Home >  UGC NET Law >  UGC NET Paper-III...

UGC NET Paper-III November 2017 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

Find UGC NET Paper-III November 2017 (Law) Solved Paper on Legal Bites. UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) is conducted on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility of Assistant Professorship, Junior Research Fellowship or both, for Indian Universities and Colleges.

By - Admin Legal Bites
Update: 2021-10-01 04:58 GMT

Find UGC NET Paper-III November 2017 (Law) Solved Paper on Legal Bites. UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) is conducted on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility of Assistant Professorship, Junior Research Fellowship or both, for Indian Universities and Colleges. Practice the UGC NET past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Find the solved UGC NET PAPER below.

UGC NET QUESTION PAPER-III NOVEMBER 2017 (LAW)| Click Here to Download PDF

UGC NET PAPER-III(Law)

NOVEMBER 2017

Number of questions- 75

Marks- 150

1. Answer the following by using the code given below.

'Economic Justice' is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. It has been provided in:

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties.

Code:

  1. (a) and (b) are correct
  2. (a) and (c) are correct
  3. (b) and (c) are correct
  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (b)

2. Arrange the following decided cases in a chronological order and answer by using the code given below:

(a) Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and others

(b) Basvaraj v. Special Land Acquisition Officer

(c) Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P

(d) City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment

Code:

  1. (c), (b), (d), (a)
  2. (b), (c), (d), (a)
  3. (d), (b), (c), (a)
  4. (b), (c), (a), (d).

Answer: (a)

3. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and empower them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Reason(R): This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people live, has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient, self-sustaining and capable of managing its own affairs.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following statements are correct? Answer by using the code given below.

(a) Persons in Govt/Judicial service need not resign to participate in District Judge selection process held in "Vijay Kumar Misra and another v. High court of Judicature at Patna" by the Supreme Court of India

(b) The Supreme Court of India held in S. Kazi v. Muslim education society that ""All Tribunals are not necessary parties to the proceedings where legality of its orders challenged

(c) The Supreme Court of India observed in Cardamom Marketing Corporation and others v. State of Kerala and others that Social Security to the legal profession becomes an essential part of legal system

(d) The Supreme Court of India held in 'Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court and others that High Court Judges are exempted from Airport frisking.

Code:

  1. Only (b) is correct
  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (b)

5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. Art 118…….. Duration of parliament
  2. Art 119…….. Restriction on discussion in Parliament
  3. Art 120…….. Language to be used in Parliament
  4. Art 121…….. courts not to inquire into the Proceedings of Parliament.

Answer: (c)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Constitutional Provision)

(a) Article 249

(b) Article 250

(c) Article 252

(d) Article 253

List-II (Subject)

(i) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption of such legislation by any other State

(ii) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation

(iii) Legislation for giving effect to international agreements

(iv) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest.

Code:

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill? Give correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament

(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

(c) President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States

(d) President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration

Code:

  1. Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  2. Only (b) and (c) are correct
  3. Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (b)

8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Article 324(1)

(b) Article 324(2)

(c) Article 324(4)

(d) Article 324(5)

List-II

(i) Composition of Election Commission

(ii) Appointment of Regional Commissioners

(iii) Powers vested in the Election Commission

(iv) Conditions of service and tenure of office of Election Commission

Code:

  1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (a)

9. Administrative Law as a separate branch of legal discipline, especially in India, came to be recognised in the middle of:

  1. 17th century
  2. 18th century
  3. 19th century
  4. 20th century.

Answer: (d)

10. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using code given below:

Assertion(A): Natural justice is justice of the nature where the lion devours the lamb and the tiger feeds upon the antelope

Reason(R): Above statement is taken from Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  3. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect
  4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

11. In which of the following cases, underwritten quotation is taken from? Principles of natural justice must be read into the provision of law.

  1. State of U.P. v. Vijay Kumar Tripathi
  2. Satyanarayana v. Land Reforms Tribunal
  3. T.C. v. State of Madras
  4. Manjula Manjari Devi v. Director of Public Instruction.

Answer: (a)

12. Match List-I (Name of Principle) with List-II (Related Case) and answer by using the code below:

List-I

(a) Res judicata

(b) Legitimate expectation

(c) Promissory estoppel

(d) Locus standi

List-II

(i) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

(ii) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of Uttar Pradesh

(iii) Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh

(iv) Monnet Ispat and Energy Ltd. v. Union of India

Code:

  1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

13. Which of the following is a ground for judicially attacking the exercise of administrative discretion? Answer by using code below:

(a) Ultra vires the law

(b) Mala fide intent

(c) Arbitrariness

(d) Irrelevant considerations

Code:

  1. (a) and (b) are correct
  2. (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (d)

14. Writ of certiorari can be issued to quash actions which are administrative in nature. Above principle was laid down in:

  1. Indian Rly. Construction Co. Ltd v. Ajay Kumar
  2. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
  3. Union of India v. Bashyan
  4. Rajesh Kumar v. C.I.T.

Answer: (b)

15. Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal?

  1. A member of Parliament
  2. A member of State Legislature
  3. A retired High Court judge
  4. A retired Chief Justice of a High Court.

Answer: (d)

16. I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception. This statement is of:

  1. Keeton
  2. Blackstone
  3. Cardozo
  4. Paton.

Answer: (c)

17. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law school?

  1. Immanuel Kant
  2. John Rawls
  3. Jeremy Bentham
  4. Stammler.

Answer: (c)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Utilitarian Individualism

(b) Social Utilitarian

(c) Scientific Positivism

(d) Social Engineering

List-II

(i) Pound

(ii) Bentham

(iii) Ihering

(iv) Comte

Code:

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

19. Which one of the following sources of law has the basis under Article 141 of the Constitution of India?

  1. Supreme legislation
  2. Subordinate legislation
  3. Colonial legislation
  4. Precedent.

Answer: (d)

20. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school?

  1. Savigny
  2. Ehrlich
  3. Henry Maine
  4. Hegel.

Answer: (b)

21. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and give the correct answer using code given below:

Assertion(A): A legal right is a legally protected interest

Reason(R): An element of advantage is essential to constitute right

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  4. (R) is right but (A) is wrong.

Answer: (c)

22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Inner morality of Law

(b) Minimum content of law

(c) Law with a variable Content

(d) 'Status to contract' Theory

List-II

(i) Maine

(ii) Stammler

(iii) Fuller

(iv) Hart

Code:

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Theory)

(a) Will Theory

(b) Concession Theory

(c) Declaratory Theory

(d) Command Theory

List-II (Subject)

(i) Legal Person

(ii) Analytical School

(iii) Legal Right

(iv) Precedent

Code:

  1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (c)

24. The Self evident principle of criminal justice is based on:

  1. Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege
  2. Perils of his life and liberty on refusal of bail
  3. Simple Principles based on corrective law
  4. To avoid purposeless cruelty.

Answer: (a)

25. What is the basic justification on the law of conspiracy?

  1. It does not allow a preventive action because an act of conspiracy is derived when the crime results
  2. It dispenses the difficult requirement of proximity in attempt
  3. The momentum justifies punishment
  4. The object is simply to make of a crime.

Answer: (b)

26. Which one of the expressive factors does not constitute sedition?

  1. Disapprobation of the government
  2. Excite disrespect against government
  3. Commenting on administrative actions of the government
  4. Attempting to excite disaffection against government.

Answer: (c)

27. The right to private defence against an act done by a public servant is not available:

  1. When it is discharged in good faith
  2. When it is attempted to be done by him
  3. When it was done while he was not in his office
  4. When it is strictly to be justifiable by law.

Answer: (b)

28. Which of the conditions are essential for enhanced punishment to an offender with previous conviction?

  1. The previous conviction must have been for not less than 3 years of imprisonment
  2. The subsequent offence is not punishable with imprisonment for more than 3 years
  3. The offence must be an offence relating to property or coin or government stamp
  4. The previous conviction was not in India.

Answer: (c)

29. Non-Compos mentis denotes:

  1. Every person is considered to be sane unless contrary is proved
  2. When a criminal act is performed during derangement
  3. When the cognitive facilities are such that he does not know what he has done
  4. Non-serene memory not from birth.

Answer: (c)

30. In which of the conditions the act will not be wrongful confinement?

  1. Circumscribing limits
  2. Malice
  3. Moral force
  4. Mistaken exercise of power.

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. A publisher is responsible for publishing a defamatory statement for first time only and not for repeating it
  2. Only editor and not printer and publisher are responsible for that defamatory statement in the newspaper
  3. Defamatory imputation concerning any person may be conveyed obliquely or indirectly, or by way of question, conjecture, exclamation or by irony
  4. The court does not distinguish between "character" and "reputation" for fixing liability against defamation.

Answer: (c)

32. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development and as such polluter in liable to pay the cost of the individual sufferers as well as the cost of reversing the damaged ecology

Reason(R): "Polluter pays principle" is part of the environmental jurisprudence of this country

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

33. Which one of the following principle is associated with "Trail Smelter" case?

  1. Principle of sustainable development
  2. No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another
  3. Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development
  4. Placing a duty on the State to hold environmental resources in trust for the benefit of public.

Answer: (b)

34. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

(a) National Environmental Tribunal

(b) "Doctrine of Sic utere tuo ut alienum non laedas"

(c) To stop and prevent the international traffic in dumping and resultant accumulation of toxic and dangerous products and wastes

(d) Convention or climate change strengthened

List-II

(i) Basel Convention, 1989

(ii) Rio Declaration

(iii) Kyoto Protocol, 1997

(iv) Principle 21 and 22 of Stockholm Declarations

Code:

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (c)

35. Which one of the following statement is wrong?

  1. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment which is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Art 21 of the Constitution of India
  2. The power conferred under an Environmental Statute may be exercised only to advance Environment Protection and not for a purpose that would defeat the object of the law
  3. Financial constraints of the government may be a reasonable factor to exonerate the Government/Municipal bodies from performing its statutory liability
  4. Precautionary principle imposes the onus of proof on the developer to show his or her action is environmentally benign.

Answer: (c)

36. The Supreme Court in which one of the following cases observed that, "the issue of pollution should not be resolved at the cost of the poor people's livelihood"?

  1. Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
  2. Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardhichand
  3. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  4. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

37. Under the Wild Life Protection Act, the boundaries of a National Park shall be made in one of the following way:

  1. By passing a resolution in the Parliament
  2. By passing a resolution in the Legislature of a State
  3. By passing a resolution both in the Parliament and State Legislature
  4. By passing a resolution in the Municipal Body and State Legislature.

Answer: (b)

38. 'Basel Convention' is associated with one of the following conventions on:

  1. International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
  2. The control of transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal
  3. Climate Change
  4. Protection of the ozone layer.

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following jurists deny legal character of international law?

(a) Hobbes

(b) Pufendorf

(c) Oppenheim

(d) Starke

Code:

  1. Only (a)
  2. Both (a) and (b)
  3. (a), (b) and (c)
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all.

Answer: (b)

40. In which of the following cases the world court by majority has taken the view that the sources of law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complementary and inter related?

  1. Nicaragua v. U.S.A
  2. Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
  3. Portugal v. India
  4. Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear.

Answer: (a)

41. Who of the following has viewed that there is legal duty on the part of the existing states to recognise any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics of Statehood?

  1. Oppenheim
  2. Lauterpacht
  3. Philip C. Jessup
  4. Anzilotti.

Answer: (b)

42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) In Nottebohm's case the International Court of Justice held that in respect of grant of nationality there is no obligation of the states if that man has no relationship with the State of Naturalisation

(b) In famous Re lynch case it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state he will be called Stateless

(c) Nationality is the principal link between an individual and international law

(d) The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1959 by the General Assembly

Code:

  1. Only (a) is correct
  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. (a) and (c) both are correct.

Answer: (d)

43. Read both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion(A): It is a very important principle of International Law that extradition for political crimes is not allowed.

Reason(R): Stoke v. The Public Trustee is a leading case relating to non-extradition of political criminals.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
  4. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

(a) United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted in 1977 by the General Assembly

(b) Article 14 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights makes obligatory by states to grant Asylum

(c) The international court of justice explained the distinction between 'Territorial asylum' and 'diplomatic asylum' in the Colombia v. Peru

(d) The Convention on the status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 22, 1954

Code:

  1. Only (a) is not correct
  2. (a) and (d) are not correct
  3. (a), (b) and (c) all are not correct
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.

Answer: (c)

45. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Each member may not have not more than five representatives in the General Assembly

(b) China, Russia, America, Britain and Italy are the permanent members of the security Council

(c) The members of the Economic and Social Council are elected by the security council, one-third of its members are elected every year by the security council for a term of five years

(d) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the Statute of International Court of Justice

Code:

  1. Only (a) and (d) are correct
  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (a)

46. Advisory opinion can be given by the International Court of Justice on legal question:

  1. On the request of Security Council only
  2. On the request of the General Assembly only
  3. On the request of General Assembly or the Security Council both
  4. On the request of the Economic and Social Council if authorised by the Security Council.

Answer: (c)

47. Read both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): In Mithila, a widow cannot adopt at all, not even if she has the express authority of her husband.

Reason(R): A widow may adopt under the authority from her husband.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is correct.

Answer: (a)

48. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that "We are not prepared to express any definite opinion on the question whether there can be two Karta of a Joint Hindu Family".

  1. Morarka Properties v. Biharilal Moraka
  2. Union of India v. Sree Ram Bohra
  3. Nopany Investment v. Santosh Singh
  4. Commissioner of Income Tax v. Govindram Sugar Mills.

Answer: (a)

49. In which of the following case, the court held that, "Divorce is good in law through bad in Theology"?

  1. Shah Bano case
  2. Bai Tahira case
  3. Shamim Ara case
  4. Sarabai case.

Answer: (d)

50. In Muslim law "Hizanat" related to:

  1. Father's custody of child
  2. Brother's custody of child
  3. Mother's custody of child
  4. Sister's custody of child.

Answer: (c)

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

51. Match the List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Nijhawan v. Nijhawan

(b) Daniel Latifi v. Union of India

(c) Husain Ara v. Zubaida Begum

(d) Gujarat Woman Workers Association Case

List-II

(i) Dowry

(ii) Uniform civil code

(iii) Cruelty

(iv) Maintenance

Code:

  1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (a)

52. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): 'Option of Puberty' is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.

Reason(R): "Option of Puberty"" is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct (R) is false
  4. (A) is false (R) is correct.

Answer: (b)

53. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought various grounds for dissolution of marriage based on the principles of:

  1. Shia School
  2. Hanafi School
  3. Shafai School
  4. Maliki School.

Answer: (d)

54. A muslim husband has E-mailed Talaq letter writing "I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you," without the signature of witnesses, Talaq will be:

  1. Valid
  2. Voidable
  3. Void
  4. Neither valid nor void or no talaq.

Answer: (d)

55. Sec 2(d) of 'The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines ,"human rights" means the rights relating to …………………………………. of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blank.

  1. Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity
  2. Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity
  3. Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty
  4. Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality.

Answer: (a)

56. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

  1. Sec 3…… Appointment of chairperson and other members
  2. Sec 4…… Removal of a member of the commission
  3. Sec 5…… Member to act as chairperson in certain times
  4. Sec 6…… Term of office of members.

Answer: (d)

57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the position of the members/chairpersons of N.H.R.C of India?

  1. Justice S. Rajendra Babu-02.04.2007 to 31.05.2009
  2. Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan-07.06.2010 to 11.05.2015
  3. Justice Ms.M. Fathima Beevi-03.11.1993 to 24.01.1997
  4. Justice V.S. Malimat-05.08.1994 to 12.10.1998.

Answer: (d)

58. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

(b) Declaration on the Elimination of violence against women

(c) Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination against Women

(d) Declaration on the protection of women and children in Emergency and Armed conflict

List-II

(i) Proclaimed by the U.N General Assembly resolution 3318 (XXIX) of 14 December, 1974

(ii) Adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the U.N. General Assembly resolution 34/180 of 18 December, 1979

(iii) Proclaimed by the U.N General Assembly resolution 48/104 of 20 December, 1993

(iv) Adopted by the U.N General Assembly Resolution 54/4 of 6 October, 1999 and opened for signature, ratification and accession on 10 December, 1999

Code:

  1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
  4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of Children in Armed Conflict was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000

(b) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No.182) was adopted on 15 June, 1999 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its eighty-seventh session

(c) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty Eighth session

(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November, 1989

Code:

  1. (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
  2. (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
  3. (a) and (b) are incorrect
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

60. The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of the following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg?

  1. Karel Vasak
  2. Charles O. Lee
  3. Maurice Cranston
  4. Frederic Bastiat.

Answer: (a)

61. Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and choose the answer by using the code given below:

(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal

(b) Paramananda Katara v. Union of India

(c) Social Jurists v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi

(d) Sahara House v. Union of India

Code:

  1. (b), (a), (c), (d)
  2. (d), (a), (b), (c)
  3. (b), (d), (c), (a)
  4. (c), (d), (a), (b).

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to 'absolute liability' principle laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. Answer by using the code below:

(a) The principle was approved except as to quantum of damages in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India

(b) The principle in determining compensation was applied in Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India

(c) The compensation to be awarded must have some broad correlation not only with magnitude and capacity of the enterprise but also with the harm caused by it was held in Deepak Nitrite v. State of Gujarat.

(d) The principle is not followed in India because Parliament could not pass yet Public Liability Insurance Bill, 1991

Code:

  1. Only (a) is correct
  2. (a) and (b) are correct
  3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

  1. Defamation published in permanent form-Slander
  2. Libel is recognized as offence-England
  3. Truth of defamatory matter is no defence-Civil law
  4. Action lies for defamatory statement-Absolute Privilege.

Answer: (b)

64. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer by using the code below:

Assertion(A): The existence of a duty to take care is essential before a person can be held liable in negligence.

Reason(R): The standard of care required is not a matter of law and does vary according to the individuals although it does not vary according to the circumstances.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  4. (A) is wrong but (R) is right.

Answer: (c)

65. Match List-I with List-II with regard to tort of nuisance and answer by using code below:

List-I

(a) Burden of proof, once nuisance is proved

(b) Remedy for the private nuisance

(c) Right to action for nuisance of a temporary nature

(d) Right to commit a private nuisance may be acquired

List-II

(i) Prescription

(ii) Occupier

(iii) Abatement

(iv) Defendant

Code:

  1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
  4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (d)

66. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer by using code below:

Assertion(A): According to the 'law of tort' every wrongful act for which there is no justification or excuse to be treated as a tort.

Reason(R): Theory of 'pigeon-hole' was propounded by Salmond.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  4. (A) is wrong but (R) is right.

Answer: (b)

67. The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act shall be:

  1. Only in derogation of other law
  2. No addition to other law
  3. Not in addition and in derogation of other law
  4. In addition to and not in derogation of other law.

Answer: (d)

68. Section 19-A of the Consumer Protection Act provides that State and National Commissions shall hear as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of the appeal within ninety days from the date of its admission. The Section further empowers the Commissions to make following orders; answer by using code below:

(a) Ordinarily grant no adjournment unless sufficient cause

(b) To impose costs occasioned by adjournment

(c) Record the reason for delay while disposing of the appeal

(d) Dispose of the appeal ex parte

Code:

  1. (a) and (b) are correct
  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (b)

69. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using code below:

Assertion(A): Where a bill is unintentionally cancelled by the holder or his agent and the cancellation is not apparent thereon, the bill is discharged.

Reason(R): Above principle is laid down in Section 82 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  2. Both (A) and (R) are right
  3. (A) is right but (R) is wrong
  4. (A) is wrong but (R) is right.

Answer: (a)

70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Partnership not created by status

(b) Essentials of partnership

(c) Joint Hindu Family and partnership

(d) Partnership between outsiders and joint family

List-II

(i) CST v. K. Kelukutty

(ii) Kshetra Mohan v. Commr. of Excess Profit Tax

(iii) Rakesh Kumar Dinesh Kumar v. U.G. Hotels and Resorts Ltd.

(iv) Ganpat v. Annaji

Code:

  1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (a)

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Duties of partners)

(a) Duty of absolute good faith

(b) Duty not to compete

(c) Duty of due diligence

(d) Duty to indemnify for fraud

List-II (Relevant section under the Indian Partnership Act)

(i) Section 16 (b)

(ii) Sections 12 (b) and 13 (f)

(iii) Section 10

(iv) Section 9

Code:

  1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (b)

72. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer using code given below:

Assertion(A): "Goods" means every kind of movable property including actionable claims and money and excludes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.

Reason(R): Above principle is laid down in Section 2 (7) of the Sale of Goods Act.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are right
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. (A) is wrong but, (R) is right
  4. (A) is right but, (R) is wrong.

Answer: (b)

73. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Notwithstanding any express contract the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
  2. Apart from any express contract, the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for delivery
  3. Apart from any express contract the seller of goods is bound to deliver them until the buyer applies for deliver
  4. Apart from any express contract, the buyer of goods is bound to deliver them when the seller applies for delivery.

Answer: (b)

74. Directors are agents of the company. In which of the following cases above principle was laid down. Answer using code given below:

(a) Ferguson v. Wilson

(b) Elkington and Co. v. Harter

(c) Hampshire Land Co, re

(d) Allen v. Hyatt

Code:

  1. Only (a)
  2. Only (a) and (b)
  3. Only (a), (b) and (c)
  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following case is about doctrine of ultravires?

  1. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
  2. Premier Industrial Bank Ltd. v. Carlton Mfg. Co. Ltd.
  3. Rajendra Nath Dutta v. Shibendra Nath Mukherjee
  4. Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway Co.

Answer: (d)

UGC NET QUESTION PAPER-III NOVEMBER 2017 (LAW)| Click Here to Download PDF

  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination
Tags:    

Similar News

UGC NET Law Entrance Exam | Notification, Application, Preparation

Family Law Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

UGC NET Paper-II June 2024 (Law) Re-exam Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

Intellectual Property Rights and Information Technology Law Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

Law of Crimes Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

Jurisprudence Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

Law of Torts and Consumer Protection Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

Public International Law and IHL Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

UGC NET Paper-II June 2024 (Law) Paper | Cancelled

UGC NET Law Exam Study Material | Self Preparation

Constitutional and Administrative Law Questions Asked in UGC NET Exam | UGC NET (Law) #Special

UGC NET Law Exam December 2023 - UGC NET Paper I & II