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U.P. Judiciary Prelims Paper 2018
Law Paper
Q1. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI- Section 498 A IPC
b. K.N. Mehra v. State of Rajasthan- Section 378 IPC
c. Niharendu Datt Majumdar v. Emperor- Section 124 A IPC
d. State of Haryana v. Raja Ram- Section 361 IPC
Q2. Consider the following cases and arrange them in chronological order:
1) W. Kalyani v. State through Inspector of Police
2) Yusuf Abdul Aziz v. State of Bombay
3) Joseph Shine v. UOI
4) V. Revthi v. UOI
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
a. 4,1,2,3
b. 2,4,1,3
c. 1,3,4,2
d. 3,2,1,4
Q3. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has opined that husband is not the master of his wife?
a. Joseph Shine v. UOI
b. Sarla Mudgal v. UOI
c. Lily Thomas v. UOI
d. Kailash Singh v. Priti Parihar
Q4. 'A' with intent to murder, administered lethal poison to 'Z', and then when Z was alive, a stranger 'B' without A's knowledge attacked Z and shot him dead.
a. A and B both would be guilty of murder
b. A would be guilty of culpable homicide and B would be guilty of murder
c. A would be guilty of an attempt to murder and B would be guilty of murder
d. A would be guilty of instigating B to commit murder and B would be guilty of committing murder
Q5. A, a police officer tortures Z in order to induce Z to confess that he committed a crime. A is guilty of an offence under:
a. Section 325 of IPC
b. Section 326 of IPC
c. Section 330 of IPC
d. Section 331 of IPC
Q6. A, who was entrusted by B with certain blocks for printing a catalogue, prints a catalogue of a rival firm with the same block. A is guilty of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Criminal misappropriation
c. Cheating
d. Theft
Q7. Disclosure of identity of a victim of rape is punishable under:
a. Section 376 D, IPC
b. Section 376 E, IPC
c. Section 228 IPC
d. Section 228 A, IPC
Q8. No right of private defense of property is available against the offence of:
a. Criminal breach of trust
b. Theft
c. Robbery
d. Criminal Trespass
Q9. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List 1
A) Delivery of Property
B) Taking of Property
C) Entrustment of Property
D) Convertibility of Property
List 2
1) Criminal breach of trust
2) Criminal misappropriation of property
3) Theft
4) Extortion
Code:
A B C D
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 3 1 2 4
Q10. Voyeurism is defined under which section of IPC?
a. Section 354 A
b. Section 354 B
c. Section 354 C
d. Section 355
Q11. In which case SC unanimously rules that individual autonomy and intimacy and identity are protected under fundamental rights?
a. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
b. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
c. Castle Rock v. Gonzales
d. None of the above
Q12. What is India's rank in 2018 Global Hunger Index?
a. 103rd
b. 118th
c. 92nd
d. 75th
Q13. Who became the 5th Indian to be inducted in the ICC Hall of Fame recently?
a. Anil Kamble
b. Sunil Gawaskar
c. Rahul Dravid
d. Kapil Deo
Q14. Where the 4th BIMSTECK Summit was held in 2018 with the theme 'towards a peaceful, prosperous and sustainable development of Bay of Bengal Region'?
a. Kathmandu, Nepal
b. Thailand
c. India
d. Myanmar
Q15. What is the purpose of signing an MOU between India and South Korea on November 5, 2018?
a. For strengthening cooperation in the field of tourism
b. For strengthening cooperation in field of scince
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Q16. Which Indian actor has been honoured with the Distinguished Fellow Award in Boston in 2018?
a. Amir Khan
b. Anil Kapoor
c. Anupam Kher
d. Naseeruddin Shah
Q17. United Nation's Climate Change Conference, November 2017 was held in:
a. Polland
b. Marrakesh
c. Paris
d. Bonn
Q18. Which one of the following countries hosted the 1st International Solar Alliance on 11 March 2018?
a. Bhutan
b. China
c. India
d. Pakistan
Q19. Who won the 2018 Australian Open Women's Single Title?
a. Caroline Wozniacki
b. Serena Williams
c. Simona Halep
d. Elina Svitolina
Q20. Which of the following section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 defines 'jurisdiction'?
a. Section 2(9)
b. Section 9
c. Section 15
d. Not defined
Q21. Assertion (A): A civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature
Reason (r): The cognizance of a civil suit should be expressly barred.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Q22. The maxim 'invito beneficium non datur' (The law confers upon a man no rights or benefits which he does not desire) relates to which of the following provision under the CPC, 1908?
a. Section 26
b. Order 6 Rule 1
c. Section 148 A
d. Order 23 Rule 1
Q23. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Presentation of Plaint- Section 26, Order 4 Rule 1
b. Interpleader Suits- Section 88, Order 35 Rule 1
c. Friendly suit- Section 90 Order 35
d. Equitable set-off- Order 20 Rule 19(3)
Q24. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The expresson ;decree; includes a final order
2. Garnishi is a person who is liable to pay a debt to a decree-holder or to deliver any movable property to him
Select correct statements:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Q25. Which section of the CPC, 1908 is clearly in the nature of power to issue a writ of certiorari?
a. Section 11
b. Section 105
c. Section 115
d. Section 122
Q26. It is fundamental principle of pleadings that pleadings should contain a statement of material facts only. Which of the following case has defined material facts?
a. Udhav Singh v. Madhav Rao Scindia
b. AR Antulay v. RS Nayak
c. State of Haryana v. State of Punjab
d. State of UP v. Nawab Hussain
Q27. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Judgement and decree- Section 34, CPC
2. Costs- Section 35, CPC
3. Institution of Suits- Section 26, CPC
4. Legal Representative- Section 50, CPC
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 2,3 4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4
Q28. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List 1-
A) Objection to jurisdiction
B) Addition of Parties
C) Constructive res judicata
D) Temporary injunction
List 2-
1) Razia Begum v. Sahebjadi Anwar
2) Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan
3) American Cyanamide Co. v. Ethicon Ltd
4) Workmen V. Board of Trustees, Cochin Port Trust
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 4 1 2
Q29. Suits relating to the constitutional validity of statutory instruments are provided in
a. Order 27 A, Rule 1 A, CPC
b. Order 34, Rule 1, CPC
c. Order 32 A, Rule 3, CPC
d. Order 37, Rule 2, CPC
Q30. Following is not a 'Public Officer'-
a. Every judge
b. Every member of All India Services
c. Every officer in pay of government
d. Every gazette officer in the military not under the government service
Q31. Match List 1 with List 2 and select correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-1
A) Right to lodge caveat
B) Restitution
C) Inherent power of court
D) Suits of civil nature
List-2
1. Section 144
2. Section 148 A
3. Section 151
4. Section 9
Q32. A civil court cannot issue commission in the following cases:
a. For examining a person
b. For examining accounts
c. To execute a partition
d. To execute a decree
Q33. Which section of CPC prohibits the arrest or detention of women in the execution of a decree of money?
a. Section 55
b. Section 56
c. Section 59
d. Section 60
Q34. In which one of the following cases it was held that 'inherent powers has not been conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a court'?
a. Rajni Bai v. Kamla Devi
b. Satyobrat Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kisku
c. P.C. Jairath v. Amirt Jairath
d. Manohar Lal v. Seth Hiralal
Q35. On which one of the following grounds under CPC, 1908, a warrant of arrest against a 'judgment debtor' may be cancelled by the court?
a. Serious illness
b. Appearance in marriage of his son
c. To cast Vote in general elections
d. None of the above
Q36. Section 114 of the CPC should be read with?
a. Order 46 Rule 1
b. Order 47 Rule 1
c. Order 47 Rule 3
d. Order 41
Q37. Assertion (A): An agreement the object of which is opposed to law is void
Reason (R): A valid contract requires that parties must contract for a lawful object
Select the correct answer from the given codes:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
b. Both A and R are true, and R is the not correct explanation for A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true
Q38. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List 1:
A) Dominates will of other
B) At the desire of the promisor
C) Contract to do or not to do something
D) Where a person lawfully does anything for another person
List 2:
1. Consideration
2. Quasi Contract
3. Undue Influence
4. Contingent Contract
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 4 2 3
Q39. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the others:
a. Is a void contract
b. Is an illegal contract
c. Is a voidable contract
d. Is an unenforceable contract
Q40. Which of the following statement is correct? The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the acceptor?
a. When it comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
b. When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
c. When it comes to knowledge of both
d. When it comes to knowledge of third party
Q41. Following is a case on Promissory Estoppel-
a. Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohamed
b. Delhi Cloth and General Mills Ltd. v UOI
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Q42. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Coercion- Chikkam Amiraju v. Chikkam Seshma
b. Liquidated damages- Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. v. New Garage and Motor Co.
c. Impossibility of performance- Alopi Parshad and Sons v. UOI
d. Public Policy- Hadley v. Baxendale
Q43. With reference to fraud and misrepresentation, which of the statement is correct?
a. Both render contract voidable
b. Fraud rends a cause of action in tort for damages
c. Simple misrepresentation is also a tort
Select the correct answer:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2, and 3.
Q44. A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery and B promises to restore the value of the things taken:
a. The agreement is void, as the consideration for it is unlawful
b. The agreement is void as the value of the things taken is uncertain
c. The agreement is void as its object is unlawful
d. The agreement is void as the object of it is illegal
Q45. Consider the following statements:
1. Performance of a legal duty is no consideration of promise
2. Forbearance to sue has always been regarded as valuable consideration
3. It is not necessary that consideration should be adequate to the promise
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2,3
d. 1 and 2
Q46. The Indian Contract (Amendment) Act, 1997 has amended:
a. Section 26 of Indian Contract Act
b. Section 27 of Indian Contract Act
c. Section 28 of Indian Contract Act
d. Section 75 of the Indian Contract Act
Q47. Change of the nature of obligation in a contract is known as:
a. Rescission
b. Novation
c. Renovation
d. Alteration
Q48. Under Section 68 of Indian Contract Act, the minor
a. Is personally liable
b. Only his property is liable
c. Minor is personally liable and his property also
d. None of the above is correct
Q49. 'Continuing Guarantee' has been defined under:
a. Section 124 of Indian Contract Act
b. Section 129 of Indian Contract Act
c. Section 146 of Indian Contract Act
d. Section 148 of Indian Contract Act
Q50. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using code given below:
List 1-
A) Doctrine of frustration
B) Special Damages
C) Anticipatory Breach of contract
D) Cross offer
List 2-
1) Taylor v Caldwell
2) Hochestors v. de la tour
3) Tinn v. Hoffman and co.
4) Hadley v. baxendale
CODES:
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
Q.51. An Agreement to Wager is-
a) Voidable
b) Unlawful
c) Void
d) Void and unlawful
Q.52. In which of the following sections does the Indian Contract Act embodies the rule of Claton's case relating to the appropriation of payments?
a) Section 62
b) Section 59
c) Section 58
d) Section 61
Q.53. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass-
a) Any sentence except imprisonment for life.
b) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three years
c) Sentence of imprisonment for a term upto seven years
d) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years
Q.54. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Complaint- Section 2(d), Cr.P.C.
b) Police report- Section 2(r ), Cr.P.C.
c) Content of Judgement-Section 354, Cr.P.C.
d) Victim Compensation Scheme-Section 357, Cr.P.C.
Q.55. A Criminal Proceeding which is not compoundable can be quashed by-
a) The Judicial Magistrate First Class
b) The District and Session Judge
c) The High Court
d) The Supreme Court
Q.56. Assertion (A): Where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on such plea, there shall be no appeal.
Reason (R): A Person who deliberately pleads guilty cannot be aggrieved by being convicted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is True, but (R) is False.
(A) is False but (R) is True.
Q.57. With reference to the "Charge", which of the statement is/are correct?
1) Every charge under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 states the offences with which the accused may be charged.
2) If in the course of same transaction, more offences than one are committed by the same person, he can be charged at one trial.
a) Only 1
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.58. In the case of a continuing offence a fresh period of limitation commences-
a) From the date of offence
b) On the first day on which such offence comes to the knowledge of any police officer
c) On the first day on which the identity of the offender is known to the person aggrieved by the offence.
d) At every moment of time during which the offence continues.
Q.59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the list:
List I
a) Anticipatory bail
b) Cognizance on complaint
c) Language of Courts
d) Security of good behaviour from habitual offenders
List II
1) Section 272 Cr.P.C.
2) Section 110 Cr.P.C.
3) Section 438 Cr.P.C.
4) Section 190 Cr.P.C.
Code:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
1 3 4 2
4 2 3 1
3 4 1 2
Q.60. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018?
a) Section 163
b) Section 173
c) Section 183
d) Section 193
Q 61. The maxim " Nemo debt bis vexori pro eadem causa "finds place n which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a) Section 299
b) Section 300
c) Section 301
d) None of the above
Q. 62. When an appeal has been filed under Section 374 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 against a sentence passed under Section 376-D of the Indian Penal Code, the appeal shall be disposed of-
a) within the period of six months from date of filing of such appeal.
b) within the period of three month from the date of filing of such appeal.
c) within the period of nine months from the date of filing of such appeal
d) within the reasonable period.
Q 63. Which provision of the Cr. P.C. resembles with Habeas Corpus writ?
a) Section 91
b) Section 93
c) Section 97
d) Section 96
Q.64. When a search is required to be conducted outside India, a criminal court may require under section 106- A of the code of criminal procedure to issue a-
a) Search warrant
b) Letter of requisition
c) Letter of request
d) Written order
Q.65. "The bail is rule, jail is exception" This rule was laid down by the Supreme Court in:
a) Joginder Singh v. State of U.P.
b) Pritam Singh v. State of Punjab
c) Moti Ram v. State of M.P.
d) Rajkumari v. State of U.P.
Q.66. The provisions of examination of arrested person by medical officer is provided under which section of Code of Criminal Procedure?
a) Section 53
b) Section 54
c) Section 55
d) Section 64
Q.67. Under Section 164- A of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the victim of rape shall be sent to a registered medical practitioner for examination within ----from the time of receiving the information relating to the commission of offence-
a) 6 Hours
b) 12 Hours
c) 24 Hours
d) 36 Hours
Q.68. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the written statement can be submitted even after expiry of 90 days from the date of service of Summons?
a) Kailash v. Nankhu
b) Harish Bajpai v. Triloki Singh
c) Salim Bhai v. State of Maharashtra
d) Daryao v. State of U.P.
Q.69. "Dasti" Summons for Service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under-
a) Order 5 Rule 4-A Cr.P.C.
b) Order 5 Rule 9 C.P.C
c) Order 4 Rule 7 C.P.C
d) Order 6 Rule 6 C.P.C
Q.70. The case of Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P. is related to:
a) Res gestae
b) Plea of alibi
c) Admission
d) Accomplice
Q.71. The constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly on-
a) 24 January, 1950
b) 26 November ,1949
c) 17 October 1949
d) 10 December 1948
Q.72. The short title of the Constitution "Constitution of India" is mentioned under Article-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 393
d) 394
Q.73. In educational institutions, reservation of seats in favour of Scheduled Caste and scheduled Tribes is governed by-
a) Article 15(4) of the Constitution
b) Article 16(4) of the Constitution
c) Article 29(2) of the Constitution
d) Article 14 of the Constitution
Q.74. Which of the following has been described by Justice Gajendragadkar as the "very foundation and cornerstone of the democratic way of life ushered in this country by the Constitution"?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Rights
c)Fundamental Duties
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Q.75. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. UOI(2017) was decided by-
a) A Bench of 9 Judges
b) A Bench of 7 Judges
c) A Bench of 11 Judges
d) A Bench of 5 Judges
Q.76. In which of the following case did the majority judgement of the Supreme Court held that Aadhar gave them not only a unique identity but also a life dignity?
a) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. UOI
b) B.L. Kapoor v. State of Karnataka
c) Joseph v. UOI
d) None of the Above
Q.77. In which case, the Supreme Court has observed that "Social morality also changes from age to age"?
a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
b) NALSA v. UOI
c) A.K. Kraipak v. UOI
d) A.K Gopalan v. State of Madras
Q.78. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answers using the code given below the lists:
List I
a) Article 39 A
b) Article 213
c) Article 44
d) Article 50
List II
a) Ordinance issuing power of the Governer
b) Uniform Civil Code
c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
d) Free Legal Aid
Code:
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 4 1 3 2
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 1 4 3 2
Q.79. Assertion (A) Directive Principles of State Policy are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19(2).
Reason (R) Directive Principles of State policy have been declared superior to the Fundamental Rights.
Code-
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
b. Both A and R are true, and R is the not correct explanation for A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true
Q.80. Match List I & II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 1 3 2 4
Q.81. What is correct chronological order in which the following provisions were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?
1) Right to Education as Fundamental Right
2) Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court
3) Nagar Palika Act
4) Free Legal Aid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 4,2,3,1
b) 4,3,2,1
c) 1,3,2,4
d) 3,1,2,4
Q.82. The Supreme Court is the guardian of Rule of Law. This observation has been made by the Supreme Court in-
a) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
b) In Re, Arundhati Ray
c) BALCO Employees Union v. Union of India
d) Bejoy Kumar Mohaty v. Jadu
Q.83. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court of India relating to 'Personal Liberty' in correct chronological order.
i) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
ii) A.D.M Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla
iii) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
a) iii,ii,i
b) ii,i,iii
c) ii,iii,i
d) i,ii,iii
Q.84. The principle of "Collective Responsibility" has been incorporated in:
a) Article 75
b) Article 74
c) Article 73
d) Article 76
Q. 85. Assertion(A): Right to education is a fundamental right.
Reason (R): Our Constitution had no provision for education before making right to education as a fundamental right.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
b. Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation for A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Q.86. Which one of the following is not included in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
a) Right to die
b) Right to life
c) Right to Livelihood
d) Right to Dignity
Q.87. "Persons in possession of an object have better title over it, against the whole world except the real owner". This principle has been illustrated in which of the following cases?
a) Armory v. Delamire
b) Bridges v. Hawkeswath
c) R. v. Moor
d) R.C. Cohen's Case
Q 88. Which one of the following theories has been proposed by Savigny to explain legal personality?
a. Realist Theory
b. Fiction Theory
c. Bracket Theory
d. Purpose Theory
Q 89. Which one of the following jurists has rejected customary law as law?
a. Austin
b. Kant
c. Keeton
d. Savigny
Q 90. Who is the author of the book "Taking Rights Seriously"?
a. Hart
b. Dworkin
c. Kelson
d. Julius Stone
Q 91. "Some shared morality is essential to the existence of any society" is the assertion of:
a. Fuller
b. Hart
c. Kelson
d. Justice Krishna Iyer
Q 92. Who propounded that Animus Domini is an essential element of possession?
a. Savigny
b. Salmond
c. Pollock
d. Ihering
Q 93. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List 1
A) Thomas Aquinas
B) John Austin
C) Kelson
D) Rawls
List 2
1) Normative Order
2) Command Theory
3) Dictates of reasoning
4) Theory of justice
5) System of Rules
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 4 2 5 1
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 2 1 1
Q 94. Arrange the following stages of development of law according to Maine:
a. Customary law
b. Law made by the ruler under divine inspirations
c. Codification
d. Knowledge of law in the hands of priests
Select the correct order of development using the code given below:
a. 4,2,1,3
b. 2,1,4,3
c. 3,1,2,4
d. 4,3,2,1
Q95. "Justice is the first virtue of social institutions" is the observation of whom?
a. R Pound
b. Aristotle
c. John Rawls
d. Mahatma Gandhi
Q 96. "The search for natural law will continue as long as there perceived to be injustice in the world" is the statement of:
a. Hobbes
b. Justice Holmes
c. Lord Lloyd of Hampstead
d. Rousseau
Q 97. Duguit has built up his doctrine on the basis of division of labour and social cohesion. It is known as doctrine of:
a. Grundnorm
b. Social Solidarity
c. Positivism
d. Social Plan Theory
Q 98. What does the doctrine of precedent mean? Choose the correct answer from the options below:
a. A previous case which may be taken as a rule for subsequent cases
b. A decision of a subordinate court is binding on other subordinate courts
c. A decision of one HC is binding on another HC
d. An authority to be followed by all courts
Q 99. Jurisprudence is the "Scientific Synthesis of essential principles of law"- is the statement of?
a. HLA Hart
b. Julius Stone
c. Friedmann
d. CK Allen
Q 100. "Law is reason free from all passion" this statement is of whom?
a. HLA Hart
b. Julius Stone
c. Friedmann
d. CK Allen
Q 101. In which case SC has given preference to constitutional morality over social morality?
a. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
b. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. UOI
c. Sayara Bano v. UOI
d. GNCTD v. UOI
Q 102. The case of 'Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor' relates to?
a. Doctrine of estoppel
b. Accomplice
c. Dying Declaration
d. Cross-examination
Q 103. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for any proof of fact?
a. Section 135
b. Section 134
c. Section 136
d. Section 132
Q 104. In which of the following 'accomplice' is declared competent witness?
a. Section 114 of Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 111 of Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 123 of Indian Evidence Act
d. Section 133 of Indian Evidence Act
Q 105. Which special provision regarding proving of records have been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act by the IT Act 2000?
a. Section 56 A and B
b. Section 65 A and B
c. Section 55 A and B
d. Section 35 A and B
Q 106. Assertion (A): Proviso to Section 132 Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a facet of rule against self-incrimination.
Reason (R): Policy of Section 132, Indian Evidence Act is to procure evidence for doing justice.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct reason for A
b. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct reason for A
c. A is true, but R is false
d. A is false, but R is true
Q 107. If a witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in the open court then evidence so given shall be deemed to be:
a. Documentary Evidence
b. Oral evidence
c. Primary evidence
d. Secondary evidence
Q 108. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List 1
A) Refreshing the memories
B) Dying Declaration
C) Leading Question
D) Hostile witness
List 2
1) Section 159
2) Section 154
3) Section 32 (1)
4) Section 141
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 2 3 4
Q109. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. Presumption as to document thirty years old- Section 90
b. Burden of proving that person is alive who has not been heard of for 7 years- Section 108
c. Dumb Witness- Section 119
d. Presumptions as to dowry death- Section 113 A
Q 110. In which one of the following cases the constitutional validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act was challenged on the basis of being violative of Article 20 (3) of the Indian Constitution?
a. State of UP v. Deoman Upadhyay
b. State of Bombay v. Kathikalu
c. Inayatullah v. State of Maharashtra
d. Nandini Satpathi v. P.L. Dani
Q 111. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to which of the following?
a. Dying Declaration
b. Confession
c. Relevancy of Judgements
d. Entries in books of accounts
Q 112. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 deals with conclusive proof?
a. 41,112 and 113
b. 112
c. 113
d. 112 and 113
Q 113. "A confession even consists of conversation to oneself, for it is not necessary for the relevancy of a confession that it should be communicated to some other person", was held in the case of:
a. Shankaria v. State of Rajasthan
b. Boota Singh v. State of Punjab
c. Sahoo v. State of UP
d. Nishikant Jha v. State of Bihar
Q 114. A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with the intent to murder him:
a. Is relevant
b. Is irrelevant
c. Is relevant but cannot be proved
d. None of the above
Q 115. Even a student may be treated as an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act it was held in which case by SC?
a. Bhoginbhai Hirbhai v. State of Gujarat
b. Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta
c. Ram Parkash v. State of Punjab
d. Nathu Singh v. State of UP
Q 116. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:
a. Confession
b. Dying Declaration
c. Hearsay Evidence
d. Documentary Evidence
Q 117. When the first session of UN General Assembly was held?
a. January 10, 1946
b. January 10, 1945
c. January 10, 1947
d. January 10, 1948
Q 118. Which one of the following organs of the UNO performs Legislative functions?
a. The Trusteeship Council
b. The Security Council
c. The General Assembly
d. The Economic and Social Council
Q 119. Which of the following articles of the UN Charter provide that the statute of ICJ is based on PCIJ?
a. 90
b. 91
c. 92
d. 102
Q 120. Under which Article of the UN Charter the members of the United Nations have agreed to abide by the decisions of the Security Council?
a. Article 24
b. Article 25
c. Article 26
d. Article 27
Q 121. The budget of the International Court of Justice is approved by:
a. The General Assembly
b. The General Assembly and ICJ
c. The Security Council
d. The Secretary General of the UN
Q 122. The members of the ECOSOC are elected for 3 years. How many members are elected every year?
a. Two third
b. Three forth
c. One third
d. None of these
Q 123. Which one of the following mentions that "everyone has the right to nationality'?
a. Geneva Convention, 1951
b. UNHC for Refugees
c. European Council on Refugees and Exiles
d. UDHR
Q 124. Sources of International Law are mentioned in the following article of the statute of the International Court of Justice:
a. Article 38
b. Article 35
c. Article 36
d. Article 34
Q 125. Each member of the Security Council shall have:
a. 4 representatives
b. 5 representatives
c. 2 representatives
d. 1 representative
Q 126. Who has said, " We are a world in pieced, We need to be World at Peace":
a. Kofi Annan
b. Bon Ki Moon
c. Antonio Guterres
d. Michelle Bachelet
Q 127. When did the Sustainable Development Goals of UNDP came into effect?
a. March 2016
b. May 2015
c. January 2016
d. September 2017
Q 128. International Panel on Climate Change is the leading international body established by:
a. United Nations Environmental Program
b. UN Development Program
c. World Maritime Organisation
d. UN Environmental and World Maritime Organisation both
Q 129. Which of the following executes the decisions of the International Court of Justice?
a. Military Staff Committee
b. General Assembly
c. ICJ itself
d. Security Council
Q 130. The basis of United Nations Organisations is:
a. Sovereign equality
b. Economic and social advancement of all people
c. Cultural, economic and social advancement of people
d. none of the above
Q 131. Purposes and principles of the UN are laid down in:
a. Articles 2 and 3 of UN Charter
b. Articles 1 and 2 of UN Charter
c. Articles 2 and 4 of UN Charter
d. Articles 1 and 4 of UN Charter
Q 132. Who was the first lady chief guest at the Deepotsava organized in 2018 by the UP Government in Ayodhya?
a. Kim Jung Sook
b. Soon
c. Aung San Suu Kyi
d. None of the above
Q 133. Match List 1 and List 2 and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List 1
A) Doctrine of subrogation
B) Rule against perpetuity
C) Feeding grant by estoppel
D) Doctrine of accumulation
List 2
1) Section 92
2) Section 14
3) Section 43
4) Section 17
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 1
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 3 2 4 1
Q 134. The Transfer of Property Act does not contemplate:
a. Actual notice
b. Implied notice
c. Notice in transaction
d. Imputed notice
Q 135. Under the Transfer of Property Act, when can an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit?
a. Upon his birth
b. Upon completing his majority age
c. Upon his marriage
d. None of the above
Q 136. Which one of the following is not an immovable property?
a. Right to collect tendu leaves
b. Right to catch fish
c. Right to worship
d. Right of easement
Q 137. In which one of the following cases it was held that partition is not a transfer of property?
a. V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar
b. Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi
c. Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shashtri
d. None of the above
Q 138. In which of the following sections of TPA the doctrine of consolidation incorporated?
a. Section 60
b. Section 61
c. Section 62
d. Section 63
Q 139. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List 1:
A) Premium
B) Universal Donee
C) Redemption
D) Purchaser
List 2:
1) Mortgage
2) Gift
3) Lease
4) Sale
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 3 2
Q 140. Which of the following is not an important element of lease?
a. Party
b. Property
c. Partial Transfer
d. Complete Transfer
Q 141. Choose the correct statement:
a. Tenancy at sufferance is the smallest interest which a person may probably get main immovable property
b. Tenancy at sufferance may normally arise out of an agreement between the parties
c. Transfer or will of tenancy at sufferance is possible
d. None of the above
Q 142. Which of the following is an actionable claim?
a. Copyright of a book
b. Muslim women's claim for unpaid dower
c. Right to get damages under the law of torts
d. Claim for mesne profits
Q 143. What shall be deemed to be a lease in cases of agriculture lease in the absence of written contract or local usage?
a. From month to month
b. Of eleven months
c. From year to year
d. Of 12 years
Q 144. Which of the following sections of the Transfer pf Property Act provides for the doctrine of substituted security?
a. 72
b. 73
c. 74
d. 75
Q 145. Which property cannot be transferred?
a. Public office
b. Mere chance to succeed
c. Mere right of re-entry
d. All of the above
Q 146. Doctrine of election comes under chapter ....... of the TPA:
a. VII
b. II
c. IV
d. V
Q 147. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 comes into force from:
a. 11 August 2018
b. 21 April 2018
c. 1 September 2018
d. 1 July 2018
Q 148. In case of criminal misappropriation, subsequent intention must be
a. Fraudulent
b. Dishonest
c. Innocent
d. Illegal
Q 149. The doctrine of joint liability, as envisaged by Section 34 of IPC is based on the decision of the following:
a. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
b. Mulcahy V. R
c. Pandurang v. State of Hyderabad
d. Reg. v. Cruise
Q 150. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
a. Harbour- Section 51- A IPC
b. Wrongful Loss- Section 23 IPC
c. Gang rape of woman under 12 years of age- Section 376 DB IPC
d. Gang rape- Section 376 D IPC
Select the correct answer:
a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,2,4
Answer Key
1. A
2. B.
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. A
27. A
28. A
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. D
33. B
34. D
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. C
56. A
57. C
58. D
59. D
61. B
62. A
63. C
64. C
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. A
70. B
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. B
78. C
79. C
80. B
81. A
82. D
83. A
84. A
85. D
86. A
87. A
88. B
89. A
90. B
91. B
92. A
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. C
97. B
98. A
99. D
100. D
111. B
112. A
113. C
114. B
115. B
116. C
117. A
118. C
119. C
120. B
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. A
125. D
126. C
127. C
128. D
129. D
130. A
131. B
132. A
133. A
134. C
135. B
136. C
137. A
138. B
139. A
140. D
141. A
142. B
143. C
144. B
145. D
146. B
147. B
148. B
149. D
150. C