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U.P. Judiciary Prelims Paper 2015
Paper 1
General Knowledge
1. On which topic President of India, late A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was, giving a lecture when he suffered a severe heart attack and died later?
(A) Life on Earth
(B) Livable Planet
(C) Search for possibility of life on moon
(D) Multiple dimensions of innovations
2. From year 1954 till 2014, how many eminent persons have been given the highest civilian award, "Bharat Ratna"?
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 44
(D) 45
3. The Headquarters of 'INTERPOLE' (International Police) is situated at
(A) London (England)
(B) Vienna (Austria)
(C) Lyons (France)
(D) Geneva (Switzerland)
4. What is the name of Parliament of Afghanistan?
(A) Majlis
(B) Shora
(C) National Assembly
(D) Jatiya Sansad
5. In which year, Taj Mahal was included in UNESCO's list of World Heritage Sites?
(A) 1973
(B) 1983
(C) 1987
(D) 2004
6. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's 125th birth anniversary will be held in the year
(A) 2016
(B) 2018
(C) 2019
(D) 2020
7. Who among the following has authored the recent book: 'Gods of Corruption' highlighting involvement of high-ups?
(A) Ajit Seth
(B) Promila Shankar
(C) T.S.R. Subrahmanyam
(D) Shashank Shekhar
8. Famous renowned space scientist and Ex-President of India APJ Abdul Kalam's full name is
(A) Abdul Pakar Jainuluddin Abdul Kalam
(B) Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam
(C) Akhlaq Pakir Jainuljafri Abdul Kalam
(D) Ali Pakir Jainulakhlaq Abdul Kalam
9. Full form of SIM is
(A) Subscribers Identity Module
(B) Subscribers Identity Mechanism
(C) Self Identity Machine
(D) Self Identity Module
10. The instrument used in 'lie' detecting is
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Seismograph
(C) Polygraph
(D) Phonograph
11. Protein present in wheat grain is
(A) Albumin
(B) Cysteine
(C) Glutenin
(D) Keratin
12. National Flower of India is
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Gudhal
(D) Sunflower
13. Which of the following is a sulphur-containing amino acid?
(A) Tryptophan
(B) Proline
(C) Methionine
(D) Aspartic acid
14. Five countries are contributing for construction of world's largest telescope. 'Thirty meter'. These countries are
(A) India, China, Japan, Germany & Pakistan
(B) India, China, America & Pakistan
(C) India, China, Japan, America & Canada
(D) China, Japan, America, Canada & England
15. The 'God-Particle' is
(A) Photon of Sunlight
(B) Smallest vibrating Particle Phonon
(C) Higgs-Boson Particle
(D) Quantum Particle
16. Indian Space Mission related to planet mass is named as MOM, which is meant for
(A) Mapping of Mars
(B) Mapper of Mars
(C) Mars Orbiter Mission
(D) Mars Odissi Mission
17. 'BRAHMOS', a supersonic missile jointly developed by India and Russia was adopted by Indian Army on
(A) 21 June, 2007
(B) 20 March, 2013
(C) 20 June, 2013
(D) 21 March, 2007
18. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was established in
(A) 1972
(B) 1969
(C) 1962
(D) 1958
19. 'Gate Way of Information' is
(A) e-mail
(B) Pager
(C) Cellular Phone
(D) Internet
20. 'E-Diesel' is ethanol mixed diesel fuel which is prepared from ordinary diesel by mixing ethanol in percentage of
(A) 7.70
(B) 5.50
(C) 4.50
(D) 2.70
21. In western hemisphere, ozone-layer hole is a major factor for the incidence of which of the following ailments?
(A) Baldness
(B) Asthma
(C) Skin cancer
(D) Lung cancer
22. Which one of the following is not digested in human body?
(A) Starch
(B) Casein
(C) Cellulose
(D) Vegetable oil
23. When kept in air, which of the following elements glows in dark?
(A) Platinum
(B) Strontium
(C) White phosphorus
(D) Red phosphorus
24. Which one of the following organic substances is an
(A) Lindane
(B) Pyrene
(C) Oil of Wintergreen
(D) Chloroform
25. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-I List-II A. Vitamin A 1. Beri-beri B. Vitamin B 2. Night-blindness C. Vitamin C 3. Rickets D. Vitamin D 4. Scurvy
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
26. National Botanical Research Institute is situated at
(A) Lucknow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Dehradun
(D) Chennai
27. Which among the following is known as laughing gas?
(A) Nitrous oxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) Nitrogen pentoxide
28. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute is located at
(A) Goa
(B) Kochi
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Puri
29. The Coromandal Coast is located in the State of
(A) Kerala
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
30. Arrange the following events in chronological order using the codes given below:(1) Abolition of Jazia (2) Abolition of Pilgrimage Tax (3) Construction of Ibadat Khana (4) Foundation of 'Din-i-Ilahi'
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
31. Which of the following emperors was known as 'Shah-i-bekhabar'?
(A) Humayun
(B) Jahangir
(C) Bahadurshah-I
(D) Farrukhsiyar
32. Which of the following emperors had the highest number of Hindu generals in the army?
(A) Babar
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Aurangzeb
33. 'Rajm Nama' is the Persian translation of
(A) Arthashastra
(B) Ramayana
(C) Mahabharata
(D) Upanishada
34. Maluk Das was a saint poet residing at
(A) Agra
(B) Ayodhya
(C) Kashi
(D) Kara
35. Which of the following Rajput houses was the first to establish matrimonial relation with emperor Akbar?
(A) Rathore
(B) Kachwaha
(C) Chauhan
(D) Sisodiya
36. Musical instrument 'Sitar' was invented by
(A) Amir Khusro
(B) Ramdas
(C) Tansen
(D) Haridas
37. Which Sufi Saint remarked 'Hanooj Dilli Dur Ast' (Delhi is still far away)?
(A) Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Delhi
(B) Nizamuddin Aulia
(C) Shaikh Bakhtiyar Kaki
(D) Baba Farid
38. 'Bijak' is a collection of the sayings of
(A) Baba Farid
(B) Ramanand
(C) Guru Nanak
(D) Kabir
39. Panchayati Raj is a system of
(A) Local government
(B) Local administration
(C) Local self-government
(D) local self government
40. Which one of the following is a member of 'ASEAN' (Association of South East Asian Nations) formed in 1967?
(A) Thailand
(B) Australia
(C) New Zealand
(D) None of the above
41. The Indian foreign policy was formulated by
(A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
42. After K-2, which of the following is second highest mountain peak in India?
(A) Kamet
(B) Nandadevi
(C) Kanchenjunga
(D) Shudu Thempa
43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?(States) (Major Hydel-Power Station) (A) Gujarat - Tawa (B) Rajasthan - Jawahar Sagar (C) West Bengal - Panchet Hill (D) Madhya Pradesh - Khopoli
44. Which one of the following tribes belongs to Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand?
(A) Itnar
(B) Tharu
(C) Bhil
(D) Munda
45. Badrinath is located in
(A) Kumaun Himalaya
(B) Central Himalaya
(C) Himadri
(D) Trans-Himalaya
46. Who among the following prepared a scientific classification of forests?
(A) H.G. Champion
(B) K.V. Sundaram.
(C) B.L. Sukhwal
(D) L.D. Stamp
47. The eastern most place of India is located in the State of
(A) Mizoram
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland
48. 'Kevti' Waterfall is located in which of the following districts?
(A) Rewa
(B) Rohtas
(C) Ranchi
(D) Jabalpur
49. Largest bauxite producing State in India (2014) is
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Rajasthan.
(C) Odisha
(D) Tamil Nadu
50. The 'Wage good strategy' of development was formulated by
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) C. Vakil
(C) P.C. Mahalanobis
(D) J. Bhagwati
51. Who among the following represented India In the International Yoga Day Celebrations held in New York on 21st June, 2015?
(A) Uma Bharati
(B) Sumitra Mahajan
(C) Sushma Swaraj
(D) Vasundhara Raje
52. Consider the statement:Assertion (A): The State Election Commission is appointed by the State Government. Reason (R): It has the responsibility of holding elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 30th (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
53. How many Nations had signed the Charter of United Nations on 26th June, 1945?
(A) 64
(B) 61
(C) 52
(D) 51
54. How many women members were there in the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15
55. To whom among the following did Buddha preach his last sermon?
(A) Subhadda
(B) Anand
(C) Yash
(D) Gautami
56. From which site of prehistoric age evidence of cremating pet-dog with man has been found?
(A) Koldihawa
(B) Panchoh
(C) Burzhome
(D) Gufkaral
57. Which of the Indian States had a diarchy system of government at the time of Alexander's invasion?
(A) Patal
(B) Fegela
(C) Gandaris
(D) Siboi
58. Whose relics are preserved in the Second Stupa at Sanchi?
(A) Missionaries of Ashokan age
(B) Lord Buddha
(C) Sariputra ch
(D) Mahamodglyeyan
59. Which temple of North India has its Shikhar (spire) in Dravid style?
(A) Bhitargaon
(B) Deogarh
(C) Sas-Bahu temple
(D) Teli temple at Gwalior
60. The first excavated Indus site after the Independence of India is
(A) Ropar
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Banavali
(D) Lothal
61. Which is the port city of Indus Valley culture?
(A) Mohenjodaro
(B) Harappa
(C) Kalibanga
(D) Lothal
62. How many slokas are present in Rajtarangini of Kalhana?
(A) Eight thousand
(B) Nine thousand
(C) Ten thousand
(D) Eleven thousand
63. Which of the following tribes does not belong to the Panchjana of Rigveda?
(A) Yadu
(B) Puru
(C) Turvasa
(D) Kikat
64. Which of the following inscriptions mentions Vedic Gods?
(A) Mansehra
(B) Shahbajgarhi
(C) Boghazkoi
(D) Junagarh
65. King Kharvela of Kalinga belonged to which dynasty?
(A) Chedi
(B) Kadamba
(C) Haryanka
(D) Kalinga
66. Which one of the following is the name of the Book written by Magasthnase?
(A) Deep Vansh
(B) Kapur Manjan
(C) Geography
(D) Indica
67. Who is regarded as the father of Indian pre-history?
(A) Cunnigham
(B) Bruce Froot
(C) Marshall
(D) William King
68. Who among the following called himself 'The Parrot of India'?
(A) Malik Muhammad Jaisi
(B) Raskhan
(C) Amri Khusrau
(D) Amir Hasan
69. Who among the following built the 'Qutub Minar'?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firozshah Tughlaq
(D) All the above
70. At which of the following places Jawaharlal Nehru unfurled the tricolour in 1930?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Lahore
(D) Lucknow
71. Who was the great force behind the foundation of the first Indian Women's University in Bombay in 1906?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) D.K. Karve
(C) S.S. Bangali
(D) V.M. Malabari
72. The largest ocean of the world is
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
73. The largest Mica producing State in India is river
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
74. Which one of the following is the longest in India?
(A) Godavari
(B) Narmada
(C) Krishna
(D) Yamuna
75. Which one of the following country has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forests?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) India
(D) United Kingdom
76. Chandra Prabha National Park is located in
(A) Varanasi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Jaunpur
(D) Saharanpur
77. Disaster Management Act was enacted in India, in the year
(A) 2001
(B) 2003
(C) 2005
(D) 2012
78. The National Capital Region Planning Board was set up in India in the year
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1985
(D) 1995
79. Which of the following tribes belongs to Nilgiri hills?
(A) Maria
(B) Asur
(C) Badga
(D) Saharia
80. The Patkai hills separate India from
(A) China
(B) Myanmar
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
81. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-I List-II (Industry) (Place) A. Sugar 1. Dalmia Dadari B. Paper 2. Dhampur C. Cement 3. Chandrapur D. Iron & Steel 4. Bokaro
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
82. As per Census 2011 of India, which of the following States has lowest percent of urban population?
(A) Tripura
(B) Sikkim
(C) Bihar
(D) Himachal Pradesh
83. Which of the following Constitutional (Amendment) Acts provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States?
(A) Fourth (Amendment) Act
(B) Seventh (Amendment) Act
(C) Eleventh (Amendment) Act
(D) Twenty Fourth (Amendment) Act
84. The basic-structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(A) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.
(B) The Constitution can not be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368.
(C) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the Constitution and at the same time it represents real spirit of Constitution.
(D) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they can not be amended.
85. Who among the following has termed Indian Federalism as "Co-Operative Federalism"?
(A) K.C. Wheare
(B) Morris Jones
(C) Granville Austin
(D) Jennings
86. Which one of the following statements regarding 'Exit Poll' is correct?
(A) 'Exit-Poll' is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they have exercised their franchise.
(B) 'Exit-Poll' and 'Opinion-Poll' are one and the same.
(C) 'Exit-Poll' is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted.
(D) 'Exit-Poll' is an administrative device made by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation.
87. Which of the following models of bureaucracy exists in India today?
(A) Committed bureaucracy
(B) Fully politicised bureaucracy
(C) Semi-political bureaucracy
(D) Depoliticised bureaucracy
88. According to the Balwantrai Mehta Committee, the District collector should be
(A) kept out of the Zila Parishad
(B) a non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(C) a member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(D) the Chairman of the Zila Parishad
89. Which of the following is not a source of revenue for the village panchayats?
(A) Tax on agricultural income
(B) Tax on property, animals and vehicles
(C) Voluntary donations
(D) Grant from the State Government
90. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first (In the order) by
(A) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
91. In India, Central Vigilance Commission was set-up on the recommendation of
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of
(B) Gorwala Report
(C) Kripalani Committee
(D) Santhanam Committee
92. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial-Jurisdiction over 'Andaman and Nicobar' Islands?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Orissa
93. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(A) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(B) prepare the Annual Budget
(C) advice the President on financial matters
(D) allocate funds to various ministers of the Union and State Governments
94. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) President of India
(D) National Development Council
95. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Indian Audit?
(A) Indian Audit is primarily a legality audit.
(B) Indian Audit is governed not by law but by an executive order.
(C) The Audit is mostly limited to the expenditure side only.
(D) All the three above.
96. Which one of the following recommended the creation of the office of 'Lokpal'?
(A) National Police Commission
(B) States Reorganization Commission
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) Inter-State Council
97. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
(A) U.N. General Assembly only
(B) U.N. Security Council only
(C) U.N. General Assembly and U.N. Security Council both
(D) Economic and Social Council
98. 'Optional clause' which defines the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice originates from which one of the following Articles of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?
(A) Article 34
(B) Article 35
(C) Article 36
(D) Article 40
99. The historic Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh in which the two countries agreed to transfer the enclaves to each others sovereignty was concluded in
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1974
(D) 1975
100. The number of 'SAARC' (South Asian Association of Regional Co-operation) countries is
(A) 7
(C) 9
(B) 8
(D) 10
101. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of Constitution of India by
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 46th Amendment
102. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of Education?
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 350
(C) Article 350A
(D) Article 351
103. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo-warranto
(D)Injunction
104. 'Economic drain' theory was popularized by
(A) the Britishers
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Vera Anstey
(D) V.V. Bhatt
105. The logo of eco-mark in India is
(A) Rising Sun
(B) Earthen Pot
(C) Lion
(D) Wheat Ear
106. Which among the following Five Year Plans could not start on its due time?
(A) 12th
(B) 11th
(C) 9th
(D) 8th
107. Which of the following countries has launched a major expansion of the Suez Canal?
(A) Syria
(B) Egypt
(C) Lebanon
(D) None of the above
108. How many UN member countries have reached an agreement on the outcome document of New Sustainable Development Agenda?
(A) 204
(B) 197
(C) 193
(D) 198
109. What is the name of the mobile app which facilitates easy learning of Computer and Internet?
(A) Dristi
(B) Disha
(C) Nayak
(D) Pawan
110. Which of the following banks became the first in country to launch MUDRA Card in July 2015?
(A) Bank of India
(B) Corporation Bank
(C) Indian Bank
(D) State Bank of India
111. Which Indian American diplomat was recently appointed as the U.S. Ambassador to Sri Lanka and Maldives?
(A) Richard Rahul Verma
(B) Suresh Rana
(C) Atul Kashyap
(D) Rakesh Sharma
112. The Book "Green Signals: Ecology, Growth and Democracy in India", has been written by
(A) Jairam Ramesh.
(B) Meira Kumar
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Medha Patkar/(Megha Patekar)
113. Who amongst the following has not been inducted as member of the newly constituted cricket advisory committee of BCCI on June 1, 2015?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Sourav Ganguly
(D) V.V.S. Laxman
114. Which are the three 'SAARC' countries with whom India has signed a motor vehicle agreement on June 15, 2015?
(A) Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives
(B) Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan
(C) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maldives
115. In the second quarter of 2015, the Indian Government in principle has decided to set- up how many new 'nuclear power projects' in the country?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
116. Which country amongst the following decided in May 2015 to lift ban on import of rice from India?
(A) Iran
(C) Brazil
(B) China
(D) U.S.A.
117. Which State/Union Territory decided in May 2015 not to allow foreign direct investment in retail market?
(A) Haryana
(B) Delhi
(C) Mizoram
(D) Kerala
118. At what rank World Economic Forum report has placed India on 'Human Capital Index' in May 2015?
(A) 128th
(B) 120th
(C) 108th
(D) 100th
119. On May 25, 2015 who amongst the following was declared as 'International Batsman of the in CEAT Awards?
(A) Ajinkya Rahane
(B) Hashim Amla
(C) Kumar Sangakara
(D) Rangana Herath
120. Dr. Suniti Solomon, who passed away recently, was associated with which field?
(A) Film
(B) Medical
(C) Music
(D) Literature
121. Which among the following is India's largest E-commerce company?
(A) Flipkart
(B) Jabong
(C) m-Junction
(D) Bharti Airtel
122. The State which ranks next to Kerala in terms of female literacy in India according to Census 2011 is
(A) Mizoram
(B) Tripura
(C) Goa
(D) Meghalaya
123. Which State of India has launched the Village Monitoring Project to uplift villages?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
124. Who among the following has been recently appointed as Executive Director of RBI?
(A) Reena Hemchanda
(B) Leena Hemchanda
(C) Meena Hemchanda
(D) Heena Hemchanda
125. Which State of India has recently decided to start 'She-Bus' programme?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
126. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of steel in the world?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) West Germany
(C) China
(D) India
127. 'NITI-Aayog' has been constituted under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article - 280
(B) Article-282
(C) Article-286
(D) None of the above
128. Ultra Mega Power Plants in India are
(A) Coal based
(B) Hydro based
(C) Nuclear
(D) Gas based
129. Which among the following sectors has contributed most to the growth of G.D.P. in India in 2014-15?
(A) Service Sector
(B) Manufacturing Sector
(C) Primary Sector
(D) Foreign Trade Sector
130. In India, which among the following is not included in Small Savings Scheme?
(A) Public Sector Bank savings deposit
(B) Public Provident Fund
(C) Senior Citizen Saving Scheme
(D) National Savings Certificate (VIIIth issue)
131. Main thrust of 20 point economic programme (restructured in 2006) in India, is
(A) removal of poverty only
(B) improvement in quality of life only
(C) benefit of insurance for all only
(D) only (A) and (B) above
132. The Head Office of Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is located at
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Lucknow
133. In which State India's first railway line is being built under public-private partnership model?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
134. Viticulture is known for the production of
(A) apple
(B) grapes
(C) pineapple
(D) wheat
135. Black-Revolution is related to
(A) Coal production
(B) Black hole
(C) Petroleum production
(D) Leather production
136. India purchased 200 Tonnes of gold from IMF in which of the following Five Year Plans?
(A) 7th
(B) 8th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
137. Which among the following was the theme of 9th National Statistics Day of India observed in 2015?
(A) Social Development
(B) Financial Inclusion
(C) Digital India
(D) E-governance
138. Which of the following Banks has become the first Bank to launch 'Watch-Banking Scheme' in India?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Axis Bank
(D) SBI
139. Account under 'Sukanya-Samriddhi Yojana' can be opened for a daughter aged
(A) maximum 7 years
(B) maximum 8 years
(C) maximum 9 years
(D) maximum 10 years
140. Which is the largest fresh water lake in India?
(A) Chilka
(B) Wular
(C) Loktak
(D) Sambhar
141. As per the United Nations Annual Hunger Report released in May 2015, India has the highest number of hungry people in the world. Which country among the following has the least number of hungry people?
(A) Philippines
(B) Nigeria
(C) Indonesia
(D) Bangladesh
142. The Govt. of India has approved setting up of how many ITBP outposts along the China Border in Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim?
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 42
(D) 45
143. A two day G-7 Summit was held in June 2015 in
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Bavaria
(D) Barn
144. By which year, the Union Cabinet on June 17, 2015 has proposed to provide "Housing for all"?
(A) 2030
(B) 2025
(C) 2022
(D) 2018
145. Few coaches of two trains were drowned in the river in Harda district of M.P. in an accident which occurred on August 5, 2015. The name of the river is
(A) Narmada
(B) Betwa
(C) Kali Machak
(D) Son
146. In India, on which day, first 'National Handloom Day' was celebrated?
(A) August 9, 2015
(B) August 7, 2015
(C) August 9, 2014
(D) August 7, 2014
147. Sale have been restricted on Maggi noddles of Nestle Company in India. Where is the head office of Group Company located?
(A) Switzerland
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) U.K.
148. According to projection of U.N. Report 2015, the world population by 2050 will be
(A) 7.3 billion
(B) 8.4 billion
(C) 9.7 billion
(D) 11.2 billion
149. At which place first phase of metro-train was inaugurated by a lady Chief Minister and the drive of the first metro train was also a lady?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Cennai
(D) Kolkata
150. Harbhajan Kaur Dheer of Indian-origin has been elected Mayor in May 2015, in which country?
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) U.S.A.
(D) U.K.
Paper 2
Law
1. In which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provision as to refresh memory has been given
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 149
(C) Section 159
(D) Section 158
2. Which one of the following is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for relevancy?
(A) Intention
(B) Motive
(C) Preparation
(D) Conduct
3. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which one of the following sections defines admission
(A) Section 17
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 19
(D) Section 20
4. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law books?
(A) Section 37
(B) Section 38
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 39
5. A party can ask Questions to his own witness under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Section 156
(B) Section 154
(C) Section 158
(D) Section 160
6. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the offence of affray has been defined in
(A) Section 146
(B) Section 148
(C) Section 159
(D) Section 149
7. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(A) Creates a substantive offence
(B) is a rule of evidence
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
8. The principle of doli incapex under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an exception to criminal liability in which one of the following sections?
(A) Section 81
(B) Section 82
(C) Section 84
(D) Section 87
9. A hangman who hungs the prisoner pursuant to the order of the court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of
(A) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(B) Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(C) Section 79 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(D) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
10. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the defence of 'Consent' is not available in cases of
(A) Consent to cause death
(B) Consent to cause grievous hurt
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
11. In exercise of right of private defence even death of the accused can be caused under
(A) Section 100 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(B) Section 102 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(C) Section 103 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(D) Both (A) and (B)
12. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into force from
(A) 25th December, 1983
(B) 26th December, 1986
(C) 25th December, 1987
(D) 25th December, 1988
13. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishment for wrongful confinement has been provided?
(A) Section 340
(B) Section 341
(C) Section 342
(D) Section 350
14. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 has
(A) Amended Section 375
(B) Substituted Section 375
(C) Abolished Section 375
(D) Weakened Section 375
15. In which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 Lurking House Trespass has been defined?
(A) Section 442
(B) Section 444
(C) Section 445
(D) Section 443.
16. 'A' incites a dog to spring upon 'Z' without Z's consent with the intention to annoy 'Z', Here 'A' has committed an offence of
(A) Criminal force
(B) Criminal assault
(C) Grievous hurt
(D) Defamation
17. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word 'Act'?
(A) Section 32
(B) Section 33
(C) Section 23
(D) 'Section 24
18. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is an extension of the principle of 'respondeat superior' to criminal law?
(A) Section 121
(B) Section 159
(C) Section 120A
(D) Section 154
19. Which one of the following recognizes the principle of vicarious criminal liability under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Section 34
(B) Section 149
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
20. Sarla Mudgal, President Kalyani v. Union of India is a case on one of the following?
(A) Rape
(B) Adultery
(C) Bigamy
(D) Kidnapping
21. In a case of breach of terms on which injunction was granted under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the court may pass an order of
(A) attachment and sale of property.
(B) attachment of property and detention in civil prison.
(C) arrest and detention in civil prison for 3 months.
(D) (A) and (C) both
22. How much salary of a person can be attached in execution of a decree for maintenance?
(A) First one thousand rupees and 1/3 of the remainder
(B) First one thousand rupees and 2/3 of the remainder
(C) 2/3 of the salary
(D) 1/3 of the salary
23. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 embraces the principle of restitutions?
(A) Section 134
(B) Section
(C) Section 148A
(D) Section 151
24. A court can return the plaint for presentation to the court in which the suit should have been instituted?
(A) At the time of institution of suit.
(B) Before framing of issues.
(C) Before the trial begins.
(D) At any stage of the suit.
25. 'Prison' as defined in Order 16A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 includes
(A) Any place which has been declared by the Government, by General or Special Order, to be subsidiary jail
(B) Any reformatory, borstal institution or other institution of a like nature.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (A) is correct
26. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "every suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the court or such officer as it appoints in this behalf." This is provided under
(A) Section 26
(B) Section 20
(C) Order 3 Rule 1
(D) Order 4 Rule 1
27. Which one of the following is not a decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(A) Rejection of a plaint for non-payment of court fee.
(B) Any order of dismissal for default.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
28. Documents which are meant for cross examination of a witness of the other party may be produced?
(A) till settlement of issues.
(B) after settlement of issues.
(C) any time when required.
(D) along with the pleading.
29. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a plaint is rejected by the court in absence of cause of action?
(A) Order 7 Rule 11(a)
(B) Order 7 Rule 11(b)
(C) Order 7 Rule 11(c)
(D) Order 7 Rule 11(d)
30. Under which of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 attachment before judgment is provided?
(A) Order 38 Rule 5-13
(B) Order 39 Rule 1 and 2
(C) Order 40 Rule 1
(D) Section 96
31. On which one of the following grounds under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 a warrant of arrest against a "judgment debtor" may be cancelled by the Court?
(A) serious illness
(B) appearance in marriage of his son
(C) to cast vote in general elections
(D) None of the above
32. A decree against Government of India or State Government shall not be executed unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of
(A) one month
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
33. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 copy of plaint.
(A) shall be attached with every summons.
(B) is not necessary to attach with every summons.
(C) may be attached with the summons when court permits.
(D) is attached with summons on the request of the plaintiff.
34. Which one of the following is not suit of Civil Nature?
(A) Suits for rights to hereditory offices.
(B) Suits for rights of franchise.
(C) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments of offerings.
(D) Suits relating to right of worship.
35. Under Civil Procedure Code, can be amended 1908 pleading
(A) before the 1st appellate court
(B) before the trial court
(C) before the 2nd appellate court
(D) before (a) and (c) only
36. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that "no Judge or Magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested"?
(A) Section 478
(B) Section 477
(C) Section 479
(D) Section 481
37. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 has defined the word 'offence'?
(A) Section 2(f)
(B) Section 2(i)
(C) Section 2(n)
(D) Section 2(p)
38. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 who can file an application for plea bargaining?
(A) The Public Prosecutor
(B) The Investigating Officer
(C) The Victim of the Offence
(D) The Accused of the Offence
39. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 what is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence which is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years?
(A) 3 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No limit of period prescribed
40. Recently in which of the following the Supreme Court has held that there shall be no mediation in rape cases?
(A) Hardeep v. Punjab State
(B) State of M.P. v. Madan Lal
(C) Prahlad v. State of Haryana
(D) None of the above
41. Which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that "no appeal to lie unless otherwise provided"?
(A) Section 372
(B) Section 373
(C) Section 375
(D) Section 377
42. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings have been stated in
(A) Section 460
(B) Section 461
(C) Section 462
(D) Section 466
43. Recently in which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of acid attack?
(A) State of M.P. v. Madan Lal
(B) Laxmi v. Union of India
(C) Jagdar Singh v. State of Haryana
(D) None of the above
44. The subject of Criminal Procedure falls in which one of the following lists of the Constitution of India?
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Either (a) or (b)
45. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the irregularities which vitiate trial have been stated in
(A) Section 460
(B) Section 461
(C) Section 466
(D) Section 467
46. Complaint as defined under section 2(d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is concerned with
(A) Cognizable offence only
(B) Non Cognizable offence only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
47. In which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 it is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest?
(A) Section 51
(B) Section 56
(C) Section 57
(D) Section 59
48. Under which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 monthly allowances or the interim monthly allowances for maintenance can be altered?
(A) Section 125
(B) Section 126
(C) Section 127
(D) Section 128
49. Anticipatory Bail under Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can be invoked in cases of
(A) Bailable offences
(B) Nonbailable offences
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
50. In which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the 'Cognizable Offence' has been defined?
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 2(b)
(C) Section 2(c)
(D) Section 2(i)
51. A contracts to B Rs. 10,000 if B's house is burnt. The contract is
(A) simple
(B) contingent
(C) conditional
(D) None of the above
52. An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) valid
(D) None of the above
53. A, for natural love and affection, promises to give his son, B, Rs. 1,000. A puts his promise to B in writing and registers it. This is a
(A) Contract
(B) Voidable contract
(C) Void contract
(D) None of the above
54. In the following cases which case relates to general offers
(A) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Datt
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Comp.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
55. Who said that "An offer need not be made to an ascertained person, but no contract can arise until it has been accepted by an ascertained person"?
(A) Lord Atkin
(B) Lord Goddard
(C) Chashre and Fifoot
(D) Anson
56. A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if B will marry to A's daughter C. C was dead at the time of the agreement. The agreement is
(A) invalid
(B) voidable
(C) void
(D) valid
57. Minor's contract is
(A) void
(B) voidable
(C) void at the option of minor
(D) valid at the option of the minor
58. Satyabrat Ghose v. Mangiram Bongur (1954 SC) is a case on
(A) Minor's contract
(B) Consideration
(C) Frustration
(D) Contingent contract
59. Hadley v. Baxindale is a case on
(A) Frustration of contract
(B) Damages for breach of contract
(C) Discharge of contract
(D) Contract in restraint of trade
60. An agreement entered into with free consent and lawful but with inadequate consideration is
(A) unlawful
(B) lawful
(C) void
(D) voidable
61. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is
(A) voidable
(B) void
(C) illegal
(D) None of the above
62. Nudum Pactum means
(A) without consideration
(B) invalid contract
(C) void contract
(D) voidable contract
63. In law of contract Bailor in pledge is called
(A) Pawnor
(B) Pawnee
(C) Agent
(D) Bailee
64. Consider the following statements and point out which of them is correct?
(1) An agreement made without consideration is void.(2) Consideration should have value in the eye of law. (3) Consideration has to be adequate.
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1) and (2)
(C) (1) and (3)
(D) (2) and (3)
65. A having advanced money to his son, B, during his minority, upon B's coming of age obtains, by misuse of parental influence, at bond from B for a greater influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than the sum due in respect of the advance. A employs
(A) coercion
(B) fraud
(C) undue influence
(D) mis-representation
66. Austin's book "the province of Jurisprudence Determined" is
(A) his autobiography
(B) the lectures delivered in the London University
(C) an answer to an essay by Gray on Parliamentary Government
(D) None of the above
67. "Law is found not made" concept of law belongs to
(A) Sociological school
(B) Analytical school
(C) Historical school
(D) Philosophical school
68. "Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of essential principles of law" has been said by
(A) Allen
(B) Halland
(C) Bentham
(D) Austin
69. "Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of the knowledge of law" has been said by
(A) Salmond
(B) Dias
(C) Cicero
(D) Paton
70. "Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and devine; the science of just and unjust" has been said by
(A) Keeton
(B) Ulpian
(C) Julius Stone
(D) Austin
71. "Law grows with the nation, increases with it, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic or it." It is said by
(A) Salmond
(B) Savigny
(C) Henry Maine
(D) Buckland
72. "The theory of social solidarity" has been propounded by
(A) Duguit
(B) Ihering
(C) Lloyed
(D) Comte
73. Which one of the following is not an essential element of Custom?
(A) A custom must be certain.
(B) A custom must be reasonable.
(C) A custom may not have been practiced continuously.
(D) A custom must, be in conformity with statute law
74. Which one of the following is not a theory of punishment?
(A) Preventive theory
(B) Social interest theory
(C) Deterrent theory
(D) Retributive theory
75. "Ownership is a plenary control over an object." This definition is given by
(A) Austin
(B) Holland
(C) Salmond
(D) Pound
76. "Legal order is a pyramid of norms" is the statement of
(A) Austin
(B) Kelson
(C) Salmond
(D) Fuller
77. In law the Hart-Fuller controversy relates to
(A) Definition of law
(B) Classification of law
(C) Law and morality
(D) Sanction
78. "The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract" it is said by
(A) Henry Maine
(B) Hegal
(C) Savigny
(D) Cicero
79. The theory of lifting the veil of corporate personality was evolved in
(A) Merry v. Green v. Solomon
(B) Solomon
(C) In re-cohen
(D) Ancona v. Rosers
80. 'A time-barred debt' is a typical example of
(A) Positive Right
(B) Negative Right
(C) Perfect Right
(D) Imperfect Right
81. U.N. Member States have agreed on August 3, 2015 on sustainable development goals by
(A) Majority vote
(B) Consensus
(C) Convention
(D) (A) and (C) above
82. World Climate Summit 2015 scheduled to be held in
(A) New York
(B) New Delhi
(C) Paris
(D) Hongkong
83. Which one of the following is often termed as "a child of war"?
(A) Security Council
(B) United Nations Organization
(C) League of Nations
(D) International Court of Justice
84. "Purpose of United Nations is world peace". It was observed by
(A) Oppenheim
(B) Kelson
(C) Anzilotte
(D) Cardova
85. The headquarters of Universal Postal Union is situated in
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Rome
(D) Berne
86. In which one of the following Articles of the U.N. Charter provides for the expulsion of a member State?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 6
(C) Article 7
(D) Article 1(2)
87. Number of principal organs of United Nations are
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
88. Which one of the following states is not a permanent member of Security Council?
(A) China
(B) United Kingdom
(C) United States of America
(D) Japan
89. What is the term of office of the judges of International Court of Justice?
(A) 5 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 15 years
90. The first Indian appointed as a judge of International Court of Justice was
(A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(B) Justice Nagendra Singh
(C) Justice Krishna lyyer
(D) None of the above
91. Where is the head quarters of International Court of Justice situated?
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Hague
(D) London
92. In which one of the following Articles of U.N.O. the 'principle of self-determination' has been provided
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
93. How many members are there in security council of UNO?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
94. What is the term of non-permanent members of Security Council of U.N.O.?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
95. The first session of UNO General Assembly was held on
(A) January 10, 1945
(B) January 10, 1946
(C) January 10, 1947
(D) January 10, 1948
96. Which one of the following is the official language of International Court of Justice?
(A) Spanish and English
(B) Russian and English
(C) French and English
(D) Arabic and English
97. Which one of the following is the member of Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(A) Israel
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) India
98. In January 2015 Edgar Lunga was elected as President of
(A) Italy
(B) Zambia
(C) Greece
(D) Egypt
99. 68th World Health Assembly took place in
(A) Delhi
(B) London
(C) Geneva
(D) New York
100. World Future Energy Summit 2015 took place in
(A) Dubai
(B) Tehran
(C) Abu Dhabi
(D) New York
101. Which one of the following countries has become 161st member of World Trade Organisation?
(A) Seychelles
(B) Latvia
(C) Nepal
(D) Yemen
102. The third U.N. World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction was held in March, 2015 in
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Japan
(D) India
103. World Rufugee Day is observed every year on
(A) 20th June
(B) 20th July
(C) 20th August
(D) 20th September
104. With which country India has signed inter- governmental agreement on "Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act" on 9th July, 2015.
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) America
(D) England
105. Total number of members in the European Union Is
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 35
(D) 30
106. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Trygve Lie-Norway
(B) Kurt Waldheim-Sweden
(C) U. Thant-Myanmar
(D) Kofi Annan – Ghana
107. On January 15, 2015 India has signed a Motor Vehicle Agreement with following three SAARC countries
(A) Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Nepal
(C) Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal
(D) Bhutan, Bangladesh, Maldives
108. Who has described international law as "positive international morality"?
(A) Halland
(B) Austin
(C) Stark
(D) Oppenheim
109. Which of the following elects the judges of International Court of Justice?
(A) The General Assembly of United Nations
(B) Security Council of United Nations
(C) International Court of United Nations
(D) Both (A) and (B)
110. Who says "international law is a vanishing point of jurisprudence"?
(A) Brierly
(B) Halland
(C) Pollok
(D) Stark
111. National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 came into force
(A) on April 13, 2015
(B) on December 31, 2014
(C) is not in force, yet
(D) on January 31, 2015
112. Under which one of the following Articles of our Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation?
(A) Article 22(1)
(B) Article 22(3)
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22(4)
113. How many representatives of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated to the State Legislative Assembly by the Governor of the State?
(A) Three
(B) Two
(C) One
(D) Nil
114. The 'equal protection of Laws' in Article 14 has been taken from
(A) British Constitution
(B) American Constitution
(C) Australian Constitution
(D) None of the above
115. The Supreme Court of India has traced the "Right of Privacy" in
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 22
116. 'Right to Life' under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include 'right to die' has been held by Supreme Court in
(A) Retiram v. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(C) State of Maharasthra v. Maruti Sripati Dubal
(D) All of the above
117. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has declared Article 15(5) as Constitutional?
(A) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
(C) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
(D) T.M.A. Pai Foundations v. State of Karnataka
118. Article 15 of the Constitution discrimination between citizens on the basis of
(A) Religion and caste only
(B) Religion, race and caste only
(C) Religion, caste and sex only
(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of or any of them Birth
119. The President may under Article 56(1)(b) be removed from his office by a process of Impeachment on the ground of
(A) proved misbehaviour
(B) incapacity
(C) violation of the Constitution
(D) All of the above
120. Part IVA of the Indian Constitution dealing with 'Fundamental Duties' was added in the Constitution by
(A) 24th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971
(B) 25th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1971
(C) 42nd Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1976
(D) 44th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1978
121. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme source of power?
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Parliament of India
(C) President of India
(D) Constitution of India.
122. Article 142 of the Constitution
(A) is supplimentary in nature.
(B) gives preference to equity over law.
(C) decisions under it do not constitute precedence under Article 141
(D) All of the above
123. For how much period, the President can appoint additional and acting judges in High Courts?
(A) Not exceeding 2 years
(B) Not exceeding 3 years
(C) Not exceeding 1 year
(D) Not exceeding 5 years
124. Who amongst the following has said that "Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency"?
(A) K.C. Wheare
(B) A.V. Dicey
(C) Sir Ivor Jennings
(D) None of the above
125. "Right to Work" in the Constitution can be traced in
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Preamble of the Constitution (D) None of the above
126. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
(A) Universal donee-Section 128A
(B) Mortgaged debt-Section 134
(C) Exchange of Money - Section 120
(D) All of the above
127. Immovable property includes
(A) Grass
(B) Growing crops
(C) Standing timber
(D) All of the above
128. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relates to oral transfer?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9
129. Which one of the following sections of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is concerned with the transfer of benefit to unborn child?
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 15
(D) Section 16
130. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Condition restraining alienation - Section 9
(B) Rule against perpetuity - Section 14
(C) Conditional Transfer - Section 25
(D) None of the above
131. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on
(A) 1st March, 1881
(B) 1st April, 1881
(C) 1st July, 1882
(D) 1st August, 1882
132. A transfers Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. B marries without the consent of C, D and E. But obtains their consent after the marriage. Has B fulfilled the conditions?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Cannot say
(D) None of the above
133. A transfer a farm to B for his life with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. What will be effect of his life interest of farm?
(A) Loses
(B) Secures
(C) Conditional loss
(D) Conditional secure
134. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Transfer by ostensible owner-Section 41
(B) Doctrine of part performance-Section 53B
(C) Fraudulent transfer-Section 53
(D) Doctrine of lis pendens-Section 52
135. "A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession" is provided in which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(A) Section 18
(B) Section 19
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 21
136. Where the principal money secured is one hundred rupees or upwards, a mortgage other than a mortgage by deposit of the deed can be effected only by
(A) registered instrument
(B) signed by the mortgager
(C) attested by at least two witnesses
(D) all of the above
137. Right to fore-closure or sale has been provided in which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(A) Section 65
(B) Section 66
(C) Section 67
(D) Section 68
138. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazara is related to
(A) Doctrine of election
(B) Doctrine of part performance
(C) Transfer by unauthorised person
(D) Ostensible owner
139. Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is applicable to
(A) movable property
(B) immovable property
(C) every kind of property
(D) All of the above
140. In which one of the following cases it was held that partition is not a transfer of property?
(A) V.N. Sarin v. Ajeet Kumar AIR 1986 SC 432
(B) Roked Chand v. Smt. Rajeshwari Devi AIR 2009 NOC 3009
(C) Abdul Jabbar v. Venkata Shastri AIR 1969 SC 1147
(D) None of the above
141. Identification parade can be held by
(A) Police Officer only
(B) Magistrate only
(C) Public Servant only
(D) Any person
142. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 60
143. "Character as affecting damages" has been discussed in which one of the following sections?
(A) Section 55 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) Section 56 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) Section 57 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) Section 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
144. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to presumption as to electronic agreement?
(A) Section 81A
(B) Section 85C
(C) Section 88A
(D) Section 85A
145. By which one of the following amendments Section 53A has been inserted in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008
(B) Indian Evidence (Amendments) Act, 2002
(C) Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2005
(D) Criminal Law (Amendments) Act, 2013
146. Which one of the following dates of enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct?
(A) 15th March, 1872
(B) 1st September, 1872
(C) 1st July, 1872
(D) 1st February, 1872
147. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986?
(A) Section 111A
(B) Section 113A
(C) Section 113B
(D) None of the above
148. Which one of the following does not fall within the definition of the term Court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) All Judges
(B) All Magistrates
(C) All Consumer Forums
(D) All persons legally authorised to take evidence
149. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction has been discussed in
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 11
150. The Law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
(A) Substantive Law
(B) Procedural Law
(C) Substantive and Procedural Law
(D) None of the above
Answers
Part 1
General Knowledge
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (C)
4. (B)
5. (B)
6. (A)
7. (B)
8. (B)
9. (A)
10. (C)
11. (C)
12. (B)
13. (C)
14. (C)
15. (C)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (B)
19. (D)
20. (A)
21. (C)
22. (C)
23. (C)
24. (A)
25. (C)
26. (A)
27. (A)
28. (B)
29. (C)
30. (B)
31. (C)
32. (D)
33. (C)
34. (D)
35. (B)
36. (A)
37. (B)
38. (D)
39. (D)
40. (A)
41. (D)
42. (C)
43. (D)
44. (B)
45. (B)
46. (A)
47. (C)
48. (A)
49. (C)
50. (B)
51. (C)
52. (D)
53. (D)
54. (A)
55. (A)
56. (C)
57. (A)
58. (A)
59. (D)
60. (A)
61. (D)
62. (A)
63. (D)
64. (C)
65. (A)
66. (D)
67. (B)
68. (C)
69. (D)
70. (C)
71. (B)
72. (D)
73. (A)
74. (A)
75. (C)
76. (A)
77. (C)
78. (C)
79. (C)
80. (B)
81. (B)
82. (D)
83. (B)
84. (D)
85. (C)
86. (A)
87. (C)
88. (D)
89. (A)
90. (C)
91. (D)
92. (B)
93. (A)
94. (B)
95. (D)
96. (C)
97. (C)
98. (C)
99. (C)
100. (B)
101. (B)
102. (C)
103. (D)
104. (B)
105. (B)
106. (D)
107. (B)
108. (C)
109. (B)
110. (B)
111. (C)
112. (A)
113. (A)
114. (B)
115. (D)
116. (A)
117. (B)
118. (D)
119. (B)
120. (B)
121. (C)
122. (A)
123. (D)
124. (C)
125. (C)
126. (C)
127. (D)
128. (A)
129. (A)
130. (A)
131. (D)
132. (B)
133. (D)
134. (D)
135. (C)
136. (D)
137. (A)
138. (B)
139. (D)
140. (B)
141. (B)
142. (C)
143. (C)
144. (C)
145. (C)
146. (B)
147. (A)
148. (D)
149. (C)
150. (D)
Part 2
Law
1. (C)
2. (A)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (B)
6. (C)
7. (B)
8. (B)
9. (B)
10. (C)
11. (D)
12. (A)
13. (C)
14. (B)
15. (D)
16. (A)
17. (B)
18. (D)
19. (C)
20. (C)
21. (B)
23. (B)
24. (D)
25. (C)
26. (D)
27. (B)
28. (C)
29. (A)
30. (A)
31. (A)
32. (C)
33. (A)
34. (C)
35. (B)
36. (C)
37. (C)
38. (D)
39. (D)
40. (B)
41. (A)
42. (A)
43. (B)
44. (C)
45. (B)
46. (C)
47. (C)
48. (C)
49. (B)
50. (C)
51. (B)
52. (A)
53. (A)
54. (C)
55. (D)
56. (C)
57. (A)
58. (C)
60. (B)
61. (B)
62. (A)
63. (A)
64. (B)
65. (C)
66. (B)
67. (C)
68. (A)
69. (C)
70. (B)
71. (B)
72. (A)
73. (C)
74. (B)
75. (B)
76. (B)
77. (C)
78. (A)
79. (B)
80. (D)
81. (B)
82. (C)
83. (C)
84. (B)
85. (D)
86. (B)
87. (B)
88. (D)
89. (C)
90. (B)
91. (C)
92. (A)
93. (C)
94. (A)
95. (B)
96. (C)
97. (B)
98. (B)
99. (C)
100. (C)
101. (A)
102. (C)
103. (A)
104. (C)
105. (B)
106. (B)
107. (C)
108. (B)
109. (D)
110. (B)
111. (A)
112. (A)
113. (C)
114. (B)
115. (C)
116. (B)
118. (D)
119. (C)
120. (C)
121. (D)
122. (B)
123. (A)
124. (C)
125. (B)
126. (B)
127. (D)
128. (D)
129. (A)
130. (B)
131. (C)
132. (B)
133. (A)
134. (B)
135. (B)
136. (D)
137. (C)
138. (D)
139. (D)
140. (A)
141. (D)
142. (C)
143. (A)
144. (D)
145. (D)
146. (B)
147. (C)
148. (C)
149. (A)
150. (B)