UGC NET Law Exam December 2023 - UGC NET Paper I & II
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UGC NET (Law) Paper I
Comprehension:
The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by six different students in six different subjects A-F of MCA programme in a university, along with the maximum marks in each subject (shown in brackets). Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.
Student-wise Percentage of Marks in Six Subjects
|
Students |
Subjects (Maximum Marks) | ||||||
| A (150) | B (100) | C (150) | D (125) | E (75) | F (50) | ||
| Anil | 66% | 75% | 88% | 56% | 56% | 90% | |
| Arman | 82% | 76% | 84% | 96% | 92% | 88% | |
| Arpit | 76% | 66% | 78% | 88% | 72% | 70% | |
| Gaurav | 90% | 88% | 96% | 76% | 84% | 86% | |
| Gurjit | 64% | 70% | 68% | 72% | 68% | 74% | |
| Priya | 48% | 56% | 50% | 64% | 64% | 58% | |
Sub Question No: 1
Q.1 How many marks did Anil get in all the six subjects together?
[1] 369
[2] 463
[3] 558
[4] 496
Sub Question No: 2
Q.2 What is the difference between the average marks obtained in subjects A and E by all six students together?
[1] 48
[2] 2.50
[3] 3.52
[4] 54
Sub Question No: 3
Q.3 If M and N represent the average marks obtained by all six students together in subjects C and E respectively, then (M, N) = ___________.
[1] (112, 56.5)
[2] (114, 55)
[3] (115, 56)
[4] (116, 54.5)
Sub Question No: 4
Q.4 Total marks obtained in all the six subjects together is more than 490 by exactly ________ students.
[1] two
[2] three
[3] four
[4] five
Sub Question No: 5
Q.5 Marks obtained by Gaurav are _________% more than that of Gurjit in all the six subjects together. (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
[1] 27.35
[2] 24.52
[3] 29.45
[4] 28.15
Q.6 ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at 20% profit, ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at 15% loss. If ‘C’ pays Rs 510 for it, then ‘A’ purchased it at:
[1] Rs 480
[2] Rs 490
[3] Rs 500
[4] Rs 520
Q.7 Given below are two statements:
Statement I : (0.5625)10 = (0.9)16
Statement II : (0.3) 10 = (0.4BBB.....)16
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement 11 is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement 11 is correct
Q.8 Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Through feedback, students can later critique their own communication competence outside the classroom.
Statement II : Motivational orientation towards communication should be identified by teachers to better the communication competence of the students.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement 11 is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement 11 is correct
Q.9 Which of the following universities were established in the same year of 1916?
(A) Bombay University
(B) Banaras Hindu University
(C) Mysore University
(D) S.N.DT Women University
(E) Punjab University
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[2] (B), (C) and (D) only
[3] (D) and (E) only
[4] (A), (C) and (E) Only
Q.10 All forms of communication are evaluated in relation to :
[1] Face to face communication
[2] Radio transmission
[3] Television entertainment
[4] Internet usage
Q.11 Rs 3080 is divided among A, B and C so that half of A's part, one third of B's part and one sixth of C's part are equal. Then B's part is
[1] Rs 840
[2] Rs 960
[3] Rs 1080
[4] Rs 720
Q.12 Which of the following acronyms is incorrectly matched with its expanded form?
[1] IMPRINT - Impacting Research, Innovation and Technology
[2] BHIM - Bharat Interface for Money
[3] UMANG - Unified Mobile Application for New Age Generation
[4] PayTM - Pay Through Mobile
Q.13 If the average of 10 numbers is 40 and the average of six of them is 28, then the average of the remaining four numbers is :
[1] 52
[2] 54
[3] 56
[4] 58
Q.14 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Increasingly, photovoltaic panels are being used to supplement electrical energy from the power grid.
Statement II : The compatibility of photovoltaic panels with power grid is also because it produces Direct Current (DC).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement 11 is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement 11 is correct
Q.15 When watching videos from a website using streaming technology, which of the following will be involved?
(A) DNS
(B) FTP
(C) IP
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A), (B) and (C)
Q.16 Arrange the following terms in order of increasing abstractness:
(A) Mobile Telephone
(B) Android Phone
(C) Communication device
(D) Telephone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] B, A, D, C
[2] B, D, A, C
[3] C, D, A, B
[4] C, A, B, D
Q.17 "All phenomena in the universe are saturated with moral values. Therefore, we can conclude that the universe for the Chinese is a moral universe". Which informal fallacy is committed in the above statement?
[1] Slippery Slope
[2] Begging the Question
[3] Hasty Generalisation
[4] Fallacy of Composition
Q.18 "When competent readers encounter new sentences in their native language, they read them automatically" is an example of learning ?)
[1] High-road transfer
[2] Near transfer
[3] Low-road transfer
[4] Far transfer
Q.19 Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement "All beverages are liquid"?
[1] All non-liquids are non-beverages.
[2] Some beverages are liquid.
[3] All liquids are beverages.
[4] Some liquids are beverages.
Q.20 Which learning style involves the extent to which students approach learning materials in a way that helps them understand the meaning of the materials:
[1] Surface styles
[2] Impulsive styles
[3] Deep styles
[4] Reflective styles
Q.21 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Edmodo (online tool) helps teachers to stay in touch with parents, share updates and discuss student progress.
Statement II: Duolingo is an online language learning platform.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.22 Which of the following arguments is fallacious, as per classical Indian school of logic, because of the middle term being too narrow?
[1] All things are non-eternal because they are knowable
[2] The hill has fire because it is knowable
[3] Sound is eternal because it is audible
[4] Wherever there is fire, there is smoke
Q.23 Match List - I with List – II.
| List – I (Hazard related term) (A) Risk (B) Exposure (C) Vulnerability (D) Response | List – II (Description) 1. Actions to mitigate losses 2. Frequency of events causing losses 3. Magnitude of population and structure at risk 4. Degree of preparedness |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
[2] A-III, B-II, C-IV, D- I
[3] A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
[4] A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Q.24 What will be the values of P and Q in the following number series?
2, 0, 6, 6, 12, 24, P, Q, ………
[1] 48, 96
[2] 20, 60
[3] 12, 120
[4] 48, 50
Q.25 The policy of privatisation of higher education began with the introduction of:
[1] Fourth five-year plan
[2] Sixth five-year plan
[3] Eighth five-year plan
[4] Tenth five-year plan
Q.26 Which of the following correctly represents the meaning of the abbreviation "ante" used in academic writing?)
[1] anonymous
[2] before
[3] after
[4] and others
Q.27 In self-directed learning, metacognitive knowledge includes:
(A) Contextual knowledge
(B) Factual knowledge
(C) Procedural knowledge
(D) Technological knowledge
(E) Practical knowledge
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (D) and (E) only
[2] (C) and (D) only
[3] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[4] (B) and (D) only
Q.28 The Greek rhetorical communication emphasised on the elements of :
(A) Delayed feedback
(B) Lower class language
(C) Logos
(D) Ethos
(E) Pathos
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[2] (B), (C) and (D) only
[3] (A), (B) and (D) only
[4] (C), (D) and (E) only
Q.29 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The detrimental impacts of air pollution are not limited to human health only.
Statement II: Fluorine emitted in the air from various industrial processes has significant phytotoxicological effects.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.30 Match List I with the List II
| List I (Question)
| List II (Answers) 1. 13 2. 20 3. 1 4. 15 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[2] A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
[3] A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
[4] A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q.31 Given below are two statements in the context of digital technologies for entertainment:
In virtual reality, images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life
Statement I: objects or surroundings.
Statement II : In augmented reality, a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.32 Arrange the following in correct sequence according to APA style of referencing :
(A) Title of the research article
(B) Year of publication
(C) Name of journal
(D) Name of author
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1] A, B, C, D
[2] A, C, D, B
[3] D, A, C, B
[4] D, B, A, C
Q.33 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: If big corporate houses establish universities in India, quality professional training and education can be given to students.
Statement II: It is expected that universities and institutes established by corporate houses will be world leaders in education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.34 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Rising nutrient levels in a lake change the numbers and types of biota present there.
Statement II: Eutrophic lakes normally have clear water and contain little biomass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.35 The idea of a national education system in India could get a fillip with the transfer of control of education in 1921 to :
[1] The British Viceroy
[2] Indian ministers of provinces
[3] The Christian missionaries
[4] European elite
Q.36 Which of the following media is often described as 'one day best seller'?
[1] Radio
[2] Internet
[3] Novel
[4] Newspaper
Q.37 Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
(A) No metals are gases
(B) No gases are metals
(C) No metals are non-gases
(D) All metals are non-gases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) and (D) only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) only
[3] (B), (C) and (D) only
[4] (A) and (B) Only
Q.38 Identify the software used for detecting plagiarism:
(A) Mendley
(B) Turnitin
(C) Compiler
(D) Ithenticate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A) and (B) Only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) only
[3] (A), (B) and (D) only
[4] (B) and (D) only
Q.39 Which one of the following types of assessments would be most beneficial for assessing a student’s ability to debate?
[1] Formative Assessment
[2] Summative Assessment
[3] Ipsative Assessment
[4] Performance Assessment
Q.40 In air pollution, oxides of nitrogen (NOx) include:
(A) Nitric oxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) Di-nitrogen trioxide
(E) Di-nitrogen pentaoxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[2] (A) and (C) Only
[3] (B), (C) and (D) Only
[4] (D) and (E) Only
Q.41 If you wish to test whether population mean is lower than some hypothesized value, you would apply :
[1] one-tailed test
[2] two-tailed test
[3] half-tailed test
[4] three-tailed test
Q.42 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When passive defence systems are encouraged, a defensive response will resist
attitudinal change, if we apply the inoculation theory of communication.
Statement II : A strong dose of argument will strengthen the receiver's immune system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement III is correct
Q.43 Science education in India was first started in Calcutta in 1817 at :
[1] Surendranath College
[2] Ashutosh Mukherjee College
[3] St Xavier College
[4] Hindu College
Q.44 A person travels 365 km in 8 hours in two stages. In the first part of the journey, he travels by bus at the speed of 40 km/hour and in the second part of the journey, he travels by train at the speed of 55 km/hour. How much distance did he travel by train?
[1] 165 km
[2] 170 km
[3] 200 km
(4) 164 km
Q.45 Which of the following approaches to the analysis of content is based on the study of signs?
[1] Semiotics
[2] Ethnography
[3] Content Analysis
[4] Quantitative Research
Question 46-50
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Animals communicate with one another in many interesting ways. These may consist of signs, gestures, looks, sounds, smells or even light produced by the body. Song and dance are the other means of communications. When faced with danger, animals warn others using signals such as mock charges, grimaces or sound. They also call their mates, inform other members of the group about the source of food, advertise territory and 'teach' the young the ways of the world. Baby birds call their parents for help and attention and demand food. Far from being a silent world, the ocean is a noisy place. Fishes, molluscs, sea lions, walruses, whales and dolphins chatter away in the waters using a variety of sounds-whistles, squeaks, clicks and groans which range from low pitch to ultrasonic sounds beyond the range of human hearing. Whales and dolphins are sometimes called the 'musicians of the sea' as birds are of the sky.
Sub Question No: 46
Q.46 'Ultrasonic sounds' are sounds which are :
[1] Liked by humans
[2] Audible to humans
[3] Disliked by humans
[4] Inaudible to humans
Sub Question No: 47
Q.47 The musicians of the sky are :
[1] Walruses
[2] Animals
[3] Dolphins
[4] Birds
Sub Question No: 48
Q.48 What are the various ways in which animals communicate with one another?
(A) Song and dance
(B) Speech
(C) Signs
(D) Sounds
(E) Words
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (C), (D) and (E) only
[2] (A), (B) and (E) only
[3] (A), (C) and (D) only
[4] (A) and (B) Only
Sub Question No: 49
Q.49 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Sharks and crocodiles are called the musicians of the sea.
Statement II: Baby birds cannot express their needs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement 11 are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement 11 is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement 11 is correct
Sub Question No: 50
Q.50 Animals use sounds to :
(A) Advertise territory
(B) Warn of dangers
(C) Call their mates
(D) Invite their enemies
(E) Inform others about source of food
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (B), (C) and (D) only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) only
[3] (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
[4] (D) and (E) only
UGC NET (Law) Paper II
Q.51 A Muslim can make a bequest of his property without the consent of heirs to the extent of :
[1] half of his property
[2] whole of his property
[3] one-fourth of his property
[4] one-third of his property
Q.52 "Consideration is not necessary for creation of Agency" This is provided in :
[1] Section 185 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
[2] Section 4 of the Partnership Act, 1932
[3] Section 4 of the Indian Agency Act, 1950
[4] Section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013
Q.53 Mens rea does not include:
[1] Intention
[2] Knowledge
[3] Reason to believe
[4] Motive
Q.54 Consider the following statement :
(A) Fundamental rights are expressly provided in the US Constitution
(B) Restrictions on fundamental rights are expressly provided in the US Constitution
(C) Fundamental rights and Human Rights are same in India
(D) Directive principles in Indian Constitution are not enforceable by courts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (C), (D) Only
[2] (A), (D) Only
[3] (A), (B), (C) and (D)
[4] (A), (B), (D) Only
Q.55 Arrange the following in the chronological order of its sequence in the Patents Act:
(A) Consequence of secrecy directions
(B) Grant of patent
(C) Date of patent
(D) Term of patent
(E) Rights of patentee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] C, E, B, D, A
[2] B, C, E, D, A\
[3] A, B, C, E, D
[4] B, E, D, A, C
Q.56 As per the Partnership Act, 1932 "Partnership" is defined under:
[1] Section 8
[2] Section 7
[3] Section 5
[4] Section 4
Q.57 Match List - I with List - II.
| List - I Case
| List - II Year of Reporting
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given:
[1] A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
[2] A-IV, B-II, C- IV, D-I
[3] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[4] A-III, B-II, C-1V, D-I
Q.58 Art. 163 of the Constitution of India says that there shall be a Council of Ministers along with Chief Minister to aid and advise the Governor in exercise of his functions except so far he is required by the Constitution to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. Under what circumstances can Governor be called to exercise his discretion?
(A) Appointment of Chief Minister
(B) Dismissal of ministry or Dissolution of Assembly
(C) Submitting report to President for proclamation under Art. 356
(D) Appointment of High Court judges
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) only
[2] (B), (C), (D) only
[3] (D), (C), (A) only
[4] (D), (A), (B) only
Q.59 Match List - I with List - II
| List -I Case
| List - II Issue/Concept/Principle
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
[2] A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
[3] A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
[4] A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Q.60 With respect to which of the following kinds of IPR, there exists a statutory ban for assignment?
[1] Patents
[2] Trademarks
[3] Geographical Indication
[4] Layout Designs of Integrated Circuits
Q.61 All sums realised by way of penalties under the Competition Act, 2002 are credited to :
[1] Competition Fund
[2] Consolidated Fund of India
[3] Finance Account of Ministry of Commerce
[4] PM Relief Fund
Q.62 Which of the following is part of the first generation of Human Rights?
(A) Right to Social Security
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Equality Before Law
(D) Right to Self-determination
(E) Right to life
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (D) only
[2] (B), (C), (E) only
[3] (C), (D), (E) only
[4] (A), (E) only
Q.63 Art. 19 of the Constitution of India is automatically suspended if the proclamation of Emergency is declared on the grounds of :
(A) War
(B) External aggression
(C) Armed rebellion
(D) Failure of Constitutional machinery in the state
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) only
[3] (A), (B), (C) and (D)
[4] (A), (C) and (D) only
Q.64 A Hindu male having a Hindu wife, changed his religion and adopts Islam in 2012. He marries again to a Muslim girl in 2013. In 2014, his Hindu wife died. His second marriage is :
[1] Valid as he married after conversion to Islam which permits bigamy
[2] Valid as his wife died after his marriage to Muslim girl
[3] Void as he has not taken the consent of his Hindu wife
[4] Void as his second marriage amounts to bigamy
Q.65 Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) In S.S. Lotus case, the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ) defined International Law as "principles which are in force between all independent nations"
(B) Professor Dias suggests that International law can never be called a 'Law'
(C) Lord Halsbury, when he was the Prime Minister of England, once remarked, "It was a misnomer to call international law as 'Law'. It should be better described as a branch of ethics"
(D) Russel has defined International Law as "the aggregate of the rules to which the nations have agreed to conform to their conduct towards one another"
(E) According to Austin, International law is set and enforced by political sovereign authority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[2] (A), (C) and (D) only
[3] (B), (C) and (E) only
[4] (B), (D) and (E) only
Q.66 Arrange the following cases relating to advice/direction of the Supreme Court to the State to enact a uniform civil code in the chronological order (advice earlier to later) of their pronouncement :
(A) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(B) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
(C) ABC v. State (Ncr of Delhi)
(D) Jorden Diengdeh v. SS. Chopra
(E) John Vallamattom v. Union of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, B, C, D, E
[2] B, D, A, E, C
[3] A, D, B, E, C
[4] E, D, C, B, A
Q.67 Arrange the following cases in sequence of their year of verdict:
(A) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(B) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
(C) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] B, D, C, A
[2] A, B, C, D
[3] C, D, B, A
[4] A, D, B, C
Q.68 As per National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, "Environment" includes water, air and land and other interrelationships, which exists among and between water, air and land and human beings, other living creatures, plants, microorganism and ___________.
[1] Ecosystem
[2] Biodiversity
[3] Property
[4] Climate
Q.69 Match List - I with List - II
| List - I UN days relating to IPR and Biological Diversity
| List - II Days
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
[2] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
[3] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[4] A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q.70 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mahr (dower) is a sum of money which the Muslim husband agrees to pay to the wife as a mark of respect for her for agreeing to marry him. Since Muslim marriage is a contract, it is necessary that dower must be specified at the time of marriage and if it is not specified it can be presumed.
Reason (R) : If not paid earlier, Mahr become due on death of the husband or the dissolution of marriage by divorce
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Q.71 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Highly developed legal systems strive to create an autonomous apparatus of legal concepts, legal techniques, and legal norms
Reason (R): Law needs to be endowed with logical consistency, predictability and stability
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Q.72 The General Assembly of the United Nations passed the Uniting for Peace Resolution on :
[1] December 10, 1948
[2] August 1, 1950
[3] August 31, 1965
[4] November 3, 1950
Q.73 Arrange following cases in sequence of year they were decided :
(A) Ashbyry Rly Carriage Co. Ltd. v. Riche
(B) Royal British Bank v. Turquand
(C) Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
(D) State Trading Corporation of India Ltd. v. CTO, Vishakhapatnam
(E) Salomon v. Salomon Co. Ltd.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] B, A, E, C, D
[2] A, B, C, E, D
[3] C, D, A, B, E
[4] B, C, E, A, D
Q. 74 Which among the following expressly contain a provision for 'right to bear arms' as fundamental right?
(A) The Constitution Act, 1867 (Canada)
(B) Amendment 11 of US Constitution
(C) Constitution (108th Amendment) Act (India)
(D) Human Rights Act, 1998 (UK)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) Only
[2] (A) Only
[3] (B) Only
[4] (C), (D) Only
Q.75 Which Article in the Constitution of India established National Commission for the Scheduled Castes?
[1] Art. 335
[2] Art. 338
[3] Art. 341
[4] Art. 342A
Q.76 'Dominant position' of an enterprise is reflected in which of the following situations :
(A) Position of strength in the relevant international market
(B) Enterprise operating independently of market forces in India
(C) Affecting competition or consumers of relevant market in India in its favour
(D) Position of strength enjoyed in relevant market in India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) only
[2] (A), (C), (D) only
[3] (B), (A), (D) only
[4] (C), (D), (B) only
Q.77 Arrange the following cases decided by the Permanent Court of Arbitration in their chronological order :
(A) Muscat Dhows case
(B) North Atlantic Fisheries case
(C) Savarkar's case
(D) Russian Indemnity case
(E) The Island of Palmas case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, B, C, D, E
[2] C, D, B, A, E
[3] B, C, A, D, E
[4] C, D, E, B, A
Q.78 Which of the following international legal instrument is relating to patent?
[1] Budapest Treaty, 1977
[2] Madrid Agreement, 1891
[3] Berne Convention, 1886
[4] Washington Treaty, 1989
Q.79 As per the provisions of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a bachelor male adopts a child. He subsequently marries a woman. Such woman shall :
[1] be the adoptive mother of that adopted child
[2] be the stepmother of that adopted child
[3] be the adoptive mother of that child if the child accepts her as mother
[4] be the adoptive mother of that child at her discretion
Q.80 Salmond distinguishes between 'possession in fact' and 'possession in law. He treated possession in fact as
[1] A fallacy
[2] A fiction
[3] A conception
[4] A right
Q.81 Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 sapinda relationship and degrees of prohibited relationship include relationship by :
(A) Full, Half and Uterine blood
(B) Adoption
(C) Legitimate blood
(D) Fosterage relations
(E) Illegitimate blood relations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
[2] (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
[3] (B), (C), (D) and (E) only
[4] (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
Q.82 American realist Judge Jerome Frank described his own attitude (towards realism) as one of :
[1] Decisive cynicism
[2] Constructive skepticism
[3] Positive evangelism
[4] Radical objectivity
Q.83 Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that a Hindu marriage may be solemnized in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of either party thereto. Consider the following situations and decide in which case the marriage is validly solemnized?
(A) At the time of marriage all essential shastric ceremonies are performed
(B) At the time of marriage all customary rites and ceremonies of bride's family are performed
(C) At the time of marriage half of the ceremonies of bride's family and other half of the
bridegroom's family are performed
(D) Bride and bridegroom decided to perform the simple ceremonies of exchange of rings
(E) Bride and bridegroom started living together as husband and wife without performing any
ceremony
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A) and (B) Only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) only
[3] (B), (C) and (D) only
[4] (B), (C), (D) and (E) only
Q.84 'A' makes a contract with 'B' to buy B's horse if 'A' survives 'C'. This contract can be enforced by law only when :
[1] 'C' dies in lifetime of 'A'
[2] 'A' dies in lifetime of 'C'
[3] 'A' and 'C' both die
[4] 'B' dies in lifetime of 'A'
Q.85 Central Consumer Protection Council is headed by a chairperson who is
[1] Retired judge of the Supreme Court of India
[2] Minister in charge of Department of Consumer Affairs in Central Government
[3] President of India or his nominee
[4] Head of Competition Commission of India
Q.86 Which of the following provisions in the Information Technology Act, 2000 prescribe punishment for offences :
(A) Section 65
(B) Section 66 D
(C) Section 67 B
(D) Section 52
(E) Section 62
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) only
[2] (C), (D), (E) only
[3] (B), (C), (E) only
[4] (A), (B), (D) only
Q.87 Which of the following are characteristics of a government promissory note :
(A) It is a promise of President of India or Governor of a state
(B) It is regulated by the Indian Securities Act, 1886
(C) They are not negotiable instrument
(D) They can be assigned without endorsement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) only
[2] (B), (C) only
[3] (B), (D) only
[4] (C), (D) only
Q.88 Which country does not provide any written constitutional guarantee of fundamental freedoms?
[1] UK
[2] UK and USA
[3] UK and India
[4] USA
Q.89 "A man's nationality is a continuing legal relationship between the sovereign state on the one hand and the citizen on the other. The fundamental basis of a man's nationality is membership of an independent political community". This definition of nationality was given by the British Mexican Claims Commission in the case of :
[1] Youman's case
[2] Re, Meunier
[3] Re, Castioni
[4] Re, Lynch
Q.90 Red herring prospectus is a prospectus issued :
[1] Prior to the issue of prospectus
[2] After the issue of main prospectus
[3] With the consent of shareholder
[4] On the behest of ROC (Register of Companies)
Q.91 Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India mandates criminalisation of prohibited conduct?
[1] Article 17 only
[2] Article 23 only
[3] Article 17 and 23 only
[4] Article 17, 23 and 24
Q.92 In which country the appointment of judges are made through the parliament?
[1] UK
[2] USA
[3] India
[4] All the above
Q.93 The right of private defence extends to causing death under which provision of IPC :
[1] Section 100 only
[2] Section 100 and 103 only
[3] Section 103 only
[4] Section 100, 103, 105
Q. 94 What amongst the following are necessary to constitute a false imprisonment?
(A) Total restrain on liberty of a person
(B) Detention may be actual or constructive
(C) It should be for a period of 2 years at least
(D) Detection or restrain should be unlawful
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) only
[2] (B), (C), (D) only
[3] (A), (B), (D) only
[4] (A), (C), (D) only
Q.95 Match List - I with List – II
| List - I Schedule
| List - II Description
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
[2] A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
[3] A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
[4] A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Q.96 Which of the following statements in relation to the dissenting judgment of Dr. Radha Vinodpal in the Tokyo Trial can be correctly attributed to him?
(A) War is beyond the scope of International law
(B) Conduct of war is within the scope of the rules of International law
(C) The Pact of Paris brought about no change in the status of war
(D) International law has developed so much so as to make war a crime
(E) Conspiracy is an independent crime under International law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (C), (D) and (E) only
(3) (B), (C) and (E) only
(4) (A), (B) and (D) only
Q.97 Which of the following statements given below are correct?
(A) "A wrong is an act contrary to the rule of right and justice"
(B) "A moral or natural wrong is an act which is morally or naturally wrong being contrary to the rule of natural justice"
(C) A legal wrong is an act which is legally wrong, being contrary to the rule of legal justice and a violation of the law
(D) A legal wrong is always a moral wrong and a moral wrong is always a legal wrong
(E) Natural and legal wrongs cannot form intersecting circles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(2) (A), (D) and (E) Only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B), (D) and (E) only
Q. 98 The term "Contra Prolerentem" means :
[1] Contradictory contract
[2] Standard form contract are to be interpreted legally
[3] Limited construction
[4] Ambiguity is to be resolved against the party who inserted limiting term
Q. 99 Arrange in chronological order the insertion of the following provisions in the Indian Penal Code :
(A) Section 124A
(B) Section 153A
(C) Section 120A
(D) Section 304B
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, B, C, D
[2] A, C, B, D
[3] A, D, B, C
[4] A, D, C, B
Q.100 Which among the following countries do not follow the scheme of distribution of power?
[1] India
[2] USA
[3] UK
[4] Canada
Q.101 The following Articles in the Indian Constitution deal with protection of Environment and/or places :
(A) Art. 51 A (g)
(B) Art. 40
(C) Art. 48 A
(D) Aru 51 A (j)
(E) Art. 49
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (C) and (E) only
[2] (A), (B) and (C) Only
[3] (C), (D) and (E) only
[4] (A), (C) and (D) only
Q.102 Which one of the following is not a ground for divorce under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
[1] Respondent is convicted for committing an offence
[2] Respondent has renounced the world by entering any religious order
[3] Respondent has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion
[4] Respondent has not been heard of as being alive for a period of seven years
Q.103 Arrange the following in chronological order of their Enactment;
(A) Protection of Human Rights Act
(B) National Commission for Women Act
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) National Commission for Minorities Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, D, B, C
[2] C, B, A, D
[3] D, C, B, A
[4] B, D, A, C
Q.104 According to Kaushal Kishore v. State of UP (2023) the fundamental right under article 19 is available against:
[1] State actors only
[2] Non-state actors only
[3] State as well as non-state actors
[4] State under article 12 only
Q.105 Which kind of patent is protectable in India?
[1] Design Patent
[2] Utility Patent
[3] Process Patent
[4] Plant Variety Patent
Q.106 Match List - I with List - II
| List – I (A) Producer Companies (B) Statutory companies (C) Section 8 Company (D) Small Company | List - II
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-1, B-II, C-IV, D-III
[2] A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
[3] A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
[4] A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Q.107 A human being ceases to be a person, in law as in fact __________.
[1] On being adjudged an insolvent
[2] On renunciation of citizenship
[3] On conviction
[4] At death
Q.108 Arrange the following UN Conventions in their chronological order :
(A) UN Convention on Biological Diversity
(B) UN Convention on Climate Change
(C) UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes
(D) UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
(E) UN Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] B, C, D, E, A
[2] A, D, E, C, B
[3] D, B, C, E, A
[4] A, D, C, B, E
Q.109 "To protect and improve the natural environment including forest, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures" is provided under which Part of the Indian Constitution?
[1] Fundamental Rights
[2] Fundamental Duties
[3] Directive Principles of State Policy
[4] Obligation of State
Q.110 A1 and A2 plan to commit robbery. Mere agreement to commit this offence is punishable under which provision of IPC?
[1] 120 B
[2] 107 (2)
[3] 120 B and 107 (2)
[4] Without actus reus it is not possible at all
Q.111 Which among the following makes a distinction between common intention and similar intention :
(A) Mahabub Shah v. Emperor (1945)
(B) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor (1925)
(C) Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP (1973)
(D) Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab (1995)
(E) Badri v. State of Rajasthan (1995)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) only
[2] (A) only
[3] (B) only
[4] (B), (C), (D), (E) only
Q.112 Match List - I with List - II
| List - I Subject (A) Punishment for extortion (B) Attempt to commit robbery (C) Dishonest misappropriation of property (D) Criminal breach of trust by public servant | List - II Section of Indian Penal code I. Section 403 II. Section 409 III. Section 384 IV. Section 393 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
[2] A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Q.113 Polluter pays principle is also known as
[1] Principle of Good Neighbourliness
[2] Principle of Common Responsibility
[3] Principle of Public Liability
[4] Principle of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
Q.114 Non-obstante Clause in section 145 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 provides for which of the following :
(A) dispenses with the procedure under section 200 of CrPC
(B) procedure of examination of complainant and witness on oath is done away
(C) affidavit of complainant and witness can be accepted
(D) sworn statement recording by the magistrate is dispensed with
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) only
(2) (A), (C) only
(3) (B), (C), (D) only
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
Q.115 In which of the following cases has it been held that the doctrine of basic features does not constitute a limitation on the legislature while enacting ordinary legislation?
[1] Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
[2] Swadeshi Industries v. Workmen
[3] Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
[4] Kishor v. State of Rajasthan
Q.116 Art. 28 of the Constitution of India mentions four types of educational institutions given below. In which of the following institutions religious instruction can be imparted with the consent of individual or otherwise :
(A) Institution wholly maintained by the state
(B) Institution recognised by the state
(C) Institution that receives aid out of state fund
(D) Institution that are administered by the state but established under any trust or endowment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B), (C) only
[2] (B), (C), (D) only
[3] (A), (C), (D) only
[4] (A), (B), (D) only
Q.117 Match List - I with List - II.
| List – I Provision from IT Act (A) Secure electronic Record (B) Security procedures and practices (C) Secure electronic signature (D) Attribution of electronic record | List - II Section (I)16 (II) 15 (III) 14 (IV) 11 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
[2] A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
[3] A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
[4] A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Q.118 When an absolute right is violated, the law conclusively presumes damages although the person wronged may have suffered no pecuniary loss. This was decided in case of :
[1] Rogers v. Rajender Dutt
[2] Ashby v. White
[3] Winsmore v. Greenbank
[4] Tozer v. Child
Q.119 There is no distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority. This was held so in the case of
[1] Mighell v. Sultan of Johore
[2] Luther v. Sagor
[3] Vavasseur v. Krupp
[4] Schooner Exchange v. Mc Faddon
Q.120 Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India under Article 51 A :
(A) can be enforced by the Supreme Court
(B) can be used by the Supreme Court in interpretation
(C) can be amended by the States
(D) has been amended by the Parliament only once
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B), (D) only
(2) (A), (B), (D) only
(3) (B), (C), (D) only
(4) (A), (B), (C) only
Q.121 Consider the following statements relating to death penalty :
(A) Death sentence follows deterrence theory
(B) The Parliament of India wants to remove death sentence
(C) Recent amendments in IPC and other proposals have added new offences with death sentence
(D) The parliament wants harsh punishment for heinous offences through capital punishment
(E) After rarest of the rare doctrine the number of capital punishment is reduced
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (C), (D), (E) only
[2] (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) only
[3] (A), (B), (C), (D) only
[4] (B), (D), (E) only
Q.122 According to Austin's definition of ownership, the attributes of ownership are :
(A) Indefinite user
(B) Plenary control over an object
(C) Unrestricted disposition
(D) Bundle of rights
(E) Unlimited duration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (C) and (E) Only
(2) (B), (D) and (E) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (D) only
Q.123 The Preamble of the Constitution of India :
[1] can be amended
[2] cannot be amended
[3] can be amended only by the Supreme Court
[4] cannot be amended because it is a part of the basic feature of the Constitution
Q124 What amongst the following are necessary characteristics for 'Libel'.
(A) It is defamation of permanent form
(B) The burden of proof that the words are false lie upon the plaintiff
(C) No actual damage need to be proved to sustain an action
(D) Falsity of charge is presumed in favour of plaintiff
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (D) only
(4) (A), (C), (D) only
Q.125 The term preferred by Bentham to explain his imperative concept of a law is :
[1] Firman
[2] Manda te
[3] Dictate
[4] Fiat
Q.126 In respect of which of the following items India does not have legislations to specifically cover them as Intellectual property.
(A) Traditional Knowledge
(B) Street Art
(C) Publicity Right
(D) Celebrity Right
(E) Computer Programme
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (B), (D) and (E) only
[2] (C), (D) and (E) only
[3] (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
[4] (B), (C), (D) and (E) only
Q.127 A is lawfully arrested by Z who is a police officer. A loses his self control by grave and sudden provocation due to arrest and kills Z. A shall be punished under :
[1] Section 304 of IPC
[2] Section 302 of IPC
[3] Section 304 or 302 of IPC
[4] Section 301 read with Section 302 of IPC
Q.128 Match List - I with List – 11
| List – 1
| List - 11
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
[2] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[3] A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
[4] A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Q.129 Arrange the names of the following jurists in terms of chronological order of their birth :
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) John Austin
(C) Sir Henry Maine
(D) Hans Kelson
(E) Immanuel Kant
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, B, C, D, E
[2] E, A, B, C, D
[3] A, B, E, C, D
[4] D, E, B, A, C
Q.130 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The tests of proportionality, necessity and balancing are found at prominent places in the GAIS, the GAIT as well as in the SPS and TBT Agreements
Reason (R): The meaning of these tests and their interrelationship is not always clear
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Q.131 "Moral Right" is a concept prevailing in :
[1] Industrial Design
[2] Geographical Indication
[3] Trademark
[4] Copyright
Q.132 Which among the following follow a parliamentary system of government?
[1] India only
[2] Australia only
[3] India and Australia
[4] UK and USA
Q.133 The Nuremberg Trial classified the crimes punishable under International law into the categories of :
(A) Genocide
(B) Crimes against women and children
(C) Crimes against peace
(D) War crimes
(E) Crimes against humanity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (C) and (E) only
[2] (B), (C) and (D) only
[3] (D) and (E) only
[4] (A), (B) and (D) only
Q.134 Constitution of which of the country "expressly" states that the Constitution shall be the supreme law of the land?
(A) USA
(B) South Africa
(C) India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] (A), (B) only
[2] (B), (C) only
[3] (C) only
[4] (B), (D) only
Q.135 Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The doctrine of stare decisis has essentially developed as a result of progress made in law-reporting
Statement (II): Since the law in India is mostly based on the English Law, the system of law reporting is fairly developed in India
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[2] Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[3] Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[4] Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q.136 The Supreme Court of India remarked that "Extradition with foreign states is, except in exceptional cases, governed by treaties or arrangements made" in the case of :
[1] State of Maharashtra v. Shobha Vitthal Kolte
[2] T. Vellaiyan v. The Registrar, SHRC, Chennai
[3] State of Madras v. C.G. Menon
[4] N. C. Dhoundial v. Union of India
Q.137 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Trade Secrets Act, 2020 is a legislation enacted in India to provide for confidential informations and trade secrets
Reason (R): India has enacted a number of legislations to create legal framework on intellectual property rights (IPRs)
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
[1] Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
[2] Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
[3] (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
[4] (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Q.138 Match List - I with List – II
| List - I Name of the case
| List – II Subject matter
|
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
[2] A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
[3] A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
[4] A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q.139 Match List - I with List - II
| List - I Enactment (A) The Civil Rights Act (B) The Probation of Offenders Act (C) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (D) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act | List - II Year 1. 1955 2. 1956 3. 1958 4. 1971 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
[2] A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
[3] A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
[4] A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q.140 Arrange the following cases in the sequence in which they were decided :
(A) Gloucester Grammar School Case
(B) Donoghue v. Stevenson Case
(C) Ashby v. White Case
(D) Rylands v. Fletcher Case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[1] A, C, D, B
[2] B, C, D, A
[3] C, D, B, A
[4] B, A, D, C
Question 141-145
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer the questions :
In India, the protection and enforcement of human rights confined to "Civil and Political Rights" in the form of "Fundamental Rights" (Part Ill) and "Economic, Social and Cultural Rights" in the form of "Directive Principles" (Part IV) in the Constitution of India discusses the vision of the Constitution and its framers of the kind of society they aspired to establish in the country. The framers of the Constitution were quite clear in assigning an equal role to each and every individual in the political process and decision-making. Not only did they provide for universal adult suffrage but they also provide for affirmative steps in the form of seats allocation or reservation in election bodies for those incapable of competing in political process on equal footing. For effective participation in that process as well as for leading a dignified life, which they did not want to leave to the political process alone or postpone for the future, they also provided for Fundamental Rights and Directive principles, which have been distinguished as the conscience of the Constitution. and harmony and balance between them, have been found to be among the basic feature to the Constitution. Part IV A of the Constitution of India title "Fundamental duties" (Article 51 A) provides that every citizen must do his duty towards the nation as well as the fellow citizens.
Sub Question No: 141
Q.141 Which of the following is part of the basic feature of the Constitution?
[1] Fundamental Duties
[2] Directive Policies
[3] Political Process and decision-making
[4] Harmony and balance between Part Ill and Part IV
Sub Question No: 142
Q.142 The notion that every citizen must do his duty towards the nation as well as the fellow citizen is incorporated in the Indian Constitution in
[1] Part Ill
[2] Part IV
[3] Part IV A
[4] Preamble
Sub Question No: 143
Q.143 Which is distinguished as the 'Conscience' of the Constitution?
[1] Fundamental Duties
[2] Preamble
[3] Universal adult suffrage
[4] Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Sub Question No: 144
Q.144 The protection and enforcement of Human Rights under Article 32 is confined in India to :
[1] Fundamental Rights
[2] Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
[3] Fundamental Duties
[4] Right to Vote
Sub Question No: 145
Q.145 Which Part of the Constitution of India discusses the vision of the Constitution and its framers as to which kind of society they aspired to establish in the country?
[1] Art 51 A
[2] Part Ill and Part IV
[3] Part IV only
[4] Part dealing with affirmative steps
Question 146-150
Comprehension:
Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions :
This is the greatest paradox involved in the doctrine of 'basic features', namely, that though it does not constitute a limitation on the legislature while enacting ordinary legislation, it would operate as a limitation on the 'Constituent' body, though in the same breath it is conceded that the latter is a 'Sovereign' authority while the Legislature is not. This means that while determining the validity of an ordinary law, the court can only look into the express provisions of the Constitution or the necessary implications thereof, but when the validity of a Constitution Amendment Act is challenged, the court may travel behind or beyond the express provisions of the Constitution to invoke some principles superior to express provisions to find whether the impugned amendment is in tune with those principles, which are supposed to Constitute the 'norm' behind the specific provisions of the Constitution. In short, it involve an illogical attempt to usher in the doctrines of 'Spirit of the Constitution' or of 'natural law, through the backdoor, to circumscribe the Constitution itself, while it had been openly rejected as a limitation upon ordinary legislation.
Sub Question No: 146
Q.146 Which of the following options reflect the opinion of the author as can be discerned from the cited paragraph?
[1] A critical and negative view of the way the court uses the doctrines of 'Spirit of the Constitution' and of 'natural law' to circumscribe the Constitution itself
[2] Admiration of the court's view that legislative power need not be circumscribed
[3] Neutral view on the use of basic features by the court to limit the constituent power and the legislative power
[4] Positive view on the use of natural law as a limitation on the legislative power and constituent power
Sub Question No: 147
Q.147 While determining the validity of an ordinary law, what can the court look into?
[1] The court cannot look into the express provisions of the Constitution
[2] The court can only look into the necessary implications but not the express provisions of the Constitution
[3] The court can only look into express provisions of the Constitution or the necessary implications thereof
[4] The court can only look into the express provisions of the Constitution and not the implications thereof
Sub Question No: 148
Q.148 What does the author identify as the greatest paradox involved in the doctrine of basic features?
[1] The doctrine does not constitute a limitation on the power of the Parliament, but limits the state legislatures
[2] The doctrine ushers in the concept of natural law through the backdoors, while the judiciary get a free run
[3] The doctrine operates as a limitation on the constituent body as well as legislature when enacting ordinary legislation
[4] The doctrine does not constitute a limitation on the legislature while enacting ordinary legislation but operates as a limitation on the Constituent body though the Constitue]nt body is a sovereign authority while the legislature is not
Sub Question No: 149
Q.149 As per the apprehension of the author, when may a court travel beyond the express provisions of the Constitution to invoke some principles superior to the express provisions?
[1] While exercising the judicial power to interpret the constitution
[2] When the court wants to assert the power of judicial review
[3] When the validity of a Constitution Amendment Act is challenged
[4] When the validity of an ordinary legislation is challenged
Sub Question No: 150
Q.150 What does the author consider to be the doctrine used to circumscribe the Constitution?
[1] Doctrine of 'Spirit of the constitution' and 'natural law'
[2] Doctrine of 'basic structure' and of 'grund norm'
[3] Doctrine of 'basic features' and of 'ultra vires'
[4] Doctrine of 'Constituent body' and of 'Sovereign authority'
Answer Keys
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 2
5) 1
6) 3
7) 3
8) 1
9) 2
10) 1
11) 1
12) 3
13) 4
14) 3
15) 2
16) 1
17) 4
18) 3
19) 1
20) 3
21) 1 & 2
22) 3
23) 1
24) 2
25) 3
26) 2
27) 3
28) 4
29) 1
30) 4
31) 2
32) 4
33) 1 & 2
34) 3
35) 2
36) 4
37) 1
38) 4
39) 4
40) 2
41) 1
42) 3
43) 4
44) 1
45) 1
46) 4
47) 4
48) 3
49) 2
50) 3
51) 4
52) 1
53) 4
54) 2
55) 3
56) 4
57) 4
58) 1
59) 4
60) 3
61) 2
62) 2
63) 1
64) 4
65) 2
66) 3
67) 1
68) 3
69) 2
70) 1
71) 1
72) 4
73) 1
74) 3
75) 2
76) 4
77) 1
78) 1
79) 2
80) 3
81) 2
82) 2
83) 1
84) 1
85) 2
86) 1
87) 1
88) 1
89) 4
90) 1
91) 3
92) 2
93) 2
94) 3
95) 2
96) 1
97) 1
98) 4
99) 1
100) 3
101) 1
102) 1
103) 4
104) 3
105) 3
106) 2
107) 4
108) Dropped
109) 2
110) 1
111) 2
112) 3
113) 4
114) 4
115) 1
116) 2
117) 1
118) 2
119) 2
120) 1
121) 1
122) 1
123) 1
124) 4
125) 2
126) 3
127) 2
128) 1
129) 2
130) 2
131) 4
132) 3
133) 1
134) 1
135) 1
136) 3
137) 4
138) 1
139) 3
140) 1
141) 4
142) 3
143) 4
144) 1
145) 2
146) 1
147) 3
148) 4
149) 3
150) 1
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