M.P. Judiciary Prelims Examination 2019 Solved Paper | Madhya Pradesh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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1. Which Article in the Constitution of India relate to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases?

A. Article 71

B. Article 72

C. Article 58

D. Article 74

2. Who decides a dispute regarding the election of the President of India?

A. Election Commission of India

B. Chief Justice of India

C. Parliament

D. Supreme Court

3. By which Amendment of the Constitution of India provisions regarding fundamental duties were inserted-

A. From 26th January 1950 since the enforcement of Constitution

B. Inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 11 (w.e.f 03-01-1977)

C. 46th amendment of the Constitution-2002, in Section 4

D. Inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section 12 (w.e.f 03-01-1977)

4. On proclamation of emergency under Article 352 the President has power to suspend the fundamental rights except the right secured by

A. Articles 19 and 20

B. Articles 20 and 21

C. Articles 21 and 22

D. Articles 19, 20 and 21

5. When the two houses of Parliament differ regarding a bill, deadlock is resolved by

A. a joint sitting of two houses

B. the President of India

C. the Prime Minister of India

D. Special Committee

6. Among below which case is not related to Constitutional Amendment?

A. Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India

B. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

7. _________ of the total number of members of Goods and Service Tax Council shall constitute the ‘Quorum’ at its meetings

A. One third

B. One fourth

C. Half

D. Two third

8. Disqualification on ground of defection would not apply in case of merger if not less than __________ of the members of the Legislature party concerned have agreed to such manner.

A. One fourth

B. One third

C. Half

D. Two third

9. The statement “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly” relates to the doctrine of-

A. Doctrine of pith and substance

B. Doctrine of implied power

C. Doctrine of severability

D. Doctrine of colourable legislation

10. How many schedules are there in Constitution of India?

A. 10 Schedules

B. 12 Schedules

C. 14 Schedules

D. 16 Schedules

11. The Supreme Court of India has laid down the law relating to Alternative Dispute Resolution processes and Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure in the case of-

A. Dinesh Kumar v. Yusuf Ali

B. Afcon Infrastructure Ltd v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co.

C. Bimlesh v. New India Assurance Co.

D. Standard Chartered Bank v. V. Noble Kumar

12. An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following Order(s):-

A. Rule 11, Order VII, rejecting the plaint

B. Rule 9, Order XXII, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suit

C. Rule 1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written

D. Rule 5 of Order XIV, refusing to strike out the issue at the instances of either of the parties

13. A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of:-

A. One month

B. Two months

C. Three months

D. Six months

14. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of CPC is:

A. To elucidate the matters in controversy in the suit

B. To record evidence

C. To secure admissions

D. None of these

15. Provision for setting aside ex-parte decree is -

A. Order 9 Rule 7

B. Order 9 Rule 9

C. Order 9 Rule 13

D. Order 9 Rule 8

16. Under Section 13 of Civil Procedure Code, a foreign judgment can be challenged on the grounds of-

A. Competency of court pronouncing the judgement

B. Being obtained by fraud

C. Sustaining a Claim founded on a breach of law enforce in India

D. All of These

17. Civil Procedure Code:- The provision of specific denial is provided:'

A. In Rule 2 & 4 of Order 8 of C.P.C

B. In Rule 1 & 6 of Order 8 of C.P.C

C. In Rule 3 & 5 of Order 8 of C.P.C

D. In Rule 7 & 9 of Order 8 of C.P.C

18. Civil procedure Code:- The Court Can issue a Commission for scientific investigation under:

A. Rule 10-A of Order 26 of CPC

B. Rule 10-B of Order 26 of CPC

C. Rule 10-C of Order 26 of CPC

D. Rule 11 of Order 26 of CPC

19. Under which provision of Civil Procedure Code an order of temporary injunction may be discharged varied or set -aside?

A. Rule 7 of Order 39

B. Rule 2A of Order39

C. Rule 9 of Order 39

D. Rule 4 of Order 39

20. Who has right to make an application for amendment of judgments and orders under Section 152 of C.P.C

A. Person aggrieved

B. Person aggrieved with permission of court

C. Any of the parties

D. Government Pleader

21. The court is required to appoint a guardian ad Litem

A. For a minor plaintiff only

B. For a minor defendant only

C. For plaintiff and defendant both

D. None of These

22. Where a suit is dismissed under Rule 2 Or Rule 3 of Order IX of Civil Procedure Code:-

A. Plaintiff is debarred from filing fresh suit

B. Only remedy with the plaintiff is to seek setting aside of such order

C. The only remedy is to bring fresh suit

D. Plaintiff may (subject to the law of limitation ) bring a fresh suit, or he may apply for an order to set the dismissal aside

23. At the stage of evidence counsel of plaintiff filed an application for adjournment which was rejected and suit was dismissed for want of evidence. Plaintiff has a remedy to file-

A. Fresh Suit

B. First Appeal

C. Application under Order 9, Rule C.P.C

D. Revision 

24. In execution proceeding before Trial court a person filed application under Order 21 Rule 97 C.P.C on ground that he was bonafide purchaser of suit property. His objection-

A. Is maintainable because he has bonafide purchaser

B. Is not maintainable because his lis pendens prohibits a party from dealing with property which is the subject matter of suit

C. Is maintainable because he has not filed independent suit

D. Can be heard only if parties permit

25. Legal provision for restoring to a party on the modification, variation or reversal of a decree what has been, lost to him in execution of decree or in direct consequence of decree is -

A. Application under Section 114 CPC

B. Application under Section 115 CPC

C. Application under Section 144 CPC

D. Appeal under Section 96 CPC

26. If the tenancy of an immovable property is monthly, then in order to terminate the lease of it, a notice of which period shall be given

A. One month

B. Two months

C. Six months

D. Fifteen days

27. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only, the transaction is called:-

A. Lease

B. Mortage

C. Sale

D. Exchange

28. Under Transfer of Property Act what property may be transferred?

A. A mere right to sue

B. Public office

C. The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate

D. Any property transfer of which is not barred by law

29. ‘A’ sells his house to ‘B’ with a condition that ‘B’ cannot transfer his house to any one except ‘C’. The sale is-

A. valid but condition is void

B. void

C. unlawful

D. voidable

30. 'A' make a gift of Rs 80000/- to 'B', But 'A' reserves right with 'B's consent to take back a pleasure Rs 30000/-. What will be legal status of gift?

A. gift is valid

B. gift is void

C. gift is voidable

D. gift is valid up to Rs 50000/-

31.'Subrogation’ is related to which section of Transfer of Property Act-

A. Section 54

B. Section 67

C. Section 100

D. Section 92

32. In which transaction no interest in the property is created?

A. Lease

B. License

C. Mortgage

D. Tenancy

33. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor:-

A. As soon as acceptance is made by the acceptor

B. When it is put in the course of transmission to the proposer

C. When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

D. None of These

34. Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their contract:-

A. illegal

B. void

C. voidable

D. none of these

35. An alternative promise, one branch of which is legal and other is illegal:-

A. Whole alternative promise can be enforced

B. Whole alternative promise cannot be enforced

C. Only legal branch of alternative promise can be enforced

D. None of these

36. A contract is not frustrated-

A. By Commercial hardship

B. By destruction of subject matter

C. Change of circumstances

D. Death or incapacity of party

37. Section 62 of Contract Act relates to the:-

A. Agency

B. Novation

C. Breach

D. Compensation

38. A agrees to sell to B a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. It turns out that before the day of the bargain the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost. Neither party was aware of these facts. The agreement is-

A. Voidable at the action of A

B. Voidable at the action of B

C. Void

D. Valid

39. Which of these precedents is related with 'Doctrine of Frustration'?

A. Satyabrat Ghose v. Mangiram Bangur

B. Hadley v. Baxindale

C. Carlil v. Carbolic Smokeball

D. Mohri B.B v. Dharmodas Ghose

40. If minor is supplied with necessaries-

A. Minor is personally liable

B. Minor is not liable

C. Minor's estate or property is liable

D. Minor is liable on becoming major

41. In a suit for injunction, under section 40 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, damages:-

A. cannot be awarded

B. can be awarded in addition to the injunction

C. can be awarded in lieu of the injunction

D. can be awarded either in addition to or in substitution for the injunction

42. Under Specific Relief Act 1963 power of court to engage experts is provided under which section:-

A. Section 20A

B. Section 14A

C. Section 20B

D. Section 20C

43. If a person is dispossessed from immovable property without due process of law, he has to file suit for possession-

A. Within three months

B. Within four months

C. Within twelve months

D. Within six months

44. Under Section 20C of Specific Relief Act for disposal of a suit, maximum period is provided for............?

A. 9 months

B. 18 months

C. 24 months

D. 36 months

45. Plaintiff has filed the suit for only declaration of title, though he is not in possession of suit property. The suit is barred under which provision of Specific Relief Act 1963?

A. Section 34

B. Section 35

C. Section 36

D. Section 37

46. Under Specific Relief Act, in which of the following cases, the Court cannot order rectification of instrument

A. Where the instrument through fraud does not express the real intention of the parties

B. Where the instrument through mutual mistake does not express the real intention of parties

C. Where the instrument is the articles of association of a company

D. Where the rectification of the instrument can be done without prejudice to the rights acquired by the third person in good faith and for value

47. Any other applications for which a limitation period has not been provided in the Limitation Act then the limitation period will be

A. Three years

B. Five years

C. Twelve years

D. Thirty years

48. Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not apply to:-

A. Suit

B. Appeal

C. Application

D. All of these

49. In computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application that day shall be excluded on which

A. Limitation period is to be computed

B. Judgment has been pronounced in appeal

C. The time requisite for obtaining a copy of the judgment

D. All of these

50. For the purpose of this act in a suit of pauper the suit shall be deemed to be instituted on the date......?

A. When application for leave to sue as a pauper is made

B. When application for leave to sue as pauper is allowed

C. When the suit is registered

D. It is the court to decide the date of institution

51. Under Section 13(2) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act, the fixing of provisional rent is necessary where the disputes relates to :

A. Arrears of rent only

B. Amount of rent

C. Arrears of rent and amount of rent both

D. Neither arrears of rent nor amount of rent

52. In case of composite tenancy of residential and non-residential purpose, landlord can seek eviction of tenant

A. By proving need for residential purpose

B. By proving need for residential purpose

C. By proving need for any purpose

D. By filing a suit under the special provision as contained in Section 20 of the Act

53. If a tenant fails to deposit or pay any amount as required u/s 13 of Accommodation Control Act

A. Court shall order to cost

B. Court shall pass decree against tenant

C. Court shall initiate punishment proceeding against defendant

D. Court may order the defence against eviction to be struck out

54. The tenant has, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, caused or permitted to be caused substantial damage to the accommodation. This ground for eviction is mentioned in:

A. Sec -12(1)(i)

B. Sec-12(1)(k)

C. Sec -12(1)(m)

D. Sec-12(1)(n)

55. What is wrong about appeal against the order of rent controlling authority?

A. it can be filled in the court of district judge

B. the decision of Appellate court shall be final

C. an appeal shall lie from every order of the rent controlling authority made under this Act

D. Limitation of filing appeal is 90 days excluding the period requisite for obtaining a copy of the order

56. Under Section 29 of the M P. Land Revenue Code who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one district to another?

A. State government

B. Revenue Board

C. Chief Secretary

D. Revenue Minister

57. Reinstatement of Bhumiswami improperly dispossessed can be made under which section of M P Land Revenue Code

A. Section 248

B. Section 250

C. Section 250-b

D. Section 253

58. Boundaries of all villages shall be fixed and demarcated by permanent boundary marks, is provided in-

A. U/s 121 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code

B. U/s 124 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code

C. U/s 125 of Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code

D. U/s 126 of Madhya Pradesh land revenue code

59. Failure to vacate land in favour of allottee of land would be an offence punishable with imprisonment for maximum period of -

A. 6 months

B. 1 year

C. 3 months

D. 3 years

60. Who will decide the disputes relating to demarcation and maintenance of boundary lines;-

A. Tahsildar

B. Subdivisional officer

C. Collector

D. Commissioner

61. Facts which though not in issue are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction, whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places?

A. are irrelevant

B. are relevant

C. partly relevant

D. None of these

62. FIR is not a substantive evidence, It can be used during trial

A. to corroborate the information

B. to contradict the information

C. to corroborate and contradict the information both

D. neither to corroborate nor to contradict the information

63. The opinion of expert may be obtained under section 45 of the Evidence Act in relation to

A. science, art, law, finger impression and handwriting/ signature

B. Science including medical matters, Art, law, finger impression, handwriting

C. Science including medical matters, Art, law, finger impression, handwriting /signatures

D. Science, art, foreign, law, finger impression and handwriting/signature

64. When the language used in document is on its face, ambiguous or defective, ............of facts which would show its meaning or supply its defects:-

A. evidence may be given

B. oral evidence may be given

C. documentary evidence may be given

D. evidence may not be given

65. Exception to the 'Hearsay rule' are provided in the Indian Evidence Act under

A. Sections 17 & 18

B. Sections  32 & 33

C. Sections 34 & 35

D. Sections 36 & 37

66. Which section of Indian Evidence Act provides that evidence shall be weighed not counted?

A. Section 132

B. Section 134

C. Section 130

D. Section 131

67. By which section of Indian Evidence Act 1872, the judge is empowered in order to discover or to obtain proper proof of relevant facts, ask any question in any form, at any time, of any witness, or of the parties, about any fact relevant or irrelevant?

A. Section166

B. Section167

C. Section 164

D. Section 165

68. Indian Evidence Act:-

The question is whether A committed a crime at Mumbai on a certain day? The fact on that day A was at Chennai is relevant under which provision of Indian Evidence Act

A. Section 9

B. Section 10

C. Section 11

D. Section 12

69. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court hold that compelling a person to give his specimen writing will not amount to testimonial compulsion for the purpose of Art 20(3) of the Constitution of India?

A. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu

B. Yousufali v. State of Maharashtra

C. State of UP v. Ram Sewak

D. Rohit Shekhar v. Ram Narayan Datt Tiwari

70. A non-confessional statement recorded under Section 164 of Cr PC-

A. is a substantive piece of evidence

B. is not a substantive evidence

C. may or may not be substantive evidence depending on the facts & circumstances

D. All of these

71. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness under examination gets the right to refresh his memory?

A. Section 158

B. Section 159

C. Section 160

D. Section 162

72. The principle of res-judicata is provided in which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act

A. Section 140

B. Section 40

C. Section 164

D. Section 160

73. A prosecutes B for stealing a cow from him. B is convicted. A afterwards, sues C for the cow, which B has sold to him before his conviction. What will be the importance of the judgment of B's conviction between the suit of A & C?

A. relevant

B. irrelevant

C. conclusive proof

D. none of these

74. Statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found is relevant-

A. Civil proceedings only

B. Criminal proceedings only

C. Neither in Civil nor in Criminal proceedings

D. Both Civil as well as Criminal proceedings

75. Which of the following could be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person?

A. Fir lodged by the person (deceased)

B. Statement of the person (deceased) recorded u/s 161 Cr.p.c

C. Statement of the person (Deceased) recorded by the executive magistrate

D. All of these

76. A kills C thinking C as B. A is guilty of offence punishable under section-

A. Section 301 I.P.C

B. Section 304 part 1 I.P.C

C. Section 302 I.P.C

D. Section 304 part 2 I.P.C

77. A police officer detains a person in the lockup despite production of a bail order from the court. The police officer is guilty of

A. Abduction

B. Wrongful Confinement

C. Wrongful Restrain

D. Kidnapping

78. 'Z ' is carried out by a tiger. ‘A’ Fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z. But not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z's benefit . A's bullets gives Z a mortal wound-

A. A has committed the offence of murder as the malice travels with the bullet

B. A has attempted to murder Z and wildlife animal the tiger

C. A has committed no offence

D. None of these

79. Under Indian Penal Code fabricating false evidence has been defined in

A. Section 191

B. Section 192

C. Section 193

D. Section 197

80. Which of the following is not an offence

A. Suicide

B. Murder

C. Preparation to dacoity

D. Attempt to murder

81. 'A' instigates 'B' to burn 'Z's house. 'B' sets fire of the home and the same time commits theft of the property there. ' A' is guilty of-

A. Abetting burning of ' Z's house only

B. Abetting burning of house and theft

C. Theft only

D. None of these

82. Which offence does not require of minimum number of 5 persons?

A. Rioting

B. Affray

C. Dacoity

D. None of these

83. Which one of these is not a mode of abetment under the Indian Penal Code?

A. Attempt

B. Aiding

C. Instigation

D. Conspiracy

84. 'Voyeurism' is punishable under section...... Indian Penal Code

A. 354 A

B. 354 B

C. 354 C

D. 376 A

85. 'A' sends a mobile phone to his friend through his servant 'B'. The servant took his phone at his house and used it over a period of time . 'B' is the guilty of offence of:

A. Theft

B. Criminal of misappropriation of Property

C. Criminal breach of trust

D. Cheating

86. 'Z' the doorkeeper of 'Y', is standing 'Y's doorway. 'A' commits house-trespass by entering the house, having deterred 'Z' from opposing him by threatening to beat him 'A' has committed?

A. House trespass

B. Criminal trespass

C. lurking house-trespass

D. House-breaking

87. Which section will be attracted if a public servant commits rape on a woman in his custody?

A. Sec. 376(2)(a) of IPC

B. Sec.376(2)(d)

C. Sec.376(2)(g)

D. Sec.376(2)(b)

88. Can a person commit a breach of trust for his own property?

A. Yes

B. No

C. It would depend on the facts of the case

D. It will depend upon discretion of the court

89. In which case Hon'ble Supreme Court has directed to pay minimum compensation of Rs 3,00,000/- per acid victim attack

A. Laxmi v. Union of India

B. Sujoy Mitra v. State of West Bengal

C. Vennagot Anuradha Samir v. Vennagot Mohandas Samir

D. Indra Vijay Alok v. State of Madhya Pradesh

90. The offence of Section 361 IPC is basically against?

A. family

B. society

C. any person

D. lawful guardian

91. The court after the commencement of prosecution evidence allow the assistant public prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution, the accused shall be

A. Released

B. Discharged

C. Acquitted

D. None of these

92. There shall be no appeal by convicted in the following

A. Where a magistrate of 1st class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one hundred rupees

B. Where a court of session passes only a sentence of imprisonment for term not exceeding three months

C. Where a High Court passes only a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months

D. All of these

93. If a person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the compounding

A. Cannot be done

B. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court

C. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court

D. None of these

94. If after the evidence, in the opinion of magistrate accused is guilty, in which he does not have the right to punish the accused with the maximum punishment prescribed for the offence, then under what section with written opinion he can submit his proceedings and forward the accused to the Chief judicial magistrate

A. Section 321 Cr. P.C

B. Section 322 Cr. P.C

C. Section 323 Cr. P.C

D. Section 325 Cr. P.C

95. Under Criminal Procedure Code in which section provision of security for good behaviour from habitual house breaker offenders is made-

A. Section 106

B. Section 107

C. Section 109 

D. Section 110

96. Statements recorded during investigations under section 161 Criminal Procedure Code by the police -

A. cannot be used for any purpose during the

B. can only be used for corroborating a witness

C. can only be used for contradicting a witness

D. none of these

97. Pardon may be tendered to an accomplice under section 306 Cr. P.C when-

A. he is not in the position to stand trial due to infirm health

B. he is declared insane

C. he undertakes to make full and true disclosure of the facts relating to the offence

D. All of these

98. Which of the section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that the person accused of an offence shall be a competent defence witness

A. Section 312

B. Section 313

C. Section 314

D. Section 315

99. If the succeeding judicial magistrate is that opinion of further examination of any of the witnesses whose evidence has already been recorded is necessary in the interest of justice he may re-summon any witness and after such examination, cross-examination and re-examination. If any as he may permit, the witness shall be discharged. This provision is mentioned under section......of Criminal Procedure Code.

A. Section 326

B. Section 325

C. Section 311

D. Section 319

100. What is minimum period of imprisonment for releasing on bail under Section of 436A of Criminal Procedure Code-

A. 1/4 of maximum period of imprisonment

B. 1/2 of minimum period of imprisonment

C. 1/3 of maximum period of imprisonment

D. No period is prescribed

101. If it appears to Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the court of session he under Section 202 Cr.P.C postponing the issue of process against the accused-

A. Shall commit the case to the court of session

B. May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer

C. Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his witness and examine them on oath

D. Shall return the complaint for presentation before the court of session

102. Plea bargaining is applicable to offences other than offence for which the punishment of death or imprisonment for a team exceeding ...... years has been provided

A. Seven years

B. Five years

C. Two years

D. Three years

103. Under Section 313 of Cr.P.C, the statement of the accused-

A. Will be recorded on the oath

B. Will be recorded without oath

C. Either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the court

D. Court can exempt from oath

104. Who can issue search warrant in respect of postal or telegraph authority?

A. District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate

B. Any civil court of competent jurisdiction

C. Revenue court of competent jurisdiction

D. Only High Court

105. In the Indian Constitution, Criminal procedure code is included in the

A. State list

B. Concurrent list

C. Union list

D. Residuary list

106. The maximum amount which may be awarded as interim compensation under section 143A of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 is-

A. 10 percent of the amount of cheque

B. 20 percent of the amount of cheque

C. 30 percent of the amount of cheque

D. 40 percent of the amount of cheque

107. Under Section 97 of Negotiable Instruments Act when the party to whom notice of dishonour is dispatched is dead, but the party dispatching the notice is ignorant of his death, then-

A. The notice is insufficient

B. The notice is sufficient

C. Notice shall be given to legal representative

D. None of these

108. According to Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, Which is not a "negotiable instrument"?

A. Instrument of Debt

B. Promissory Note

C. Bill of exchange

D. Cheque

109. Which of the following presumption is prescribed u/s 118 Negotiable Instruments Act?

A. of consideration

B. as to date

C. as to time of acceptance

D. all of these

110. In which section of Negotiable Instruments Act "holder in due course" is defined?

A. Section 7

B. Section 10

C. Section 9

D. Section 13

111. Who was the first known Gupta ruler?

A. Shrigupta

B. Chandragupta

C. Ghatotakacha

D. Kumargupta-I

112. Which country is the leading producer of coconut?

A. India

B. Indonesia

C. Malaysia

D. Thailand

113. Parkinson's disease relates to?

A. Nervous system

B. Bones

C. Eyes

D. Chest

114. Jamshed-e-Navroz festival is celebrated by

A. by Sikh community

B. by Hindu community

C. by Buddha community

D. by Parsi community

115. Pulitzer Prize is given in the field of-

A. music

B. game

C. journalism

D. chemistry

116. Blood corpuscles are formed in the -

A. liver

B. kidney

C. small intestine

D. bone marrow

117. Which of the following is known as the Morning Star?

A. Mars

B. Venus

C. Jupiter

D. Saturn

118. As per the newspaper reports Government of India has finally agreed to purchase advanced MRMRs for its naval forces. What are these MRMRs?

A. Aircrafts

B. Warships

C. Submarines

D. Radar system

119. Iodine test is used to detect

A. Cholesterol

B. Fat

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate

120. Who is the recipient of 2018 Nobel Prize for literature

A. James P Alisan and Nadia Murad

B. Francois Jacob and Andrew Z Fire

C. Jacques Monod and George P Smith

D. None of these

121. Raja Bhoj is related with the dynasty of?

A. Parmar

B. Gupta

C. Chola

D. Chalukya

122. Who is the recipient of the national Kalidas Samman in the year 2018?

A. Anupam Kher

B. Anjolie Ela Menon

C. Abhijeet Bhattacharya

D. Raj Bisaria

123. The words "Satyameva Jayate" inscribed in Devnagri script below the state emblem of India taken from?

A. Yajurveda

B. Rigveda

C. Samveda

D. None of these

124. Indian origin Harjit Sajjan has been sworn as an defence minister of which country?

A. Australia

B. Mauritius

C. Canada

D. Singapore

125. Under whose chairmanship the 15th Finance Commission has been constituted by the union government?

A. Arvind Mehta

B. Ramesh Chandra

C. Shaktikanta Das

D. N.K Singh

126. DNA fingerprinting was developed by?

A. Dr. Allec Jefferey

B. James Watson

C. Francis Crick

D. Friedrich Miescher

127. The date on which full Constitution of India came into force

A. 26 November 1949

B. 15 August 1947

C. 8 August 1945

D. None of these

128. Bansagar project is situated on which river?

A. Sone

B. Narmada

C. Chambal

D. Ken

129. Who was the youngest revolutionary to be awarded death sentence?

A. Khudiram Bose

B. Bhagat Singh

C. Sukhdev

D. Rajguru

130. Which lie on either side of the McMahon line-

A. Pakistan and Afghanistan

B. North Korea and South Korea

C. France and Germany

D. India and China

131. What type of device is a computer printer?

A. Input

B. output

C. storage

D. none of these

132. When you save to .........your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off?

A. RAM

B. Motherboard

C. Secondary storage device

D. Primary storage device

133. A.I. in computer field means?

A. Air India

B. Antemortem injury

C. Artificial intelligence

D. None of these

134. You can use ....... to copy select text, and.....to paste it in a document.

A. CTRL+C, CTRL+V

B. CTRL+ C, CTRL+P

C. CTRL+S, CTRL +S

D. SHIFT+C, ALT +P

135. Which command is used to add a new slide in a presentation in PowerPoint?

A. Ctrl+N

B. Ctrl+M

C. Ctrl+O

D. Ctrl+D

136. Computer language JAVA was developed by?

A. IBM

B. Microsoft

C. Infosystem

D. Sun microsystem

137. A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to another person's computers to get information illegally or to do a damage is a?

A. Spammer

B. Hacker

C. Programmer

D. Analyst

138. Which of the following compromise the input device

A. Keyboard

B. Mouse

C. Both keyboard and mouse

D. None of these

139. Which of the following lies within the CPU?

A. primary memory

B. Secondary memory

C. mouse

D. keyboard

140. In computing, 1 nibble is equal to....?

A. 4 bit

B. 4 bytes

C. 8 bytes

D. 4 kilo bytes

141. One who walks in sleep is-

A. hypocrite

B. imposter

C. somnambulist

D. sarcastic

142. Identify the sentence which is not written in passive voice

A. Utmost care has to be taken

B. Being a student you must work hard

C. He was being chased

D. The case has been aside by the court

143. One who looks without participating means-

A. Snoozing

B. Sleeping

C. Blindfold

D. onlooker

144. Synonyms of Lethal-

A. unlawful

B. deadly

C. sluggish

D. Smooth

145. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Corrigendum

B. Corigendum

C. Corringdum

D. Corrindum

146. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase- "Spick and span"?

A. to have a double policy

B. unsafe and unattended

C. neat and clean

D. to remain undecided

147. Give the synonyms of the word Abstruse-

A. visible

B. hidden

C. clear

D. suitable

148. Reckless is to rash what anomalous is to -

A. unsatisfactory

B. deviant

C. harsh

D. ancestor

149. The jury was able to see through the ........ arguments of the defence lawyers"

A. Stoic

B. Cynic

C. Specious

D. Precious

150. The term used for " killing ones brother is"

A. Suicide

B. Fratricide

C. Patricide

D. Matricide

Answers

1. B

2. D

3. B

4. B

5. A

6. D

7. C

8. D

9. D

10. B

11. B

12. B

13. C

14. A

15. C

16. D

17. C

18. A

19. D

20. C

21. B

22. D

23. C

24. B

25. C

26. D

27. D

28. D

29. A

30. D

31. D

32. B

33. C

34. B

35. C

36. A

37. B

38. C

39. A

40. C

41. D

42. B

43. D

44. B

45. A

46. C

47. A

48. A

49. D

50. A

51. B

52. C

53. D

54. B

55. D

56. B

57. B

58. B

59. D

60. C

61. B

62. C

63. D

64. D

65. B

66. B

67. D

68. C

69. A

70. B

71. B

72. B

73. B

74. D

75. D

76. C

77. B

78. C

79. B

80. A

81. A

82. B

83. A

84. C

85. C

86. D

87. D

88. A

89. A

90. D

91. C

92. D

93. C

94. D

95. D

96. C

97. C

98. D

99. A

100. B

101. C

102. A

103. B

104. A

105. B

106. B

107. B

108. A

109. D

110. C

111. A

112. B

113. A

114. D

115. C

116. D

117. B

118. A

119. D

120. D

121. A

122. B

123. D

124. C

125. D

126. A

127. D

128. A

129. A

130. D

131. B

132. C

133. C

134. A

135. B

136. D

137. B

138. C

139. A

140. A

141. C

142. A

143. D

144. B

145. A

146. C

147. B

148. B

149. C

150. B