CUET LLB 2024 Solved Paper | CUET LLB Entrance Solved Papers PDF

Find the CUET LLB 2024 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Common University Entrance Test [CUET (UG)] Examination

Update: 2024-06-05 17:48 GMT

Find the CUET  LLB 2024 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Due to increasing competition, getting into your dream college is becoming more challenging. Practising CUET LLLB 2024 and past papers can help you reflect on your preparation and enhance your knowledge with accurate information. Practice makes perfect, and solving past papers will give you an edge over your competitors.

Practising will help you grasp various concepts and develop a solid preparation strategy. The scores will provide an analysis of your strengths and weaknesses. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with its pattern, structure, and difficulty level, helping you excel in your exams.

The CUET LLB 2024 (COQP11) syllabus comprises four main sections: English comprehension, general knowledge/awareness, computer basics, and general aptitude and logical reasoning.  The question paper contains 75 questions, all based on subject-specific knowledge. All questions are compulsory and bilingual, available in both English and Hindi. Candidates obtain 4 marks for each correct answer, and each incorrect answer incurs a penalty of 1 mark.

Find the solved CUET LLB 2024 paper below.

Common University Entrance Test [CUET (UG)] Examination 2024
Law (LLB)

Duration: 105 minutes
Total Questions: 75
Type: MCQ
Total Marks: 300

Based on the passage answer 1-5

Studies on growth and development of infants emphasize the importance of good nutrition, a healthy environment and parent education. The development of the child has been found to be positively related to stimulation at home. High and low-stimulation homes were characterized on the basis of leisure-time activities of parents, availability of toys, space and books. Children were rated on activity level and social, emotional, intellectual, motor and language development. Children from homes high on stimulation scored higher on four of the six aspects studied: activity level, social, language and intellectual development. Significant differences between adequately and non-adequately nourished children were observed on height, weight and intelligence, all measures favouring the well-nourished group. On most measures, the inadequately nourished group also showed greater variation than the adequately nourished group.

1. Which of the following is not a feature of a high-stimulation home?

1. Parents have more free time.

2. Toys are made available to the child

3. The child has access to books

4. There is less space inside the home.

2. Which of the following statements are true?

1. A child’s development is not related to the stimulation at home.

2. Scientists identified six aspects of studying the growth and development of infants.

3. Intellectual and motor development are not essential aspects of studying a child’s growth.

4. There are negligible differences among students from adequately and non-adequately nourished groups of children.

3. Which of the following features are not included in the various aspects of studying the growth and development of infants?

1. Availability of toys

2. Emotional growth

3. Language skills

4. Activity level

4. Choose the appropriate word from the passage to fill in the blank meaningfully.

Well ______ children show better motor skills as compared to the less nourished.

1. Nourished

2. Engaged

3. Associated

4. Favoured

5. Choose the most appropriate title for the passage :

1. Importance of Child Welfare Schemes

2. Child Management – A Myth

3. Factors Influencing Stimulation in Adolescence

4. The Case of Variation in Differing Nourished Groups of Children

6. Complete the sentences in List I with the correct question tag in List II

LIST I

LIST II

A.

Parul has eaten ______?

 I.  Is she
B.

Pinki made this cake, _______?

II.  hasn’t she
C.

Tina has nothing left, ________?

III.  has she
D.

Sumaira isn’t participating, _______?

IV.   didn’t she

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

7. Choose the phrase which means “to limit someone’s ability”.

1. Clip one’s wings

2. Feather in one’s cap

3. Hold somebody to ransom

4. Pull one’s socks up

8. Which of the following words are spelled correctly?

A. Commission

B. Accommodation

C. Unnecessary

D. Receiver

E. Memento

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A),(D) and (E) only.

2. (B) and (D) only.

3. (B) (C) and (E) only.

4. (A) and (C) only

9. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate words from the options given below.

When he ______ the ____ final decision, he quietly picked up his bat and left.

1. Heard, empire's

2. Herd, empire's

3. Heard, umpire's

4. Herd, umpire's

10. Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles :

The workers were assured that ____ unanimous vote will be the only deciding factor in ____ Union election in July.

1. An, the

2. A, the

3. The, an

4. The, a

11. Choose the correct meaning of the term “Envisage” the options given below:

1. Capture in war

2. Mass exit from a place

3. A grand scenery

4. Foresee in mind

12. Identify the antonym of the given word: CORPULENT

1. Sallow

2. Suppliant

3. Flaccid

4. Emaciated

13. The following sentences have been jumbled. Choose the option that rearranges the given sentences to form a coherent and meaningful paragraph.

(A). Archaeology, on the one hand, created a more acute sense among historians as the inscriptions unearthed by archaeologists were more reliable foundations of historical knowledge.

(B). An important development in the nineteenth century that shaped the terms of this discourse was the gradual extension of archaeological knowledge.

(C). The iconographical materials, available from fresco paintings and temple structures, brought before the public a feeling of excellence about Indian art.

(D) On the other hand, it also made a significant contribution to discussions on Indian artistic traditions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (D), (B), (C)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B). (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (Α)

14. Fill in the blank with the most appropriately spelled option

We need to find a way to _____ the possibility of human error in the process of creating simulations predicting road accidents.

1. Accommodate

2. Accommodate

3. Accommodate

4. Accommodate

15. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

The committee ________ divided and there is bitterness among the members.

1. Have not

2. Are

3. Is

4. Were

16. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate one-word substitution.

Nothing beats the taste of honey fresh from the ______

1. Apiary

2. Aviary

3. Cemetery

4. Arena

17. Who is the founder of Satya Shodak Samaj?

1. V R Shinde

2. Jyotiba Phule

3. Mukundrao Patil

4. B R Ambedkar

18. In which game the ‘Golden Ball Award’ is presented?

1. Hockey

2. Football

3. Basketball

4. Volleyball

19. In India ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to :

1. Increase in Textile production

2. Increase in Fish production

3. Increase in Oil-seeds production

4. Increase in Milk production

20. Bleaching powder is used as

1. A disinfectant

2. A fertilizer

3. A preservative for pickles

4. a antiseptic after shave

21. In which country, Mt. Kilimanjaro is formed due to volcanic eruption:

1. Tanzania

2. Iran

3. Russia

4. Balochistan

22. In Industries, abbreviation WPI stands for :

1. World Profit Index

2. Wholesale Profit Index

3. World Products Identification

4. Wholesale Price Index

23. Which state of India has the highest elephant-populated region?

1. Karnataka

2. Kerala

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Assam

24. In which city is the stadium where the 2023 World Cup final cricket match was played

1. Kolkata

2. Mumbai

3. New Delhi

4. Ahmedabad

25. In which state is the India International Science festival (IISF) 2023 being

1. Kerala

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Karnataka

26. Which of the following day is celebrated on 5th December every year?

1. International Volunteer Day

2. World Soil Day

3. National Education Day

4. World Reacher’s Day

27. Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 whose theme was “Say no to corruption; commit to the nation” was being observed from:

1. September 30 to October 6, 2023

2. October 30 to November 5, 2023

3. September 01 to September 7, 2023

4. November 14 to November 20, 2023

28. How many trophies of ICC ODI World Cup wins by Australia and India (men) respectively?

1. 5 and 3

2. 6 and 2

3. 6 and 1

4. 5 and 2

29. Where was the G20 Summit held in Delhi in 2023?

1. India House

2. Rashtrapati Bhawan

3. Bharat Mandapam

4. Samad Bhawan

30. Match List I with List II


LIST I

DANCE

LIST II

ARTIST

A.

Bharatnatyam

I

Vedantam Lakshminarayan

B

Kuchipudi

II.

Hema Malini

C

Odissi

III.

K Kallyankutty Amma

D

Mohiniyattam

IV.

Kelucharan Mohapatra

Choose the correct answers from the options below

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III),(C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

3. (A)-(I),(B)-(II),(C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

4. (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(II)

31. In January 2024, which IIT's team created the first high-resolution landslide risk

1. IIT DELHI

2. IIT MADRAS

3. IIT BOMBAY

4. IIT ROORKEE

32. The dimensional formula of energy is

1. ML2 T-2

2. ML2 T-3

3. MLT-2

4. MLT-1

33. Which Union Territory becomes first UT to implement PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY)?

1. Chandigarh

2. Lakshadweep

3. Jammu and Kashmir

4. Ladakh

34. Which pair has recently (January 2024) won the men's doubles title of the Australian open tennis tournament?

1. Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavasori

2. Rohan Bopanna and Matthew Ebden

3. Wesley Kohloff ans Nikola Mektie

4. Tomas Maahak and Zhizhen

35. The Government on the advice of the National Advisory Council, has passed the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is:

1. Employee Guarantee Act, 2005

2. Employee Guarantee Act, 2007

3. Employee Guarantee Act, 2003

4. Employee Guarantee Act, 2006

36. Match List I with List II

LIST I

(SCHEME)

LIST II

(DATE OF ANNOUNCEMENT)

A

Swachha Bharat Mission

I

12 April 2005

B

Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

II

2 October 2014

C

Atal Pension Yojana

III

22 January 2015

D

Janani Suraksha Yojana

IV

9 May 2015

Choose the correct option given below :

1 (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

37. Which one of the following is an example of an Internet Search engine?

1. LINUX

2. Yahoo

3. MS Word

4. MS Windows

38. Which among these is not a Web Browser?

1. Gmail

2. Chrome

3. Opera

4. NetSurf

39. What does HTML stand for?

1. Hyper Text Markup Language

2. High Text Markup Language

3. Hyper Tabular Markup Language

4. Hype Text Markup Language

40. Which of the following is not a web hosting company?

1. Hostgator

2. Blue Host

3. Meta

4. WPX Hosting

41. Shortcut for document views toolbar is situated in ______ bar.

1. Status bar

2. Tool bar

3. Title bar

4. Task bar

42. The keystrokes ctrl+I is used to

1. Insert a line break

2. Indicate the text should be in bold

3. Applies italic format to selected text

4. Increase font size

43. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright © symbol?

1. Ctrl + Shift + F4

2. Ctrl + Alt + V

3. Ctrl + Shift + C

4. Alt + Ctrl + C

44. Which file starts MS Word?

1. Word.exe

2. Winword.exe

3. Word2003.exe

4. Msword.exe

45. A worksheet range is

1. A group of cells

2. A command used for data modelling

3. A range of values such as from 1 to 100

4. A group of worksheets

46. Hyperlinks can be

A. Text

B. Drawing objects

C. A group of cells

D. Pictures

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

47. A virus program is usually hidden in ….

1. The disk drive only

2. The operating system only

3. An application program only

4. The operating system or application program

48. ………………virus infects the first sector of disk.

1. Chernobal sector

2. Logic bomb

3. Boot sector

4. Horse Trojan

49. Which of the following is not an antivirus program?

1. McAfee

2. Redlof

3. Norton

4. Dr. Solomon

50. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and move the mouse around the slide?

1. Dragging

2. Moving

3. Highlighting

4. Selecting

51. SQL stands for …………

1. Superior Questions Lot

2. Statistical Query Language

3. Standard Query Lot

4. Structured Query Language

52. In 16 minutes, the minute hand gains over the hour hand by:

1. 80 degree

2. 88 degree

3. 92 degree

4. 108 degree

53. On January 12, 1980 it was Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was –

1. Thursday

2. Friday

3. Saturday

4. Sunday

54. Among the given three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third, if the average of the three numbers is 55. Find the largest number?

1. 80

2. 85

3. 90

4. 95

55. Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are males of whom 20% are literate. If of all inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percent of the females of the town are literate?

1. 30%

2. 35%

3. 32.5%

4. 40%

56. P, Q and R enter into a partnership. P invests 3 times as much as Q invests and Q invests two-thirds of what R invests. At the end of the year, the profit earned is Rs. 8800. What is the share of Q in the profit?

1. 800

2. 1600

3. 2000

4. 2500

57. The salaries of A, B, C are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the increments of 10%, 20% and 50% are allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their salaries?

1. 10:13:15

2. 11:16:25

3. 11:18:30

4. 11:19:23

58. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work?

1. 15

2. 17

3. 20

4. 25

59. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is opened all the time, and B and C are opened for one hour each alternately. The tank will be full in:

1. 5 hours

2. 6 hours

3. 7 hours

4. 8 hours

60. Walking 5/6th of his usual speed, a man is 10 mins late. The usual time taken by him to cover that distance is :

1. 40 minutes

2. 45 minutes

3. 50 minutes

4. 1 hour

61. How many words of 4 letters beginning with A or E can be formed with the letters of the word 'EQUATION'?

1. 400

2. 410

3. 315

4. 420

62. In three vessels each of 50 litres capacity mixture of milk and water is filled. The ratio’s of milk and water are 1:2:3:1 and 3:2 in the three respective vessels. If all the three vessels are emptied into a single vessel, find the proportion of milk and water in the mixture?

1. 121:79

2. 101:7

3. 119:75

4. 123:75

63. The perimeter of square is 48 cm. the area of a rectangle is 4cm 2 less than the area of the square. If the length of the rectangle is 14cm, then the perimeter is :

1. 40cm

2. 44cm

3. 46cm

4. 48cm

64. Select the correct option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term?

Bricks: House:: Twigs:?

1. Fire

2. Leaves

3. Nest

4. Tree

65. Vipul and Preeti are ranked seventh and eleventh, respectively from the top in a class of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?

1. 25th and 21st

2. 28th and 29th

3. 20th and 24th

4. 26th and 20th

66. Which number will replace the question mark? in the below-mentioned series:

13, 37, 77, 157, 317,?

1. 637

2. 649

3. 683

4. 634

67. In a specific coding language if ‘Raghav plays hockey’ is written as ‘xfjdni rzzmo ubghzs’ then ‘Arun works hard’ will be written as :

1. Cszi rjsnx mvwb

2. Cqxi rlqpv mxwa

3. Cqxi rjsnx mvqb

4. Cszi rlqpv mvqb

68. Five boxes A1, A2, A3, A4 and A5 are kept one above the other (not in the necessarily same order). A1 is just above A5 and just below A4. A2 is just above A3 and just below A5. How many boxes are above A2?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 4

69. If A & B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’ and A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B”, then how is K related Z in the following expression?

‘Z @ R & T # H @ K'

1. Paternal Uncle

2. Father

3. Paternal grandfather

4. Father in law

70. In the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer.

Statement-I- The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past few months.

Statement-II- The crude oil prices in the International market have gone up substantially in the last few months.

1. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

2. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

3. Both the statements I and II are independent causes

4. Both the statements I and II are the effects of independent causes

71. In the below-mentioned question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions, as number I and II

Answer the question on the basis of this statement and conclusion:
Statement: Investment in Sensex is subject to market risk. Consult your investment advisor or agent before investing.
Conclusion: I. One should not invest in Sensex.
Conclusion: II. The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty

1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Both the conclusion follows.

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

72. In the question below a statement followed by assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken granted. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement: "Best way to solve this problem of employees dissatisfaction is to offer them cash reward. If this type of incentive can solve the problem in CIDCO company than why not here". A personnel manager tells the Chairman of a company.
Assumptions: I - The reason for employees dissatisfaction in both company was similar.
                         II. Monetary incentives have universal appeal.

1. Only assumption I is implicit

2. Only assumption II is implicit

3. Neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit

4. Both the assumptions options are implicit.

73. If the animals which can walk are ‘swimmers’, animals who can crawl are called ‘flying’, those living in water are called ‘snakes’ and those which fly in the sky are called ‘hunters’, then what will a lizard be called?

1. Swimmers

2. Snakes

3. Flying

4. Hunters

74. Pointing towards Akshat, Deepak said ‘ “he is my mother’s father’s son’s brother’s son. If Tanya, who is married to Sankalp, is the mother of Deepak, then how is Tanya related to Akshat?

1. Mother

2. Father’s sister

3. Grandfather

4. Brother in law

75. Six special lectures are to be organized on banking system, quality circles, work motivation, decision making, current affairs, and personality development Lectures are scheduled to be held, one lecture on each day from Monday to Sunday, as per the below mentioned details,

I. Work motivation should be organized immediately after decision making

II. Quality circle should be organized on Wednesday and should not be immediately followed by personality development.

III. Decision making should be organized on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between banking system and current affairs.

IV. On one day, other than Saturday, there should be no lecture. Current affairs should be on previous day of holiday.

Which lecture will be organized on the first day (Monday)

1. Current affairs

2. Banking System

3. Working Motivation

4. Personality Development

Answers

1) 4

2) 2

3) 1

4) 1

5) 4

6) 4

7) 1

8) 1

9) 3

10) 2

11) 4

12) 4

13) 3

14) 1

15) 3

16) 1

17) 2

18) 2

19) 2

20) 1

21) 1

22) 4

23) 1

24) 4

25) 3

26) 2

27) 2

28) 2

29) 3

30) 1

31) 1

32) 1

33) 3

34) 3

35) 1

36) 3

37) 2

38) 1

39) 1

40) 3

41) 1

42) 3

43) Drop

44) 2

45) 1

46) 3

47) 4

48) 3

49) 2

50) 1

51) 4

52) 2

53) 2

54) 3

55) 3

56) 2

57) 2

58) 1

59) 3

60) 3

61) 4

62) 2

63) 4

64) 3

65) 1

66) 1

67) 1

68) 2

69) 4

70) 4

71) 2

72) 4

73) 3

74) 2

75) 1

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