

12. Civil Procedure Code:- A decree for restitution of conjugal right is executable –

1. By attachment of property or by detention in Civil prison or by both
2. By attachment of property
3. By imprisonment
4. By granting a decree for divorce

Answer: 2

13. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the compromise under Order 23 Rule 3 of Civil Procedure Code/

1. Must be in writing and signed by the party
2. Must be in writing and need to be lawful agreement
3. It is required that subject matter of the compromise is the same as the subject matter of the Suit
4. A compromise which is voidable under the Indian Contract Act shall also voidable within the meaning of this Rule.

Answer: 3

14. Where a suit is dismissed under Rule 8 of Order 9 of the Civil Procedure Code in respect of same cause action the plaintiff –

1. Shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit
2. May bring a fresh suit subject to the law of limitation
3. May not apply to set aside the dismissal order
4. May bring a fresh suit

Answer: 1

15. Civil Procedure Code:- A decision or finding given by Court without jurisdiction –

1. Can operate as res judicata under all circumstances
2. Cannot operate as res judicata
3. Can operate as res judicata under certain circumstances only
4. May operate as res judicata or may not operate as res judicata

Answer: 2

16. Civil Procedure Code:- A suit for partition of properties situated in different cities –

1. Separate suits have to be filed in each of the cities where the properties are situated.
2. Can be instituted in a city where any property are situated.
3. Can be instituted in a city where majority of properties/property of maximum value is situated
4. Can be instituted where defendants or any of them resides.

Answer: 2

17. Under Section 148 of Civil Procedure Code the Court can enlarge the time not exceeding in total –

1. 90 days
2. 60 days
3. 45 days
4. 30 days

Answer: 4

18. Civil Procedure Code: A suit may be defeated due to -

1. Non-joinder of proper party
2. Misjoinder of necessary party
3. Non joinder of necessary party
4. Misjoinder of proper party

Answer: 3

19. Civil Procedure Code:- Suit against Government shall not be instituted until the expiration of –

1. one month next after notice in writing has been delivered.
2. Three month after notice in writing has been delivered.
3. two month after notice in writing has been delivered.
4. six months after notice in writing has been delivered.

20. Civil Procedure Code:- Principle of res judicata does not apply –

1. to Writ of Habeas Corpus
2. to Interlocutory Orders
3. to dismissal under Order 17 Rule 3
4. to ex parte judgement.

Answer: 1

21. Civil Procedure Code:- Which of the following is a right of civil nature –

1. right to share in offerings in a temple
2. right to take out procession
3. right to worship in a temple
4. all of these

Answer: 4

22. According to Order 20 Rule 7 of Civil Procedure Code the decree shall bear the date of

1. The day on which the judgment was pronounced
2. The day on which the decree was made
3. The day on which plaint was filed
4. The day on which final argument was heard

Answer: 1

23. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Order 22 of Civil Procedure Code on the same cause of action

1. fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the court
2. no fresh suit shall be brought
3. new suit may be filed if sufficient cause is shown
4. new suit may be instituted with the consent of parties

Answer: 2

24. Civil Procedure Code: The provision in respect of summary procedure has been laid down under

1. Order 32A of CPC
2. Order 29 of CPC
3. Order 34 of CPC
4. Order 37 of CPC

Answer: 4

25. Which Provision (Order) of Civil Procedure Code deals with production, impounding and return of documents?

1. Order 13 CPC
2. Order 5 CPC
3. Order 17 CPC
4. Order 24 CPC

Answer: 1

26. Transfer of Property Act:- Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding transfer of immovable property by gift?

1. instrument must be signed by or on behalf of the donor
2. instrument must be signed by donor only
3. instrument must be registered
4. instrument must be attested by atleast two witnesses.

Answer: 2

27. Transfer of Property Act: The attestation of document means:-

1. the attesting witness is aware of contents of the document
2. the attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark
3. received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of this signature
4. both the attesting witness seen the executant sign or affix mark and received from the executant a personal acknowledgement of his signature

Answer: 4

28. Transfer of Property Act: “Transfer of Property” does not include?

1. sale
2. lease
3. will
4. gift

Answer: 3

29. Transfer of Property Act:- The gift of future property is:-

1. Valid
2. Voidable
3. Void
4. Conditionally Void

Answer: 3

30. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act deals with the “effect of holding over a lease”?

1. Section 115
2. Section 115A
3. Section 116
4. Section 114A

Answer: 3

31. Transfer of Property Act:- The doctrine of lis pendens is explained in the famous case of –

1. Musahur Sahu versus Hakim Lal
2. Muhammad Shafi versus Muhammad Sayed
3. Tulk versus Moxhay
4. Bellamy versus Sabine

Answer: 4

32. Under Transfer of Property Act, if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee?

1. The gift is valid
2. The gift is void
3. The gift is voidable
4. None of these

Answer: 2

33. Indian Contract Act: - Which contract is specifically enforceable?

1. Contract by B to deliver a lecture of law at Jabalpur University
2. Contract of marriage
3. Contract by B with A to supply goods as of when A requires
4. None of these

Answer: 4

34. Indian Contract Act:- Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of –

1. Fraud
2. Misrepresentation
3. Undue influence
4. Free consent

Answer: 4

35. If only a part of the consideration or object is unlawful, the contract under sec. 24 of the Indian Contract, shall be-

1. Valid to the extent the same are lawful
2. Valid to the extent same are unlawful
3. Void as a whole
4. Valid as a whole

Answer : 3

36. Indian Contract Act: Two parties entered into contract. They later realized that there was a mistake in their understanding of law as applicable in India. This make their contract –

1. Non est
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. Not voidable

Answer: 4

37. Frustration of contract is provided by which Section of the Indian Contract Act?

1. 70
2. 2(d)
3. 56
4. 73

Answer: 3

38. Indian Contract Act:- Goods displayed in showcase of a shop with price tag –

1. Invitation to offer
2. Counteroffer
3. Communication
4. None of these

Answer: 1

39. Indian Contract Act:- 'A' enters into a contract with 'B' to sell him 100 bales of cotton, and afterwards discovers that 'B' was acting as agent for 'C'. For the price of the cotton 'A' may sue

1. Only against C
2. Only against B
3. Against B or C or both
4. Neither against B nor C

Answer: 3

40. Under Indian Contract Act, when does an agreement becomes a contract?

1. It is enforceable by law
2. It is between parties competent to contract
3. It is by the free consent of parties
4. All of these

Answer: 4

41. Specific Relief Act:- Where in any suit for specific performance of contract or any part thereof is dismissed, then suit for breach for compensation –

1. Is barred
2. Instituted with the permission of court
3. Can be brought
4. Permissible only in some circumstances

Answer: 1

42. Consider following facts regarding effect of declaration made under Section 34 of Specific Relief Act :-

1. Declaration is binding on the parties to the suit and persons claiming through them respectively.

2. Declaration binds all those persons who have knowledge of the suit and knowingly they do not become parties.

1. 1 is right
2. 2 is right
3. 1 & 2 both are right
4. 1 & 2 both are wrong

Answer: 1

43. Specific Relief Act – an injunction cannot be granted –

1. To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution of the suit in which injunction is sought unless such restraint is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of proceedings
2. To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
3. To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
4. All of these

Answer: 4

44. Specific Relief Act:- Plaintiff without having any title filed a Suit for permanent injunction against dispossession, based on long possession :

1. Because there is no title Plaintiff may be dispossessed
2. Law respects possession Plaintiff cannot be dispossessed except in accordance with law
3. Suit is not maintainable
4. Suit is not maintainable only for the relief of permanent injunction

Answer: 2

45. Specific Relief Act:- An injunction can be granted

1. To prevent on the ground of nuisance an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance
2. To prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiescence
3. To restrain the wrongfully sale of any property in dispute in a suit in execution of a decree
4. To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced

Answer: 3

46. Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, Specific Relief may be granted –

1. For enforcing civil rights
2. For enforcing a penal law
3. For enforcing both civil law and a penal law
4. For enforcing public rights

Answer: 1

47. Limitation Act: The period of limitation for a suit to compensation for malicious prosecution is :

1. 90 days
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 3 years

Answer: 3

48. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply to –

1. Suits
2. Execution petitions under Order 21 CPC
3. Petition for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act 1956
4. All of these

Answer: 4

49. Limitation Act: The period of limitation for preferring an appeal from a decree passed by a court subordinate to the High Court to a High Court from the date of the decree is:

1. 90 days
2. 60 days
3. 30 days
4. One year

Answer: 1

50. Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963 applies to –

1. Suits
2. Appeals
3. Executions
4. All these

Answer: 2

51. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:- Which one of the following option is correct regarding notice of increase of arrear of rent?
1. Notice must be given orally or in writing by landlord or on behalf of the landlord.
2. Notice may be given to tenant personally or to one his adult member of family or to his servant.

1. 1 is wrong, 2 is right
2. 2 is right, 1 is wrong
3. 1 & 2 both are right
4. 1 & 2 both are wrong

Answer: 1

52. M.P. Accommodation Control Act:- A Revision against a final order passed by the Rent Controlling authority on an application submitted by a retired government servant for eviction of his tenant, on the ground of bona fide requirement, shall be to –

1. The High Court
2. The Court of District Judge
3. The Civil Court
4. The Commissioner

Answer: 1

53. M.P Accommodation Control Act:- Member of the family do not include?

1. Spouse
2. Unmarried daughter
3. Unmarried sister
4. Married daughter

Answer: 4

54. M.P Accommodation Control Act:- After a notice of demand for arrears of rent has been served on tenant, he should pay or tender the arrears of rent, to save himself from eviction :

1. Within fifteen days
2. Within one month
3. Within two months
4. Within three months

Answer: 3

55. Under which provisions of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, penalties can be imposed on a landlord and tenant?

1. Section 42
2. Section 43
3. Section 44
4. Section 45

Answer: 2

56. M.P Land Revenue Code:- Who would decide the disputes regarding boundaries between villages, survey number and plot numbers?

1. Collector
2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Revenue Inspector
4. Tehsildar

Answer: 4

57. Where a Bhumiswami has been dispossessed unauthorisedly, he will make an application for restitution of possession under Section 250 of M.P. Land Revenue Code, before :

1. Tahsildar
2. Sub Divisional Officer
3. Collector
4. Revenue Inspector

58. M.P Land Revenue Code:- An application by party interested will be presented to Tehsildar for Demarcation of boundary of a survey number or of a sub division or of a plot number and construction of boundary marks thereon

1. Under section 124 M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959
2. Under Section 129 M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959
3. Under Section 127 M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959
4. Under Section 125 M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959

Answer: 2

59. The offence under Section 250-B of the M.P Land Revenue Code, 1959 is

1. Non-cognizable and bailable offence
2. Cognizable and non-bailable offence
3. Cognizable and bailable offence
4. Non-cognizable and Non-bailable offence

Answer: 2

60. Under M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959 which of the following matter is not in exclusive jurisdiction of revenue authorities?

1. Any claim to modify a decision determining abadi made by a Settlement Officer or Collector
2. The amount of Land Revenue assessed or reassessed under this Code or any other enactment for the time being in force
3. Any claim against the State Government to have any entry made in any land records or to have any such entry omitted or amended
4. Any dispute to which the State Government is not a party relating to any right which is recorded in the record of rights

Answer: 4

61. Indian Evidence Act: Extra Judicial Confession means a confession made.

1. Before Judicial Magistrate in court
2. Before Doctor
3. Before Friend
4. Both before Doctor & before Friend

Answer: 4

62. If an accused voluntarily consents for brain mapping and narco analysis, then such information is relevant under which section of Evidence Act?

1. Sec. 7
2. Sec.17
3. Sec.  27
4. Sec.  30

Answer: 4

63. Indian Evidence Act:- Identification of a suspect by photo is –

1. Not admissible in evidence
2. Admissible in evidence
3. The suspect must be present
4. Both, not admissible in evidence and the suspect must be present

Answer: 2

64. There is a charge upon ‘A’ committing a murder at Kolkata on a certain day. He takes plea that on that day he was at Mumbai. The statement of ‘A’ is relevant under which section of the Evidence Act?

1. Section 8
2. Section 9
3. Section 11
4. Section 14

Answer : 3

65. A dying declaration is relevant evidence under Section 32 of the Evidence Act notwithstanding it being hearsay evidence because –

1. A statement by a person as to the cause of his death is treated in law as a solemn statement
2. If a person is dead and anything said by the person as to the cause of death is relevant, since the dead person cannot be brought before the court to testify, necessity makes it inevitable to admit said statement
3. Because it is believed that a person would not meet his maker with lies in the mouth
4. Because society owes a duty to dead persons to give them justice

Answer: 2

66. Indian Evidence Act: The burden of proof in case of ‘plea of alibi’ is –

1. On the prosecution
2. On the accused
3. Investigation agency
4. None of these

Answer: 2

67. Indian Evidence Act: Defence of alibi is governed by –

1. Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
2. Section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act
3. Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
4. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act

Answer: 3

68. Indian Evidence Act: A witness may while under examination, refresh his memory by referring to any writing made by himself at the time of the transaction or soon afterwards. This provision is provided under –

1. Section 160
2. Section 158
3. Section 166
4. Section 159

Answer: 4

69. In the Indian Evidence Act, the conditions in respect of computer output to be deemed and admissible in evidence as document is contained in:

1. Section 65(B)(1)
2. Section 65(B)(2)
3. Section 65(B)(5)
4. Section 65(B)(4)

Answer: 2

70. Indian Evidence Act: Which of the following is not a competent witness?

1. Deaf
2. Minor
3. Mentally retarded
4. Dumb

Answer: 3

71. Under section 45 of Evidence Act Opinion of expert witness is –

1. A conclusive proof
2. Is not relevant
3. Is not admissible
4. Is not a conclusive proof

Answer: 4

72. Under Indian Evidence Ac, 1872 which one of the following is not essential condition for admissibility of dying declaration?

1. The statement as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death
2. Person making statement must be under expectation of death at the time of making such statement
3. Death of the person making dying declaration is must
4. The statement must be as to the cause of his death

Answer: 2

73. Under section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act the ‘fact discovered’ means –

1. The object produced only
2. The place from where the object is produced only
3. The knowledge of the accused as to the object and the place
4. None of these

Answer: 3

74. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for raising presumption in respect of an electronic record signature on the record which purports to be that of any particular person was so affixed by him, the record shall be –

1. 3 years old
2. 6 years old
3. 5 years old
4. 10 years old

Answer : 3

75. Test Identification parade conducted during investigation of a case is admissible in evidence under which of the Section of the Evidence Act?

1. Section 6
2. Section 7
3. Section 8
4. Section 9

Answer: 2

76. Under Section 34 of Indian Penal Code

1. Physical presence is necessary
2. Physical presence is necessary for participation but not in all cases
3. Physical presence is not necessary
4. Physical presence is necessary with common knowledge

Answer: 2

77. Indian Penal Code – Which one of the following option is incorrect –

1. All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa
2. All culpable homicide are murder
3. An intention to kill is not always necessary to make out a case of murder
4. Clause (c) of Section 299 is require knowledge of the probability of death

Answer: 2

78. Indian Penal Code: A lady wishing to get a railway ticket finding a crowd at ticket window at Station asked 'B' who was near Window to get a ticket for her and handed him over money for same. 'B' took money and instead of getting ticket ran away with money. What offence has been committed by 'B'?

1. Offence of theft
2. Offence of criminal misappropriation
3. Offence of criminal breach of trust
4. Offence of cheating

Answer : 3

79. Indian Penal Code:- A finds Rs. 2000/- note on public place. He has no idea as to whom the Rs. 2000/- note belongs. He picks up the note. A has committed –

1. Theft
2. Dishonest misappropriation of property
3. Attempt to theft
4. Has not committed any offence

Answer: 4

80. Indian Penal Code:- Uttering obscene words near a public place –

1. Is not an offence
2. Is an offence under section 294 IPC
3. Is an offence under section 290 IPC
4. Is an offence under section 292 (2)(b) IPC

Answer: 2

81. To convict a person for offence under sec. 306 I.P.C.

1. Ingredients of section 107 IPC are to be proved
2. Ingredients of section 107 IPC are not to be proved
3. Mere cruelty is sufficient
4. None of these

Answer: 1

82. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement

1. Section 340 IPC
2. Section 341 IPC
3. Section 342 IPC
4. Section 350 IPC

Answer: 3

83. Indian Penal Code - X Intended to kill A but instead killed B whom he had no intention to kill under which Doctrine is X liable for the murder of B

1. Doctrine of extended Malice
2. doctrine of mens rea
3. Doctrine of diminished responsibility
4. Doctrine of transfer of malice

Answer: 4

84. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions when consent is said to be not free consent?

1. Section 90
2. section 92
3. section 89
4. section 87

Answer: 1

85. Indian Penal Code: for an offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship the age of a girl must be

1. below 18 years
2. below 15 years
3. below 21 years
4. below 16 years

Answer: 1

86. Indian Penal Code - The right of private defence of the body

1. Commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues even after that apprehension ceases
2. Commences only when the assault is actually done and continues during the period of assault
3. commences only when the assault is actually done and continues even
4. Comments as soon as reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat to commit the offence and it continues as long as such apprehension of the danger to the body continues

Answer: 4

87. Indian Penal Code - which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Abettor’s liability is dependent on the liability of the principal offender
2. If the abettor is innocent the principle offender is also not liable
3. Abettor and principle offender may be differently liable for different offences
4. The principle offender must have the same guilty mind as that of the abettor

Answer: 3

88. Under Indian Penal Code which of the following amounts to defamation

1. To convey a caution intended for good of person, to whom conveyed or for public good
2. To make an imputation concerning a company or an Association or collection of persons as such
3. Censure passed in good faith by person having lawful authority over others
4. Publication of reports of proceedings of court

Answer: 2

89. Whoever kidnap or abducts any child with intention of taking dishonestly any movable property from the person of such child shall be punished under section 369 of IPC if the child is under

1. 10 years
2. 12 years
3. 14 years
4. 16 years

Answer: 1

90. According to Indian Penal Code any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet email or any other form of electronic communication commits the offence of

1. Voyeurism
2. Stalking
3. Watching
4. Searching

Answer: 2

91. Under what section of Criminal Procedure Code a magistrate may direct local investigation

1. Section 133
2. Section 145
3. Section 147
4. Section 139

Answer: 4

92. Criminal Procedure Code - How much punishment may be awarded to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial

1. Not exceeding three months
2. Not exceeding 6 month
3. Not exceeding 1 year
4. Not exceeding 2 years

Answer: 1

93. A confessional statement under section 164 of Criminal Procedure Code can be recorded

1. During the course of Investigation only and not afterwards
2. During the course of Investigation at any time afterwards on commencement of trial with the permission of court
3. During investigation as well as during inquiry but before commencement of trial
4. During the investigation inquiry or trial

Answer: 3

94. Criminal Procedure Code - In MP offence under section 363 IPC is triable by which court

1. Judicial Magistrate First Class
2. Chief judicial magistrate
3. Court of session
4. Chief metropolitan magistrate

Answer: 3

95. Criminal Procedure Code- If an offence under section 376 IPC is committed the information shall be recorded by women police officer under section

1. 154 CRPC
2. 155 CRPC
3. 156 CRPC
4. 157 CRPC

Answer: 1

96. Criminal Procedure Code- The magistrate of first class may pass a sentence

1. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or fine not exceeding 5000 rupees or both
2. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year or fine not exceeding 5000 rupees or both
3. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years or fine not exceeding 10000 rupees or both
4. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or unlimited fine or both

Answer: 3

97. Criminal Procedure Code imprisonment in default of payment of fine can be awarded

1. To run concurrently with substantive sentence imposed
2. In addition to the substantive sentence imposed
3. Court can condone it
4. None of these

Answer: 2

98. Procedure of arrest and duties of officer making arrest is provided in section ------ of Criminal Procedure Code

1. 41- B
2. 41- A
3. 41- D
4. 41 – C

Answer: 1

99. Criminal procedure Code - Court may alter charge

1. Only before evidence of prosecution is closed
2. Only Appellate Court may charge
3. Charge cannot be altered
4. At any time before judgment is pronounced

Answer: 4

100. Executive magistrate may require security for good behaviour from habitual offender under section ------ of Criminal Procedure Code

1. 109
2. 110
3. 106
4. 108

Answer: 2

101. Criminal Procedure Code - Magistrate may take cognizance of an offence on complaint if in his opinion-

1. there is sufficient ground for conviction
2. there is prima facie no probable defence of accused
3. accused is not innocent
4. there is sufficient ground for proceeding

Answer: 4

102. Victim is defined in section-------- of Criminal Procedure Code

1. 2(wa)
2. 2(u)
3. 2(d)
4. 2(v)

103. Under proviso to section 372 Criminal Procedure Code, victim has no right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the court

1. Acquitting the accused
2. Convicting for a lesser offence
3. Imposing inadequate compensation
4. Imposing inadequate sentence

Answer: 4

104. Under Criminal Procedure Code the period of limitation for taking cognizance of any offence shall be 3 years

1. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year but not exceeding 3 years
2. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years but not exceeding 7 years
3. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding 10 years
4. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not exceeding 10 years if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year
5. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year

Answer: 1

105. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under section 320 of Criminal Procedure Code is dead then-

1. Legal representatives of such person as defined in the code of criminal procedure 1973 can compound the offence with the permission of the court
2. Offence can be compounded by any alive eye witness
3. Offence cannot be compounded after the death of the person
4. Cannot be compounded after the death of the person legal representative of such person as defined in the Civil Procedure Code can compound the offence with the consent of the court.

Answer: 4

106. Which of the following section of Negotiable instrument Act is related with presumption

1. Section 119
2. Section 137
3. Section 139
4. All of these

Answer: 4

107. Negotiable Instruments Act - Whether a minor can draw, indorse, deliver and negotiate any instrument?

1. only when he can understand the consequence of it
2. Only when it is beneficial for him
3. Only when it is made with mutual consent of both parties
4. Yes he may do so as to bind all parties except himself

Answer: 4

108. Negotiable Instrument Act - When the cause of action accrue if the cheque issued by the drawer is dishonour?

1. On the date receipt of information by bank regarding the return of cheque as unpaid
2. On the date when the notice issued by the payee to the drawer
3. On the date drawer of cheque fails to make the payment of check amount to payee within 15 days from the receipt of demand notice
4. None of these

Answer: 3

109. Supreme Court has laid down certain directions to criminal courts for speedy and expeditious disposal of cases falling under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 in the case of-

1. Indian Bank Association and Ors v. Union of India
2. Rangappa v. Mohan
3. Associated Cement Company Limited v. Keshwanand
4. K. Bhaskaran v. S.V Balan

Answer: 1

110. Negotiable Instruments Act- in a recent case Supreme Court has held that where the cheque amount with interest and cost as assessed by the court is paid by a specified date the court is entitled to close the proceeding in exercise of its powers under section 143 of the Act read with Section 258 CrPC. That case is

1. M/s Meters and Instruments Pvt. Ltd. & Anr v. Kanchan Mehta
2. K.M Ibrahim v. K.P Mohammad and ors
3. Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayed Babalal H.
4. M.P State Legal Service Authority v. Prateek Jain

Answer: 1

111. An artificial satellite stage in the orbit around the earth because-

1. The earth's gravity does not attract the satellite due to great distance
2. The arts attraction produces the necessary centripetal force
3. The earth's attraction is balanced by the attraction of other planets
4. Engine in the satellite constantly applies an upward force to balance its weight

Answer: 2

112. Venus is considered as Earth's twin because

1. It's period of revolution is same as that of the earth
2. It has abundant amount of water
3. It has approximately same size and density as that of Earth
4. It completes one rotation on its axis in 24 hours

Answer: 3

113. Which among the following city of Madhya Pradesh is not included in the smart City project

1. Sagar
2. Satna
3. Ujjain
4. Rewa

Answer: 4

114. Lakshmi Bai National Institute of Physical Education is situated in

1. Narsinghpur
2. Bhopal
3. Gwalior
4. Indore

Answer: 3

115. AB blood group is also known as universal acceptor group because

1. It consists both antibodies
2. It consist neither antigen nor antibody
3. It does not consists both antigen
4. It does not consist both antibodies

Answer: 4

116. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on

1. 3rd December 1974
2. 3rd December 1984
3. 3rd December 1982
4. 3rd December 1986

Answer: 2

117. Pangong Tso Lake is situated in which state?

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Sikkim

Answer: 3

118. Davis Cup is related to which sport

1. Hockey
2. Tennis
3. Football
4. Cricket

Answer: 2

119. How many times Late Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister of India

1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 4

Answer: 2

120. Who was runner-up up of FIFA World Cup 2018?

1. France
2. Belgium
3. Croatia
4. England

Answer: 3

121. If you want to see crocodiles in the natural habitat then in which one place is best to visit?

1. Pulicat Lake
2. Chambal river
3. Deeper Bill
4. Betwa river

Answer: 2

122. In which district of Madhya Pradesh PATALKOT is located?

1. Hoshangabad
2. Chhindwara
3. Narsinghpur
4. Betul

Answer: 2

123. Which country is not a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?

1. USA
2. Russia
3. Germany
4. France

Answer: 3

124. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?

1. Indonesia
2. Japan
3. Malaysia
4. Libya

Answer: 4

125. Who has become the oldest Indian woman to complete an Iron Man Triathlon?

1. Anu Vaidyanathan
2. Deepa Malik
3. Heena Sidhu
4. Anju Khosla

Answer: 4

126. In March 1939 Indian National Congress met at annual session at Tripuri near

1. Aizawl
2. Kohima
3. Kolkata
4. Jabalpur

127. "Kalidas award" of M.P. government is not awarded in the field of-

1. Classical dance
2. Theatre and visual art
3. Literature
4. Classical music

Answer: 3

128. Who has been the first person who delivered his speech in Hindi in UNO?

1. Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
3. Vijayalakshmi pandit
4. Swami Vivekananda

Answer: 2

129. Who constructed the Sanchi stupa?

1. Gautam Buddha
2. Mahavira
3. Ashoka
4. Chandragupta

Answer: 3

130. Who was/were awarded the Bharat Ratna 2015

1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
2. Madan Mohan Malviya
3. Madan Mohan Malviya and Atal Bihari Vajpayee
4. None of these

Answer: 3

131. Which of the following is not an operating system

1. Unix
2. Linux
3. Java
4. MS-DOS

Answer: 3

132. 1 Petabyte is equal to

1. 1024 terabyte
2. 1024 gigabyte
3. 1024 zetabyte
4. 1024 yottabite

Answer: 1

133. Which of the following devices cannot be shared on a computer network?

1. Hard drive
2. Keyboard
3. CD drive
4. Printer

Answer: 2

134. In computers and digital technology 1GB is

1. 1024 MB
2. 1024 KB
3. 1024 TB
4. 1024 B

Answer: 1

135. Which of the following methods cannot be used for data transfer between two computers?

1. Hi-Fi
2. Wi-Fi
3. LAN cable
4. Memory stick

Answer: 1

136. TFT stands for?

1. Thin film transistor
2. Tele Fail thin
3. Tube full thin
4. Tax full total

Answer: 1

137. What is called the procedure for transfer of system file to memories RAM in computer?

1. Processing
2. Formatting
3. None of these
4. Booting

Answer: 3

138.Which is not a secondary storage device?

1. CD
2. RAM
3. DVD ROM
4. Floppy

Answer: 2

139. What is the full form of URL

1. Uniform resource locator
2. Uniform resource link
3. Uniform registered link
4. Uniform resource lab

Answer: 1

140. IC chips used in computers are made of

1. Silicon
2. Chromium
3. Lead
4. Silver

Answer: 1

141. I shall go and………down.

1. Lied
2. Lie
3. Lay
4. Layed

Answer: 2

142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to "CORDIAL".

1. Fast
2. Heartfelt
3. Friendly
4. Hostile

Answer: 4

143. Microscope makes small things up your larger than…….

1. Really are
2. Are really
3. Are they really
4. They really are

Answer: 4

144. find the correct spelt word

1. Assasination
2. Assinashion
3. Assacination
4. Assassination

Answer: 4

145. fill in the blank with correct preposition – I have no sympathy ….. this man.

1. To
2. For
3. From
4. With

Answer: 2

146. Word ---- expresses the opposite meaning of ‘susceptible’

1. Incredible
2. Immune
3. Predictable
4. Unpredictable

Answer: 2

147. Allowance due to a wife from husband on separation

1. Patrimony
2. Antimony
3. Parsimony
4. Alimony

Answer: 4

148. Find out the correct antonym for the word "Veracity"

1. Falsehood
2. Heinous
3. Ruined
4. Composed

Answer: 1

149. ……… the cover of darkness, the enemy crept

1. In, over
2. In. along
3. Under, up
4. Through, upon

Answer: 3

150. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning as the word "FORBID"

1. Forgive
2. Allow
3. Refuse
4. Deprive

Answer: 2

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