UGC NET December 2018 Paper (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET QUESTION PAPER DECEMBER 2018| Click Here to Download PDF

UGC NET Paper (Law)
December 2018

Number of questions- 100
Marks- 200

1. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) The Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution.

(ii) The word ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble aims to eliminate inequality in political and religious matters.

(iii) The solemn resolution in the Preamble of the Constitution of India is made in the name of the people of India.

(iv) The Preamble of the Constitution of India is solemnly resolved to secure to its people Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
3. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
4. Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(i) When the court declares certain provisions of the act as invalid and affects the validity of the Act, this principle is known as Doctrine of Severability.

(ii) It is the perspective character of Article 13(1) which gives rise to the Doctrine of Eclipse.

(iii) The American Doctrine of waiver of Fundamental Rights is part of the Indian Constitution.

(iv) The Doctrine of prospective overruling was not applied in I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
2. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
3. Only (ii) is correct
4. Only (iv) is correct.

Answer: (c)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India

(b) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India

(c) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

(d)A.K. Roy v. Union of India

List-II

(i) Case on National Security

(ii) To provide reservations in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(iii) Application of Creamy Layer to O.B.C quota

(iv) On capitation fees

Code:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

4. Which constitutional amendment accorded primacy to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?

1. 24th Amendment
2. 25th Amendment
3. 42nd Amendment
4. 44th Amendment.

Answer: (c)

5. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that any Member of Parliament, Member of Legislative Assembly or Member of Legislative Council who is convicted of a crime and given a minimum of two years imprisonment loses membership of the House with immediate effect?

1. S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
2. Ramakrishna Hegde v. State of Karnataka
3. Hardwari Lal v. Ch. Bhajhan Lal
4. Lily Thomas v. Union of India.

Answer: (d)

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6. A ‘distinguished jurist’ can be appointed as a Judge of:

1. A District Court
2. A High Court
3. The Supreme Court
4. The International Court.

Answer: (c)

7. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that placing ordinance before Legislature is mandatory, Re-promulgation of ordinances is fraud on the Constitution?

1. Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar
2. K. Garg v. Union of India
3. Maru Ram v. Union of India
4. M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay.

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) In Harvinder Kaur v. Harmander Singh Choudhary the Supreme Court rejected the plea that personal law was discriminatory towards gender equality in India. It is also observed that introduction of constitutional law into the personal laws was appropriate.

(ii) Selvi v. State of Karnataka deals with Rights of transgender.

(iii) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India deals with Right to freedom of speech and expression.

(iv) Sarla Mudgal and others v. Union of India deals with the Rights of converted Christian women.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below. Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
3. Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
4. Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (d)

9. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.

Reason(R): The President of India can dismiss the Ministers at his discretion.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (c)

10. Mention the correct chronological sequence of the following Advisory opinions given by the Supreme Court of India under Article 143 of the Constitution of India.

(i) In re Keshava Singh case

(ii) In re Berubari case

(iii) In re Delhi Laws Act case

(iv) In re the Sea Customs Act

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
2. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
3. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
4. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii).

Answer: (c)

11. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(a) K.L.N.V. Veeranjaneyulu v. Union of India & others

(b) Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen (Dead) by LRS and others

(c) Pawan Kumar v. State of H.P.

(d) Bimalangshu Roy (Dead) through LRS v. State of Assam and others

List-II

(i) Women’s right to Love and Reject

(ii) Every author has a fundamental right to speak out ideas freely and express thoughts adequately

(iii) States are not empowered to create office of Parliamentary Secretary

(iv) Seeking vote in the name of religion caste is corrupt practice

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Proclamation of emergency can be issued by the President of India if there is an imminent danger of war or external aggression or internal disturbance and armed rebellion.

Reason(R): The President of India can suspend the enforcement of some fundamental rights during the period of emergency.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (d)

13 Which one of the following jurists used the two expressions ‘formal’ and ‘material’ in defining the term Jurisprudence?

1. Hans Kelsen
2. E. Holland
3. Jeremy Bentham
4. Dennis Lloyd.

Answer: (b)

14. Consider the following statements and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

(i) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality not by it.

(ii) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality by God.

(iii) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality by the consent of the people.

Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
3. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (b)

15. Which of the following is not a statement from the Hart’s theory?

1. Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules
2. The union of the primary and secondary rules constitutes the core of a legal system
3. A ‘legal rule’ can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with feeling that such conduct is obligatory
4. The law is a normative and not a natural science.

Answer: (d)

16. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Book)

(a) Elements of Jurisprudence

(b) The Nature of Judicial Process

(c) Dilemmas of Law in the Welfare State

(d) The Concept of Law

List-II (Author)

(i) B.N. Cardozo

(ii) H.L.A Hart

(iii) T.A. Holland

(iv) L.M. Friedman

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (c)

17. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Theory)

(a) Normative order

(b) Theory of Justice

(c) Natural law with variable content

(d) Social Utilitarianism

List-II (Jurist)

(i) Rudolf Stammler

(ii) Ihering

(iii) Kelsen

(iv) Rawls

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Answer: (a)

18. Which theory of punishment is based on the humanistic principle that even if an offender commits a crime, he does not cease to be a human being?

1. Preventive theory
2. Retributive theory
3. Reformative theory
4. Deterrent theory.

Answer: (c)

19. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all the courts within the territory of India, but the Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions, was decided by the Supreme Court itself in:

1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
3. Madhav Rao Scindia v. Union of India
4. Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V. State of Bihar.

Answer: (d)

20. According to which theory, only human beings can have interests and rights and that a corporation is only a legal device or formula which will enable every complex jural relations to be understood more easily?

1. Fiction theory
2. Realist theory
3. Purpose theory
4. Bracket theory.

Answer: (d)

21. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

(a) Privilege

(b) Duty

(c) Power

(d) Absolute Duty

List-II

(i) Gives content to the claim of a person

(ii) Freedom from claim of another

(iii) Have no correlative claim according to Austin

(iv) Ability of a person to change legal relations

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (b)

22. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Austinian theory of law does not properly explain constitutional law, customary law and judicial precedents.

Reason(R): Constitutional law, customary law and judicial precedents do not share the same pedigree as statutory law.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Custom to have the force of law must be immemorial.

Reason(R): Custom represents common consciousness of the people.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (b)

24. Which of the following is/are the chief exponents of the ‘Theory of Consent’ regarding the basis of international law?

1. Jellinck, Fenwick
2. J.L. Brierly, Kelsen
3. Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim
4. Grotius, Vattel, Pufendorf.

Answer: (c)

25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): In the Asylum case, the International Court of Justice observed that the rule invoked should be “in accordance with a constant and uniform usage practised by the States in question, and that this usage is the expression of a right appertaining to the State granting asylum and a duty incumbent on the Territorial State.

Reason(R): This follows from Article 38 of the Statute of the Court which refers to international custom “as evidence of a general practice accepted as law”.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

26. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Recognition given)

(a) India recognised China

(b) India recognised Spain

(c) India recognised Cambodia

(d) India recognised Bangladesh

List-II (Dates of Recognition)

(i) 1st April, 1975

(ii) 6th December, 1971

(iii) 30th December, 1949

(iv) 2nd May, 1956

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) European Convention on Extradition was adopted at Paris on 13th December, 1964.

(ii) The practice of non-extradition for political crimes began with the French Revolution of 1789.

(iii) On 16th June, 1987, the Foreign Secretaries of South Asia Regional countries entered into an agreement on extradition.

(iv) Factor v. Laubenheimer is a leading case on non-extradition of political crimes.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below. Code:

1. Only (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (b)

28. In accordance with which of the following Articles of U.N. Charter, the affirmative vote of nine(9) members of the Security-Council (including the permanent members) is necessary for all important matters?

1. Article 25
2. Article 43
3. Article 51
4. Article 27.

Answer: (d)

29. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Provision)

(a) Composition of the Economic and Social Council

(b) Composition of Trusteeship Council

(c) Expulsion of a member from the United Nations

(d) Suspension of members of the United Nations

List-II (Article)

(i) Article 75 of the U.N. Charter

(ii) Article 6 of the U.N. Charter

(iii) Article 5 of the U.N. Charter

(iv) Article 61 of the U.N. Charter

Code:

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (a)

30. Consider the following statements:

Under Article 36(2) of the Statute of International Court, the State party to the statute may confer ‘compulsory jurisdiction’ upon the International Court of Justice in respect of the following matter(s):

(i) Interpretation of a Treaty

(ii) Any question of national law

(iii) The existence of any fact which, if established, would constitute a breach of international obligations

(iv) The nature and the extent of the separation to be made for the breach of a domestic obligation

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer: (b)

31. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The ‘Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum’, states the court will have jurisdiction in a matter in which it does not otherwise have jurisdiction where a respondent consents to the jurisdiction subsequent to the commencement of proceedings against it.

Reason(R): The operation of the ‘Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum’ has been envisaged under the Charter of the U.N. and also the Statute of the International Court of Justice.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

32. Under which of the following Articles of the United Nations, the General Assembly may establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions?

1. Article 21
2. Article 20
3. Article 23
4. Article 22.

Answer: (d)

33. Who amongst the following groups of jurists are the chief exponents of the ‘Declaratory Theory’ of Recognition?

1. Hall, Brierley, Fisher and Pitt Corbett
2. Hegel, Anzilotti and Oppenheim
3. Hart, Austin and Bentham
4. Fenwick, Kelsen, Fuller and G. Schwarzenberger.

Answer: (a)

34. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship with reference to any person extends as far as:

1. The third generation (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the father
2. The third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father
3. The fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the third (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father
4. The fifth generation (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the third (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.

Answer: (b)

35. Islamic law in India provides for:

1. Monogamy
2. Unlimited polygamy
3. Controlled polyandry
4. Controlled polygamy.

Answer: (d)

36. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Smriti

(b) Mitakshara

(c) Shruti

(d) Dayabhaga

List-II

(i) What was heard

(ii) Jimutavahana

(iii) Vijaneshwara

(iv) What has been remembered

Code:

1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (a)

37. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 by using the code given below:

List-I (Section)

(a) Section 5(i)

(b) Section 11

(c) Section 7

(d) Section 5(iii)

List-II (Provision)

(i) Ceremonies of marriage

(ii) Monogamy

(iii) Marriageable Age

(iv) Void Marriages

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

38. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): A child adopted under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 shall be deemed to be the child of his or her father or mother for all purposes with effect from the date of adoption.

Reason(R): A validly adopted child may renounce his or her status as such after attaining the age of 21 years and return to his/her family of birth.

Code:

1. (A) is correct and (R) is true explanation of (A)
2. (A) is false, but (R) is correct
3. (A) is correct, but (R) is false
4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (c)

39. Marriage during ‘Iddat’ under Sunni law is:

1. Valid
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. Irregular.

Answer: (d)

40. An agreement made by mistake is:

1. Voidable
2. Void
3. Illegal
4. Immoral.

Answer: (b)

41. Mark the correct statement:

1. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the husband can claim maintenance
2. Unchaste wife can live separate and claim maintenance under Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956
3. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, father-in-law is personally liable to pay maintenance to the widowed daughter-in-law
4. The term ‘maintenance’ under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 does not include marriage expenses of unmarried daughter.

Answer: (a)

42. In which case the Supreme Court held that the State should enact the Uniform Civil Code for people of India?

1. Chetan Dass v. Kamala Devi
2. Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar
3. Ashok Hurra v. Rupa Ashok Hurra
4. John Vallamattom v. Union of India.

Answer: (d)

43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Reason(R): Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the issue of completeness of communication.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A)
2. (A) is correct, but (R) is false
3. (R) is correct, but (A) is false
4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (d)

44. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Section of Indian Contract Act 1872)

(a) Section 2 (f)

(b) Section 2 (e)

(c) Section 2 (a)

(d) Section 2 (c)

List-II (Definition)

(i) Proposal

(ii) Promisor and Promisee

(iii) Reciprocal Promises

(iv) Agreement

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (c)

45. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) A minor fraudulently misrepresenting his age is not estopped from denying the truth of his statement.

(ii) A minor fraudulently misrepresenting his age is estopped from denying the truth of his statement.

(iii) Estoppel does not operate to render a statute ineffective and so minor’s agreement is always void.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (ii) and (iii)
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (i) and (ii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii).

Answer: (b)

46. A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of:

1. Coercion
2. Fraud
3. Undue Influence
4. Misrepresentation.

Answer: (c)

47. Non est factum’ means, a document executed:

1. under coercion
2. in ignorance
3. outside India
4. under Undue Influence.

Answer: (b)

48. Hadley v. Baxendale is a leading case on:

1. Minor’s agreement
2. Anticipatory breach
3. Breach of implied term
4. Remoteness of Damages.

Answer: (d)

49. Which of the following is/are exception(s) to the rule of strict liability recognized by Rylands v. Fletcher?

(i) Defendant’s default

(ii) Act of God

(iii) Consent of the third party

(iv) Statutory Authority

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (i) and (ii) are correct
2. (iii) and (iv) are correct
3. (i) and (iii) are correct
4. (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (d)

50. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Ex turpi causa non oritur

(b) de minimis non curat lex

(c) Causa causans

(d) de die in diem

List-II

(i) Immediate cause

(ii) From and immoral cause no action arises

(iii) From day to day

(iv) Law does not concern itself with trifles

Code:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (b)

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51. Who is the propounder of ‘Pigeon Hole’ theory?

1. Winfield
2. Salmond
3. Pollock
4. Fraser.

Answer: (b)

52. Match the item of List-I (name of case) with the items of List-II (related topic) and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

List-I (Name of case)

(a) Jones v. Boyce

(b) Scott v. Shepherd

(c) A.H. Khodwa v. State of Maharashtra

(d) Victorian Railway Commissioner v. Coultas

List-II (Related topic)

(i) Remoteness of Damages

(ii) Medical negligence

(iii) Nervous shock

(iv) Doctrine of alternative danger

Code:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (c)

53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): ‘Act of God’ is a kind of inevitable accident with the difference that it arises out of the working of human forces.

Reason(R): The occurrence need not be unique, nor need it be one that happens for the first time; it is enough that it is extraordinary, and such as could not reasonably be anticipated.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

54. “Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): In the matter of absolute privilege, no action lies for the defamatory statement even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously.

Reason(R): Whether a statement is defamatory or not depends upon how the right thinking members of the society are likely to take it.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

55. Arrange the following Supreme Court decisions on the justification of torts in chronological order by using the codes given below:

(i) Vinod Kumar Shantilal Gosalia v. Gangadhar Narsingdas

(ii) Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal Committee

(iii) Anwar Hussain v. Ajay Kumar

(iv) Nizam’s Institute of Medical Sciences v. Prasanth S. Dhananka

Code:

1. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
2. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
3. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
4. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i).

Answer: (c)

56. “Which of the following statements are correct in relation to ‘administrative control’ of forums and commission under Section 24-B of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

(i) National Commission shall have administrative control over all State Commissions.

(ii) National Commission shall call for the periodical return of ‘pendency of cases’ before the State Commissions.

(iii) State commission shall have administrative control over all district forums.

(iv) State Commission can issue instructions to district forums to furnish english translation of judgment written in any language.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (i) and (iii) are correct
2. (ii) and (iv) are correct
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (d)

57. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to ‘period of limitation’ to file a complaint or an appeal before the Consumer Forum/Commission under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

1. Complaint – One year
2. Appeal from District forum to State Commission – 30 days
3. Appeal from State Commission to National Commission – 60 days
4. Appeal from the National Commission to Supreme Court – 90 days.

Answer: (b)

58. Who among the following defined crime as “an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law either forbidding or commanding it”?

1. Russell
2. Kenny
3. Blackstone
4. F. Stephen.

Answer: (c)

59. Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?

(i) Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.

(ii) Crime committed by a foreigner in India.

(iii) Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii).

Answer: (d)

60. ‘A’, a woman knowing that his husband ‘B’ has recently committed dacoity, harbours him with the intention of screening him from the punishment. In the case ‘A’ is:

1. guilty for harbouring only
2. guilty for screening only
3. guilty for harbouring as well as screening
4. not guilty.

Answer: (d)

61. ‘A’ enters into the house of ‘B’ with the intention to commit theft. ‘B’ along with other members of his family surround and attack ‘A’ with wooden sticks. ‘A’ finding his life in danger fires with pistol causing death to ‘B’. Here ‘A’ has committed:

1. No offence, as he acted in self-defence
2. Theft
3. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
4. Murder.

Answer: (d)

62. A, a police officer, tortures B to induce him to point where certain stolen property is deposited. Here A is guilty of an offence under:

1. Section 330, I.P.C.
2. Section 331, I.P.C.
3. Section 332, I.P.C.
4. Section 333, I.P.C.

Answer: (a)

63. The right of private defence of body commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues as long as such apprehension continues.” This observation was made by the Supreme Court in:

1. Deo Narain v. State of U.P.
2. Ram Swaroop v. State of U.P.
3. Ranga Billa v. Union of India
4. State of Punjab v. Nanak Chand.

Answer: (a)

64. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Provision for)

(a) General explanation of ‘life’

(b) Act of judge when acting judicially

(c) Act of child under seven years of age

(d) Explanation of ‘Good faith’

List-II (Section of I.P.C.)

(i) Section 45

(ii) Section 52

(iii) Section 77

(iv) Section 82

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (c)

65. A, a public officer, is authorised by a warrant from a Court of Justice to apprehend Z. B, knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A, that C is Z and thereby intentionally causes A to apprehend C. In this case B abets the apprehension of C by:

1. aiding only
2. Instigation only
3. Conspiracy only
4. Aiding and instigation.

Answer: (b)

66. Match List-I (Name of Case) with List-II (offence) and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Name of Case)

(a) Vishwanath v. State of U.P.

(b) State of Punjab v. Major Singh

(c) S. Varadarajan v. State of Madras

(d) Amar Singh v. State of Rajasthan

List-II (Offence)

(i) Kidnapping

(ii) Private defence

(iii) Modesty of women

(iv) Dowry death

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

67. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): A person imports into India from a foreign country or from the State of Jammu and Kashmir, a girl with the intention of forcing her to illicit intercourse with another person, shall be punished with ten years imprisonment.

Reason(R): It is so provided under Section 366-B of the Indian Penal Code. Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the exact nature of the act.

Reason(R): Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (b)

69. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The employer need not commit a series of unfair transactions before he could be held guilty of unfair labour practice.

Reason(R): The purpose of Industrial Disputes Act is to prevent industrial strife – in other words to prevent anything from happening which could lead to Industrial Disputes and not merely to punish it after it has been practiced.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

70. “The application of the Industrial Disputes Act to organisations which were, quite possibly, not intended to be so covered, might have done more damage than good, not merely to the organisations but also to employees, thus the decision in Bangalore water supply case requires to be re-examined.” In which one of the following cases the above has been observed?

1. P. Electricity Board v. Jagdish Chandra Sharma
2. Hombe Gowda Educational Trust v. State of Karnataka
3. Coir Board, Ernakulam, Cochin v. Indira Devi P.S. and others
4. State of Haryana v. Piara Singh.

Answer: (c)

71. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Social Justice is not based on contractual relations and is not to be enforced on the principles of contract of service

(b) Decision of the Tribunal must be based on established principles and not import any notion of so called justice or compulsion to safeguard the interest of workmen

(c) The very important philosophy that the concept of Industrial peace is positive and postulates the existence of the understanding, cooperation and sense of partnership between employers and employees

(d) The Supreme Court emphatically propounded the very idea of social justice in the form of general interest of the community in its historical judgment

List-II

(i) J.K. Iron and Steel Company Ltd. v. Iron and Steel Mazdoor Union

(ii) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh v. Apollo Mills Ltd.

(iii) State of Bihar v. Kameshwar

(iv) Standard Vacuum Refining Company v. Its Workmen

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (a)

72. Which one of the following is wrong?

1. An employer must have committed a series of unfair transactions before he could be held guilty of unfair labour practice
2. A settlement outside the conciliation proceedings would bind the parties to the agreement and a settlement under Section 18(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act as a result of conciliation would bind all the workers
3. The union which represents the largest number of workmen working in the undertaking must acquire the status
4. The employer has to give an opportunity and preference to retrenched workmen for re-employment.

Answer: (a)

73. The strike or lock-out shall not be deemed to be illegal:

1. If the strike or lock-out has commenced after the reference of disputes to the authorities under the Act
2. If the strike or lock-out has commenced before and continued even after the prohibition under Section 10(3) of the Act
3. If the continuance of strike or lock-out has not been prohibited by the order made under Section 10-A (4-A) of the Act
4. If the strike or lock-out was in contravention of this Act only at its commencement.

Answer: (c)

74. An application to the Tribunal by an employer seeking permission to discharge or dismiss a workman during pendency of the proceedings in respect of an Industrial Dispute:

1. Is not maintainable in all cases
2. Is maintainable even if bonafide conclusion has not been reached in respect of certain workmen
3. Is maintainable if found that all the proper steps have been taken and bonafide conclusion has been reached in respect of misconduct of the workmen
4. Is maintainable even if prima facie case is not made out.

Answer: (c)

75. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) An Industrial Dispute can arise when a demand is made by the workman and denied by the employer.

(ii) Industrial Dispute is a dispute between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between workmen and workmen.

(iii) Employer’s failure to fulfil his verbal assurances is an Industrial Dispute.

(iv) Industrial Dispute will subsist in spite of closure of industry.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
2. (ii) and (iv) are correct
3. (i) and (iv) are correct
4. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (d)

76. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the growth of Administrative law in India?

(i) In the pre-constitutional period, a system of administrative legislation and adjudication existed.

(ii) The philosophy of welfare State was made the creed of the Indian Constitution.

(iii) In the new economic order, State is withdrawing from business, yet its functions as facilitator and regulator are increasing. It will increase the significance of administrative law .

(iv) All administrative matters are dealt by the Administrative Courts and their decisions are final and not subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Court.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (i) and (ii) are correct
2. (ii) and (iv) are correct
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (c)

77. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to principles of natural justice?

(i) Principles of natural justice have enriched law and Constitutions the world over.

(ii) Uniform cut and dried formula can be laid down to determine real likelihood of bias. Each case can’t be determined on the basis of its facts.

(iii) Reasons for its decisions by any authority substitutes subjectivity with objectivity.

(iv) If in a given case, only prior hearing would achieve the object of the exercise of power it must be dispensed with and subsequently post-decisional hearing can be provided as a substitute.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. (i) and (ii) are correct
2. (iii) and (iv) are correct
3. (i) and (iii) are correct
4. (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (c)

78. Match the items of List-I (name of case) with the items of List-II (ground of judicial review) and choose the correct answer from the code given below.

List-I (Name of Case)

(a) Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation

(b) Institute of Law, Chandigarh v. Neeraj Sharma

(c) Council of Civil Services Union v. Minister for the Civil Service

(d) Centre for PIL v. Union of India

List-II (Ground of Judicial Review)

(i) Extraneous consideration

(ii) Legitimate expectations

(iii) Public accountability

(iv) Proportionality

Code:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i).

Answer: (d)

79. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Judicial Review of Administrative actions under Article 32 and 226 is part of the basic structure of Indian Constitution.

Reason(R): It was held to be so by the Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

80. Who among the following are within the jurisdiction in respect of inquiry under Section 14 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?

(i) Any Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ Officers

(ii) Any Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ officials

(iii) Any Group ‘E’ or Group ‘F’ employees

(iv) Any Group ‘G’ or Group ‘H’ workers

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. Only (i) is correct
2. (i) and (ii) are correct
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (b)

81. Which of the following powers is not vested with Lokpal under Chapter-VIII of the Act, 2013?

1. Powers of search and seizure
2. Powers of criminal court in certain cases
3. Powers of attachment of assets
4. Powers to utilise services of officers of Central or State Government.

Answer: (b)

82. Which one of the following is not the function of the Central (Pollution Control) Board under the Water Act, 1974?

1. To advise the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water pollution
2. To coordinate the activities of the State Boards and resolve disputes among them
3. To advise the State Government on any matter concerning the prevention, control or abatement of water pollution
4. To provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigations and research relating to problems of water pollution and prevention, control or abatement of water pollution.

Answer: (c)

83. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): The Government could not control pollution, in spite of the Continuous Environmental Monitoring System (CEMS) introduced in 2014.

Reason(R): Environment related data, especially on the performance of the polluters, has always been both limited in scope and invisible to the public.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (a)

84. The Code of Criminal Procedure which contains some general provisions to cover ordinary situations came to be regarded as an instrument to combat pollution in 1980s and was utilised in one of the following cases:

1. Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar
2. Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
3. P. State Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V. Naidu
4. Municipal Council Ratlam v. Vardhichand.

Answer: (d)

85. Bonn Convention is associated with:

1. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
2. International Whaling Convention
3. Convention on Migratory Species
4. Convention on Nature and Natural Resources.

Answer: (c)

86. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

(a) Trail Smelter’s Case

(b) Basel Convention

(c) Earth Summit

(d) Kyoto Protocol

List-II

(i) Reducing transboundary movement of hazardous waste

(ii) Climate change

(iii) Preventing pollution and environmental damage between Nations

(iv) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

Code:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (a)

87. To give constitutional sanction to democracy at the grassroot level through Panchayat and Municipalities, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in 1992. Which one of the following subjects related to environment is not found in the Twelfth Schedule?

1. Urban planning including town planning
2. Regulation of land use and construction of buildings
3. Animal husbandry, Dairying and Poultry
4. Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste.

Answer: (c)

88. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Year of Adoption)

(a) 1971

(b) 1975

(c) 1986

(d) 1993

List-II (U.N. Declaration)

(i) Declaration on the Right to Development

(ii) Vienna Declaration on Human Rights

(iii) Declaration on the Rights of Mentally Retarded persons

(iv) Declaration on the use of scientific and technological progress in the interest of peace and for the benefit of mankind

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (c)

89. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Article in UDHR)

(a) Article 9

(b) Article 13

(c) Article 15

(d) Article 17

List-II (Content in UDHR)

(i) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.

(ii) No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.

(iii) Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state. Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own and return to his country.

(iv) Everyone has the right to nationality. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality and denied the right to change his nationality.

Code:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Answer: (b)

90. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) The Chairperson and Members of the State Human Rights Commission shall be appointed by the President under his hand and seal.

(ii) The Chairperson or a Member of a State Human Rights Commission may, by notice in writing under his hand addressed to the Governor, resign his office.

(iii) The President of India may, by order, remove from office the Chairperson or any Member as the case may be, if adjudged an insolvent.

(iv) On ceasing to hold office, a Chairperson shall be eligible for further employment under the Government of India.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
3. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (c)

91. Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Sections in the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993)

(a) Section 37

(b) Section 38

(c) Section 39

(d) Section 40

List-II (Content in Protection of Human Rights Act 1993)

(i) Constitution of Special investigation teams

(ii) Power of Central Government to make rules

(iii) Protection of action taken in good faith

(iv) Members and officers to be public servants

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

92. The National Human Rights Commission was established in India on:

1. 2nd October 1993
2. 22nd November 1993
3. 25th November 1993
4. 2nd December 1993.

Answer: Question Deleted

93. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Lawless v. Ireland was the first case decided by the European Court of Human Rights.

(ii) Ireland v. United Kingdom is related to Article 3 of European Convention of Human Rights which deals with freedom from torture and inhuman or degrading treatment.

(iii) The U.N. Commission on Human Rights was replaced by Human Rights Committee in March 2006 by the General Assembly.

(iv) The Commission on the Status of Women is a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) established in 1948.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

1. Only (i) and (ii) are correct
2. Only (i) and (iii) are correct
3. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (a)

94. To safeguard the interest of the shareholders through class action suits, an application may be made to the Tribunal. Which one of the following is wrong? An application:

1. to restrain the company from committing an act which is ultra vires the Articles or Memorandum
2. to restrain the company from committing breach of any provision of the Company’s Memorandum and Articles
3. to restrain the Company from taking action to any resolution passed by members
4. to restrain the Company and its Directors from acting on a resolution obtained by mis-statement to the members or depositors.

Answer: (c)

95. The Doctrine of Indoor Management was first laid down in the case of:

1. Morris v. Kanssen
2. Howard v. Patent Ivory Company
3. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
4. Ruben v. Great Fingall Consolidated.

Answer: (c)

96. Where an individual is a common partner in two firms:

1. no action can be brought by one firm against the other upon any transaction between them so long as that individual continues to be a common partner
2. an action can be brought by one firm against the other upon any transaction between them even though that individual continues to be a common partner
3. an action can be brought by one firm against other firm upon any transaction between them but the common partner shall not be arrayed as a defendant
4. an action can be brought by one firm against other firm upon any transaction between them but the common partner shall be excluded from participating in the proceedings.

Answer: (a)

97. When a partnership firm is constituted for a fixed period and after the expiration of that term, the firm continues to carry on business, without new agreement, then:

1. The partnership stand extended till the new agreement is made
2. The partnership becomes partnership at will
3. The partnership becomes illegal
4. The partnership stands dissolved on the date of expiry of the term and no partnership can be said to be in existence.

Answer: (b)

98. Match the items in List-I with the items of List-II under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Section)

(a) Section 15

(b) Section 27

(c) Section 16

(d) Section 12

List-II ( Provision)

(i) Implied conditions as to quality or fitness

(ii) Sale by description

(iii) Condition and Warranty

(iv) Sale by person not the owner

Code:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (a)

99. The Latin maxim ‘nemo dat quod non habet’ means:

1. an innocent occupier of goods can pass a proper title
2. no man can pass a better title than he has
3. an innocent and bonafide purchaser gets a proper title as of a true owner
4. a finder of goods can pass a proper title.

Answer: (b)

100. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other labelled as Reason(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

Assertion(A): A ‘negotiable instrument’ means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer.

Reason(R): Because it is said so under Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

Code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
3. Both (A) and (R) are false
4. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a)

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